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Veterinary Physiology > Endocrinology > Flashcards

Endocrinology Flashcards

1
Q

what is homeostasis

A

maintenance of a stable internal environment for normal body functioning

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2
Q

T/F homeostasis is a state of static equilibrium

A

F; dynamic equilibrium

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3
Q

what is homeostatic imbalance

A

disturbance in homeostasis resulting in stress or disease

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4
Q

control of the internal environment relies on:
1. constant monitoring of
2. responding to

A
  1. constant monitoring of the composition of blood
  2. changes in blood composition
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5
Q

most systems operate in what feedback manner

A

negative

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6
Q

how does the body communicate with cells and tissues

A

NTs and hormones

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7
Q

endocrine systems can have a rapid or slow response time, ranging from

A

minutes to months

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8
Q

define endocrine glands

A

any tissue which releases hormones into the bloodstream to effect change in another tissue

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9
Q

what hormones fall under amino acid derivatives

A

epinephrine; thyroxine; melatonin

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10
Q

what hormones fall under peptides

A

hypothalamic hormones; insulin

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11
Q

what hormones fall under proteins

A

growth hormone; prolactin

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12
Q

what hormones fall under steroids

A

glucocorticoids; mineralocorticoids; gonadal steroids

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13
Q

only one category of hormones is synthesized on demand, which is

A

steroids

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14
Q

which hormone category(s) diffuses from the cell

A

steroids and thyroid hormone

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15
Q

the fact that steroids and thyroid hormone diffuses from the cell has what 2 implications

A

bound to carrier protein in plasma; long half-life

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16
Q

what are 4 causes to disturbed homeostasis

A

overproduction, underproduction, transport/clearance problems, resistance

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17
Q

what is unique about the receptor for steroids and thyroid hormone

A

found in the cytoplasm/nucleus

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18
Q

all hormones except for ___________ and __________ use ________________

A

steroid; thyroid; second messenger systems

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19
Q

what are the 2 types of GPCRs

A

adenylate cyclase-cAMP
phospholipase C-Ca

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20
Q

what is an example of a hormone that uses adenylate-cyclase-cAMP

A

β-adrenergic receptors for NE/E

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21
Q

what is an example of a hormone that uses phospholipase C-Ca

A

α1-adrenergic receptors for NE/E

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22
Q

what is an example of a hormone that uses tyrosine kinase

A

insulin

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23
Q

what is an example of a hormone that uses the cytokine second messenger system (i.e. JAK/STAT)

A

growth hormone

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24
Q

steroid/thyroid hormone receptors have what domains

A

hormone binding domain and DNA binding domain (which binds to HRE)

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25
Q

how does the thyroid hormone receptor differ from the steroid hormone receptor

A

the thyroid hormone receptor is already bound to the HRE; it gets to the nucleus via a binding protein; the receptor is a heterodimer (with RXR)

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26
Q

T/F there is a stepwise increase in signal from hypothalamus -> pituitary -> target tissue

A

T

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27
Q

what is another name for dopamine

A

prolactin inhibiting hormone; PIH

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28
Q

CRH regulates the secretion of what two hormones

A

ACTH and MSH

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29
Q

what is another name for somatostatin

A

growth hormone inhibiting hormone; GHIH

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30
Q

what hormones are released by the posterior pituitary

A

ADH and oxytocin (vasopressin)

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31
Q

the anterior pituitary is also called the pars ______________; the posterior pituitary is also called the pars _____________.

A

distalis; nervosa

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32
Q

what region of the pituitary mainly secretes MSH

A

pars intermedia

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33
Q

what connects the hypothalamus and pituitary? what partially enwraps it

A

infundibulum; pars tuberalis

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34
Q

oxytocin is produced by ___________ neurosecretory cells within the _________________ nucleus

A

magnocellular; paraventricular

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35
Q

ADH is produced by _____________ neurosecretory cells within the _________________ nucleus

A

magnocellular; supraoptic

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36
Q

AP-hormone regulating hormones are produced by _____________ cells within the _________________ and ________________ nuclei

A

parvocellular; supraoptic and paraventricular

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37
Q

what are the 3 main endocrine cells of the AP

A

acidophils, basophils, chromophobes

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38
Q

acidophils includes (2)

