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Veterinary Physiology > Immunology > Flashcards

Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

which cytokine regulates the transition between neutrophil and macrophage dominated inflammation

A

IL-6

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1
Q

which cytokine is a major mediator of septic shock

A

IL-6

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2
Q

many vasoactive molecules are made via conversion of ________________

A

arachidonic acid

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3
Q

what would happen if COX was inhibited

A

blocked conversion of arachidonic acid to vasoactive molecules, therefore dampening inflammation

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4
Q

TH cells have which CD molecules

A

CD3, CD4

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5
Q

TC cells express which CD molecules

A

CD3, CD8

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6
Q

B cells express which CD molecules

A

CD20

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7
Q

what cells are phagocytic

A

neutrophils, macrophages, DCs

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8
Q

what cells are APCs

A

macrophages, DCs, B cells

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9
Q

what cells are sentient

A

mast cells, macrophages, DCs

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10
Q

regular DCs are produced from a ____________ progenitor whereas plasmacytoid DCs are produced from a _____________ progenitor

A

regular DCs are produced from a MYELOID progenitor whereas plasmacytoid DCs are produced from a LYMPHOID progenitor

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11
Q

plasmacytoid DCs produce which cytokines

A

type I IFNs (IFNα/β) - makes them important in antiviral defense

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12
Q

what growth factor regulates production of neutrophils

A

G-CSF

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13
Q

what binds to what to facilitate ROLLING

A

L-selectin on neutrophils binds to P-selectin on endothelial cells

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14
Q

what binds to what to facilitate FIRM ADHESION

A

LFA-1 on neutrophils binds ICAM-1 on endothelial cells

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15
Q

what cytokines do neutrophils release after diapedesis

A

IL-1, IL-6, TNFα

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16
Q

T/F neutrophils are longer living than macrophages

A

F

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17
Q

M1 macrophages are ________-inflammatory, and __________________ and are driven by _____________

A

pro-inflammatory; antimicrobial; IFNγ (and IL-12)

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18
Q

M2 macrophages are _________-inflammatory, and ______________ and are driven by __________________

A

anti-inflammatory; pro-angiogenic; IL-4 (and IL-13)

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19
Q

role of CD31

A

expressed by living neutrophils; gives anti-death signal to macrophages (if no signal, macrophages will phagocytose neutrophils)

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20
Q

granulomas are created by the action of _____ macrophages

A

M2 macrophages

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21
Q

what APP is common to all veterinary species

A

SAA (serum amyloid A)

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22
Q

role of SAA

A

enhanced chemotaxis of neutrophils, lymphocytes, and macrophages

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23
Q

what APP sequesters iron

A

haptoglobin

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24
Q

what are siderophores

A

produced by bacteria to steal iron from the host

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25
Q

pathogenesis of toxic shock

A

toxic shock bacteria -> crosslinking of MHC molecules -> non-specific activation of a large number of lymphocytes -> cytokine storm of IL1, IL6, TNFα -> SIRS

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26
Q

what are the three modes that complement is activated

A

1) classical 2) alternative 3)lectin

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27
Q

what activates classical mode of complement

A

Ag-Ab complex

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28
Q

what activates alternative mode of complement

A

pathogen surface

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29
Q

what activates lectin mode of complement

A

collectins

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30
Q

name three outcomes of complement activation

A

1) direct cell lysis via MAC
2) increased phagocytosis by binding to complement receptors
3) increased vascular permeability and leukocyte attraction

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31
Q

what mode of cell communication is not used by cytokines
a) autocrine
b) paracrine
c) endocrine

A

c) endocrine

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32
Q

T/F B cells can only detect protein antigens

A

F. B cells detect protein, lipid or carbohydrate antigens

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33
Q

T/F T cells can only detect protein antigens

A

T

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34
Q

which of the following are bad examples of an antigen
a) glycolipids
b) lipids
c) glycoproteins
d) lipoproteins
e) polysaccharides
f) proteins
g) structurally unstable molecules

A

b, e, g

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35
Q

CD40, CD80 and CD86 are markers of

A

mature DCs

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36
Q

high IL-12 is a marker of

A

mature DCs

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37
Q

high Fc receptors/low surface MHC is a marker of

A

immature DCs

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38
Q

histiocytomas are often caused by

A

Langerhans cells (macrophages in skin)

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39
Q

what is MHC haplotype

A

the full set of MHC expressed by an animals cells

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40
Q

MHC in cows is called

A

BoLA

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41
Q

MHC in pigs is called

A

SLA

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42
Q

MHC in cats is called

A

FLA

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43
Q

MHC in dogs is called

A

DLA

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44
Q

what are the implications of a diverse MHC haplotype

A

less susceptible to infectious disease but more susceptible to autoimmune disease

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45
Q

what functions as both primary and secondary lymphoid tissue

A

bone marrow

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46
Q

what CD molecule is expressed by naive T cells but not mature T cells, ensuring naive T cells stay in the lymph node

A

CD62L

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47
Q

where are the majority of lymphocytes

A

lymph nodes

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48
Q

what is a mitogen

A

molecule that induces mitosis and non-specifically activates lymphocytes; bypasses requirements of lymphocytes for BCR/TCR mediated recognition of an antigen

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49
Q

what are 3 ways that NK cells can kill

A

1) loss of MHC class I expression
2) increase in expression of stress-related proteins (MICA/MICB)
3) Ab binding to CD16, leading to ADCC

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50
Q

what cytokine stimulates NK cells

A

IFNγ

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51
Q

what cytokine do activates NK cells produce

A

IFNγ

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52
Q

do NK cells have memory

A

yes - adopt epigenetic changes after exposure to a virus that allow them to respond better to future viral infections

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53
Q

importance of ILC1-3

A

greatest pound-for-pound cytokine producers, so they play a role in regulating immune responses

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54
Q

what activates NKT cells

A

glycolipids presented via CD1d to an invariant TCR on the NKT cell surface

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55
Q

what is the trimolecular complex involved in NKT activation

A

CD1d, glycolipids, invariant TCR

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56
Q

dogs have CD4 on which cell types

A

TH cells, macrophages and neutrophils

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57
Q

what cytokine is best associated with TH1 cells

A

IFNγ

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58
Q

what cytokine is best associated with TH2 cells

A

IL-4

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59
Q

what antibody isotype provides systemic defense and is most abundant in serum

A

IgG

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60
Q

what antibody isotype has the longest half life

A

IgG

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61
Q

what antibody isotype is best at activating complement

A

IgM

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62
Q

what antibody isotype is associated with the primary immune response

A

IgM

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63
Q

Predominant Ig isotype in colostrum and why

A

IgG; systemically protective

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64
Q

Predominant Ig isotype in ruminant milk and why

A

IgG; ruminants have IgG at the mucosa therefore the main type in milk after the gut closes (get best type at the mucosa)

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65
Q

Predominant Ig isotype in non-ruminant milk and why

A

IgA; predominant isotype at mucosal surfaces therefore the main type in milk after the gut closes (get best type at the mucosa)

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66
Q

What Ig isotypes are not prominant in milk and why

A

IgE (antiparasitic not important in neonates) and IgD (function unknown)

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67
Q

colostrum intake protects against ___________ disease whereas milk intake protects against _________ disease

A

colostrum intake protects against SEPTICEMIC disease whereas milk intake protects against ENTERIC disease

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68
Q

Turbidometric immunoassay and snap tests assess for

A

Success/failure of passive transfer in horses

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69
Q

What to do if low Ig

A

watch very closely and treat with antibiotics at the first sign of infections

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70
Q

What to do if very low/complete failure of Ig

A

intensively feed alternative source of colostrum

71
Q

Outcomes of in utero infection with non-cytopathic BVD

A

If early on, get persistent infection; if later on, immune system will clear and get healthy calf

72
Q

Outcomes of in utero infection with cytopathic BVD

A

If early on, mummification, still birth or absorption; if later on, malformation; if even later on, healthy calf