A

lactotropes (prolactin) and somatotropes (GH)

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39
Q

basophils includes (3)

A

thyrotropes (TSH), gonadotropes (LH/FSH), corticotropes (ACTH)

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40
Q

chromophobes includes (1)

A

melanotropes (MSH); within the pars intermedia

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41
Q

MSH is stimulated by ___________ and inhibited by __________

A

stimulated by CRH; inhibited by oxytocin

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42
Q

prohormones are processed to active hormones _________ secretion whereas prehormones are processed to active hormones ___________ secretion

A

before; after

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43
Q

examples of prehormones

A

vitamin D3 is converted to 1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D3 in target tissue
thyroxine (T4) is converted to T3 in target tissue

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44
Q

how is POMC processed in the AP

A

to ACTH and β-LPH

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45
Q

POMC can give rise to (4)

A

ACTH, MSH, lipotropin (LPH), endorphin

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46
Q

how is POMC processed in the pars intermedia

A

to ACTH and β-LPH; then further to MSH, CLIP, γ-LHP, β-endorphin

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47
Q

what is responsible for cleavage of POMC into different products

A

prohormone convertase 1, 2, 3

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48
Q

describe MSH signalling

A

α-MSH binds to MC1-R (GPCR, adenylate cyclase-cAMP); triggers cell proliferation and melanin synthesis in melanocytes and hair follicles; has anti-inflammatory effects in immune cells

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49
Q

T/F MC1-R can bind to ACTH at high concentrations, which reduces skin pigmentation

A

F; it causes hyperpigmentation when this happens

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50
Q

what melanocortin receptor binds only ACTH

A

MC2-R

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51
Q

MC3-R binds

A

all MSH and ACTH equally

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52
Q

MC3-R is involved in

A

energy homeostasis, anti-inflammatory effects in alveolar macrophages

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53
Q

MC4-R binds

A

primarily α-MSH, but also all MSH and ACTH

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54
Q

MC4-R is involved in

A

inhibition of feeding behaviour and appetite (in the CNS)

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55
Q

MC5-R binds

A

ACTH and α-MSH

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56
Q

MC5-R is involved in

A

embryogenesis and exocrine gland activity

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57
Q

what is the most abundant AP hormone

A

GH

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58
Q

GH characteristics:
- (protein/amine/peptide/steroid) hormone
- binds to ____________ receptor
- mostly transported (free/via binding protein)
- synthesized, stored and secreted by __________________ in the _________
- half-life is

A
  • protein
  • cytokine (JAK/STAT)
  • via binding protein (GHBP)
  • somatotropes; AP
  • 6-20 min
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59
Q

GHRH is released by (parvocellular or magnocellular) cells in the (PVN or SN)

A

parvocellular; PVN

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60
Q

The largest GH peak occurs

A

1h after onset of sleep

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61
Q

Describe the pattern of GH secretion throughout life

A

highest basal levels early in life; highest frequency/amplitude during puberty

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62
Q

hypoglycemia _______ GH secretion; hyperglycemia __________ GH secretion

A

increases; decreases

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63
Q

ghrelin_____ GH secretion

A

increases

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64
Q

IGF characteristics:
- (protein/peptide/steroid/amine)
- binds to ____________ receptor
- mostly transported (free/via binding protein)
- produced in the
- half-life is

A
  • protein/peptide
  • tyrosine kinase
  • binding protein (IGFBP)
  • liver
  • ~12h
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65
Q

IGF-1 is prominent during ______________ whereas IGF-2 is prominent during

A

sexual maturity; embryonic/fetal growth (with insulin)

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66
Q

IGF-1 acts via what route

A

endocrine, paracrine and autocrine

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67
Q

T/F GH stimulates the synthesis and release of IGF-1 only in the liver

A

F; it occurs in many tissues

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68
Q

in what instances to GH and IGF-1 exert the same effect

A

increase amino acid uptake and protein synthesis; increase bone growth and mineralization

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69
Q

T/F GH can cross-react with prolactin receptor

A

T

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70
Q

what does it mean for GH to be a diabetogenic factor

A

opposes actions of insulin on carbohydrate and lipid homeostasis (decreases tissue sensitivity to insulin)

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71
Q

T/F rBST is allowed for use in dairy cows in both the US and Canada

A

F; allowed in the US but not in Canada

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72
Q

What can be used to promote growth in livestock in the EU

A

nothing

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73
Q

T/F it is unclear if growth promoters in milk or beef impact human health

A

T

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74
Q

pre-sexual maturity, underproduction of GH causes ______________, reduced sensitivity causes _____________ and overproduction causes ___________

A

dwarfism; pygmy; gigantism

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75
Q

gigantism is typically caused by

A

a tumor on the anterior pituitary

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76
Q

post-sexual maturity, underproduction/reduced sensitivity of GH is associated with ___________ and __________, whereas overproduction causes _____________

A

alopecia; Cushings; acromegaly

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77
Q

what is typically the first sign of acromegaly

A

diabetes mellitus (excessive release of glucose and inhibition of glucose utilization)

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78
Q

in >90% of acromegaly patients, the disease is caused by

A

a benign pituitary tumor

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79
Q

what can explain the variation in dog breeds

A

mutations in IGF-1

80
Q

Receptors for:
TRH:
TSH:
T4:
T3:

A

TRH: GPCR (Gq aka IP3/DAG)
TSH: GPCR (Gs and Gq)
T4: NR
T3: NR

81
Q

thyroxine refers to

A

T4

82
Q

the isthmus is indistinct in

A

dogs and cats

83
Q

what is the largest purely endocrine gland

A

thyroid

84
Q

how many parathyroid glands are there

A

2 on each lobe; 4 total

85
Q

is more T4 or T3 produced

A

more T4

86
Q

what is the role of follicular cells

A

uptake of iodide from blood vessels via Na/I symporter and pumping into the lumen via I channel

87
Q

what is the role of colloid

A

contains thyroglobulin and enzymes to make T3 and T4

88
Q

thyroglobulin is produced in

A

thyrocytes (then secreted into colloid)

89
Q

what are the roles of TPO

A
  • converts iodide to iodine
  • adds iodine to tyrosine residues on thyroglobulin to produce monoiodotyrosine (MIT) or diiodotyrosine (DIT)
  • condenses MIT and DIT to form T3 and T4
90
Q

TSH stimulation induces follicle cells to

A

endocytose thyroglobulin and hydrolyze the bound T3 and T4; secrete the hormones into the blood

91
Q

how is thyroid hormone transported in the blood; does it have a higher affinity for T4 or T3

A

via thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG), which has a higher affinity for T4

92
Q

T/F there is evidence of seasonal and circadian TRH secretion

A

T

93
Q

what is the Wolff-Chaikoff effect

A

excess iodide inhibits iodide trapping regardless of TSH levels; prevents hyperthyroidism

94
Q

what is the ratio of T4:T3 secretion; what is the ratio of T4:T3 in plasma; elevated T3 indicates

A

4:1; 20:1; hyperthyroidism

95
Q

how does T4 become T3 and where

A

deiodinases convert in the kidneys and liver mainly

96
Q

T/F only free T3/T4 are biologically active

A

T

97
Q

the half-life of T4 is and the half-life of T3 is

A

6-7 days; 1 day

98
Q

thyroid hormone increases synthesis of

A

GH and glucocorticoids

99
Q

95% of thyroid disease is (primary/secondary/tertiary); in dogs it is commonly due to _____________ whereas in cats it is commonly due to ____________

A

primary; immune-mediated (dogs) or idiopathic atrophy (cats)

100
Q

what are common causes of primary hyperthyroidism in cats and in dogs? what about secondary hyperthyroidism? what autoimmune disease can cause hyperthyroidism?