73
Q

How does the microflora contribute to development of the neonate immune system

A

Dendritic cells present microbial antigens to Th cells. Microflora generates PAMPs that activate PRRs; both of these processes promote tolerance

74
Q

How is IgY transported to a chick embryo

A

Through the serum directly into the chicks circulation (during fluid yolk phase): ends up in circulation

75
Q

How is IgA/IgM transported to a chick embryo

A

Through albumin into the amniotic fluid; gets ingested by the chick: ends up in gut

76
Q

What is neonatal isoerythrolysis in foals

A

Mother is pre-exposed to foal RBC antigens and creates antibodies against the foal RBCs; gets passed to colostrum; ingested by foal; erythrolysis of foal RBCs between 24-36h

77
Q

How to manage detection of NI in foals before 24h

A

Use a different colostrum source; cease ingestion of mothers colostrum

78
Q

How to manage detection of NI in foals after 24h

A

Blood transfusion

79
Q

How to proactively test for NI in foals

A

Use an indirect coombs test

80
Q

How to diagnose NI in foals after it occurs

A

Direct coombs test

81
Q

Why is vitamin D needed to fight tuberculosis

A

Vitamin D binds to Vit D receptor on macrophages (upregulated through TLR 1/2 signalling) to activate Vit D hydroxylase, which produces antibacterial cathelicidins

82
Q

What are the three mechanisms of antifungal immunity

A

Primary, skin and other surfaces; primary, lungs; secondary and opportunistic

83
Q

What are the effector cells against fungal infections

A

NK cells, TH17 cells, TH1 cells

84
Q

What cells promote formation of a granuloma

A

Th1 cells

85
Q

Describe cyclic parasitemia

A

Parasite constantly mutates to form a new antigen; immune system has to form a primary immune response each time this occurs; eventually the parasite will mutate in a way that compromises its own survival

86
Q

What two ways does an infectious agent cause symptoms of disease

A

1) damage to host cells, tissues or organs
2) damage to tissues from immune response

87
Q

What three effector cell types clear intracellular bacteria

A

Tc, NK, M1 macrophages

88
Q

What is required to clear helminth infections (2 cells and an antibody isotype)

A

Th2; IgE, eosinophils

89
Q

What is the virome

A

Non-pathogenic viruses that make up the microflora

90
Q

T/F Type I IFN responses use autocrine, paracrine and endocrine mechanisms

A

T

91
Q

What is the Type I IFN receptor

A

IFNAR

92
Q

What cell type produces the most Type I IFN

A

Th1 cells

93
Q

What is the key effector cell in an antiviral immune response

A

CD8+ Tc cells

94
Q

Autograft

A

Same individual

95
Q

Allograft

A

Same species

96
Q

Isograft

A

D/R are genetically identical

97
Q

Xenograft

A

different species

98
Q

in what cases do we not need to worry about graft rejection

A

Isograft and autograft

99
Q

Triggers of allograft rejection

A

1) mismatched MHC antigens
2) blood group antigen mismatches
3) foreign antigens presented by MHC

100
Q

What are the four types of graft rejection

A

Hyperacute, accelerated, acute, chronic

101
Q

Hyperacute rejection occurs within ________ and is due to _________

A

Minutes-hours; pre-existing antibodies

102
Q

Accelerated rejection occurs within __________ and is due to ____________

A

Days; memory cells

103
Q

Acute rejection occurs within ___________ and is due to ________________

A

Weeks; T cell responses

104
Q

Chronic rejection occurs within ________________ and is due to ________________

A

Months; antibodies

105
Q

Why do liver transplants tend to be rejected slowly

A

Hepatocytes produce a lot of IDO

106
Q

what is the umbilical cord rich in

A

neonatal stem cells

107
Q

why do skin allografts take longer to be rejected

A

no established blood supply at time of transplant

108
Q

why dont corneal allografts require tissue typing or immunosuppression

A

immunopriveleged site

109
Q

how is allogenic bone marrow transplanted

A

1) treat host with radiation to kill off their bone marrow
2) inject host with donor bone marrow
3) prophylactic antibiotics until the new immune system is reconstituted

110
Q

what is graft-versus-host-disease

A

when transplanted bone marrow results in cells that recognize host tissue as foreign and attack it (occurs when there is a large degree of MHC mismatch)

111
Q

concordant vs discordant xenografts

A

concordant: closely related species; discordant: non-related species

112
Q

why doesn’t sperm get rejected in the uterus

A

it is immunosuppressive (prostatic fluids inhibit complement)

113
Q

What is sensitivity

A

Probability a test will be positive when a disease is present

114
Q

What is specificity

A

Probability a test will be negative when a disease is absent

115
Q

What does FSC determine in flow cytometry

A

Relative size of the cell

116
Q

What does SSC determine in flow cytometry

A

Relative granularity or internal complexity

117
Q

What does FL1, FL2… determine in flow cytometry

A

Relative flourescence

118
Q

What does indirect ELISA detect

A

antibodies in serum

119
Q

What does a sandwich ELISA detect

A

antigens in serum

120
Q

What must a virus express in order to cause hemagglutination

A

hemagglutinins

121
Q

What is a false positive

A

Test came up positive even though the animal does not have the pathogen

122
Q

What is a false negative

A

Test came back negative even though the animal has the pathogen

123
Q

What can flow cytometry be used to diagnose

A

Hematological malignancies (lymphocyte vs monocyte vs granulocyte cancer)

124
Q

T/F ELISA can be miniaturized into rapid tests

A

T

125
Q

T/F The immune system ignores self

A

False; the immune system will destroy self-derived but dangerous cells (ex. cancerous cells)

126
Q

T/F carnivores have a higher incidence of cancer

A

T

127
Q

Which of the following may be the strongest correlate to cancer risk
a) longevity
b) body size
c) nutrition

A

C

128
Q

What are the three E’s of immunoediting

A

Elimination, equilibrium, escape

129
Q

Elimination: killing cancer cells _____ cancer cell proliferation

A

>

130
Q

Elimination represents

A

successful immunosurveillance

131
Q

Equilibrium: killing cancer cells _______ cancer cell proliferation

A

=

132
Q

During equilibrium what happens

A

TUMOUR EDITING: Cancer cells acquire immuno-evasive properties

133
Q

Escape: killing cancer cells ______ cancer cell proliferation

A

<

134
Q

Escape represents a shift from ________ cancer to ___________ cancer

A

subclinical cancer to clinical cases of cancer

135
Q

Role of TILs in cancer

A

Help move from equilibrium -> elimination

136
Q

Escape is promoted by a loss of (3)

A
  1. IL-12
  2. IFNγ
  3. T cells
137
Q

What is an IDEAL antigen for immunotherapies (3)

A
  1. expressed on all cancer cells
  2. expressed only on cancer cells
  3. expressed in a variety of cancers
138
Q

What is a less ideal antigen for immunotherapies and what is the best outcome

A

TAAs
1. expressed in a higher concentration on cancer cells
2. expressed during different stages of development
3. expressed in healthy cells in immunopriveliged sites

139
Q

How to circumvent the fact that not everyone’s immune system will respond the same to immunotherapies

A

Use a variety that recruit multiple weapons of the immune system

140
Q

How to circumvent immunotherapies for immunocompromised and immunosensecent individuals

A

Use passive immunotherapies (ex. antibodies)

141
Q

How to circumvent cancers in immunopriveleged locations

A

Leverage mechanisms of the immune system that protect places like the brain

142
Q

How to overcome antigen loss variants of cancers

A

Target multiple antigens with immunotherapies

143
Q

Four catagories of immunotherapies

A
  1. vaccines, 2. antibodies, 3. adoptive cell therapies, 4. oncolytic virotherapy
144
Q

Neoadjuvant vs adjuvant delivery of immunotherapy for surgery

A

Neoadjuvant = before surgery; adjuvant = after surgery

145
Q

Atopy

A

immediate allergic response ex. atopic dermatitis

146
Q

Urticaria (what is it and what causes it)

A

Rash of round welts on the skin, usually due to food allergens

147
Q

Pruritis

A

Severe itching

148
Q

What Ig isotype is best for blood typing

A

IgM (10 binding sites)

149
Q

When in a rush, should a clinician perform blood typing or cross matching

A

cross-matching (takes less than 30 minutes)

150
Q

Even though cows have the most complex blood group system, why is HA relatively uncommon? How does it typically arise

A

Inbreeding within herds increases genetic similarity; commonly comes from vaccinating the mother with pooled blood from infected calves (can sensitize the mother; passes Ab to calves via colostrum)

151
Q

Optimal canine donors are negative for

A

DEA 1.1, 1.2, 3, 5, 7

152
Q

Want to avoid transfusing type _ blood into cats that are type _, since _% have antibodies against it.

A

Type A blood into cats that are Type B; 95%

153
Q

Universal RBC donor

A

O-

154
Q

Universal RBC recipient

A

AB+

155
Q

Universal plasma donor

A

AB+

156
Q

Universal plasma recipient

A

O-

157
Q

How do you treat a transfusion reaction?

A
  1. stop transfusion immediately
  2. give fluids and diuretics to promote urine flow
158
Q

Why does a vaccine that uses cytopathic BVDV grown in bovine kidney cells promote pancytopenia in newborn calves

A

Grown in bovine kidney cells therefore exposed to bovine MHC; may end up in the vaccine; get cows vaccinated against certain MHC

159
Q

What is a potential consequence of a drug binding to the surface of an RBC

A

Acts as a hapten; get targetting of the RBC and anemia

160
Q

What is a potential consequence of an RBC absorbing a pathogen-derived antigen

A

The RBC will be removed by phagocytosis

161
Q

What are rheumatoid factors

A

Antibodies that bind to novel epitopes on other antibodies (ex. after they bind to their target antigen)

162
Q

How do microchimerisms induce autoimmunity

A

Maternal and fetal blood circulation shared -> maternal response to fetal RBC -> cross-reaction with maternal cells (they share 50% of their DNA)

163
Q

How does milk allergy develop

A

Infrequent milking -> increased intra-mammary pressure -> backflow of milk protein into blood (not normally present) -> TH2 biased response -> autoreactive IgE -> anaphylaxis

164
Q

What is the cause of pain in rheumatoid arthritis and systemic lupus erythematosus

A

Immune complex (autoantibodies against autoantigens) deposition and subsequent inflammation

165
Q

Purpose of vaccines (3)

A
  1. simulate a pathogenic infection
  2. induce an immune response that prevents against disease
  3. prevent transmission of the causative agent
166
Q

The quality of a vaccine is based on its ____________, not on its ___________

A

Performance; technological platform (conventional vs new)

167
Q

T/F an ideal vaccine does not require boosting

A

T

168
Q

What is the duration of immunity for an ideal vaccine

A

Lifetime of the animal

169
Q

What is the duration of immunity

A

How long protection is maintained against the disease and transmission of the causative agent

170
Q

Which of the following vaccine strategies is pro-phylactic
a) herd immunity
b) ring vaccination
c) predictive vaccination

A

a

171
Q

T/F A vaccine that does not confer immunity can never be used to achieve herd immunity

A

T

172
Q

What is relative risk reduction

A

Degree to which an intervention reduced an unwanted incident within a subpopulation that has a disease

173
Q

What is absolute risk reduction

A

Degree to which an intervention reduced an unwanted incident among the total population

174
Q

What is seroconversion

A

When pathogen-specific antibodies appear in serum

175
Q

How do you treat vaccine-induced anaphylactic shock

A

epinephrine

176
Q

What are three reasons why vaccines sometimes need to be re-administered

A
  1. competing with passive immunity
  2. boosters
  3. antigenic variation of pathogens over time

Veterinary Physiology (11 decks)

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