A

cats: thyroid adenoma
dogs: thyroid carcinoma

secondary: pituitary adenoma

grave’s disease (antibodies mimic TSH)

101
Q

what is a consideration with euthyroid sick syndrome

A

no benefit to supplementing with T4, since the issue has to do with conversion of T4 to T3

102
Q

what drug can be used to treat hyperthyroidism

A

methimazole

103
Q

99% of calcium is stored in ______ as _____________; 0.9% is found _______________ and 0.1% is found _____________

A

bones; hydroxyapatite; intracellularly; extracellularly

104
Q

50% of extracellular Ca is ____________; 40% is _____________ and 10% is __________________

A

ionized (free); protein-bound; with PO4 and citrate

105
Q

intracellular Ca is associated with membranes in

A

mitochondria, ER and PM

106
Q

intake of calcium

A

entirely through diet (1/3 absorbed in SI)

107
Q

what is the role of PTH in the intestines, kidneys and bone

A

intestines: no direct effect
kidney: stimulates Ca reabsorption and inhibits PO4 reabsorption
bone: stimulates resorption

108
Q

what is the role of 1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D3 in the intestines, kidneys, and bone

A

intestines: stimulates absorption of Ca and PO4
kidney: stimulates reabsorption of Ca and PO4
bone: stimulates resoprtion

109
Q

what is the role of calcitonin in the intestines, kidneys and bone

A

intestines: none
kidney: inhibits reabsorption of Ca and PO4
bone: inhibits resorption

110
Q

PTH is released by _________ cells in the ___________ gland when serum Ca is _____

A

Chief; parathyroid; low

111
Q

T/F PTH stimulates the kidneys to make the enzyme needed to convert vitamin D3 to 1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D3

A

T; (it is called 1α hydroxylase)

112
Q

parathyroid cells that detect Ca (CaSR) use ___________ signalling

PTH uses ___________ receptors

A

GPCR Gs (adenylate cyclase)

GPCR (called PTHR1)

113
Q

T/F PTH is stored and released when needed

A

F; never stored

114
Q

PTH stimulates _____________ to __________ bone

A

osteoclasts; reabsorb

115
Q

Ca reabsorption takes place in what part of the kidney

A

distal tubule

116
Q

what channel is regulated by PTH to reabsorb Ca in the kidney

A

TRPV5

117
Q

T/F dogs and cats can synthesize vitamin D3 from 7-dehydrocholestrol with UV light in skin

A

F; can only obtain from diet

118
Q

in the liver, vitamin D3 is converted to ______________

in the kidney, it is converted to _______________ due to the action of _________________ (which is stimulated by PTH)

A

25-hydroxyvitamin D3; 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3; 1α hydroxylase

119
Q

cholecalciferol is another name for

A

Vitamin D3

120
Q

the primary mechanism used by 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 is _________________

A

active reabsorption of Ca and PO4 from the intestines when Ca is low

121
Q

when the diet is Ca deficient, 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 stimulates

A

production of more osteoclasts

122
Q

increased calcitriol (1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3) ________________ PTH secretion

A

reduces

123
Q

calcitonin is released by ______________ cells when Ca levels are ________

A

parafollicular cells; high

124
Q

T/F calcitonin is a peptide that is stored until needed

A

T

125
Q

what is the normal ratio of Ca:P in the blood

A

1-2:1

126
Q

feed that has a low Ca:P ratio causes

A

increased PTH secretion

127
Q

glucocorticoids oppose _____________ action in the ___________

A

Vitamin D action in the GI tract

128
Q

why does hyperparathyroidism cause polyuria/polydipsia

A

high Ca blocks ADH effects

129
Q

primary hyperparathyroidism is (common/rare) in dogs and cats, but _________ are a genetically predisposed breed

A

rare; Keeshonds

130
Q

kidney failure and vitamin D deficiency can cause

A

secondary hyperparathyroidism

131
Q

what is important to check when diagnosing hyperparathyroidism

A

kidney values for CKD

132
Q

clinical signs of hypoparathyroidism are _______calcemia and _____phosphatemia

A

hypocalcemia; hyperphosphatemia

133
Q

calcium and vitamin D deficiency in young animals causes ____________, and ____________ in older animals

A

rickets; osteomalacia

134
Q

what percentage of cows get subclinical milk fever and what percent will get clinical

A

60%; 3-10%

135
Q

CRH is a ________ hormone that uses ____________ receptor; ACTH is a _________ hormone that uses ___________ receptor

A

peptide; GPCR (Gs) for both

136
Q

ACTH receptors are on what regions of the adrenal gland

A

zona fasciculata and zona reticularis of the adrenal cortex

137
Q

T/F aldosterone is under the control of ACTH

A

F

138
Q

the name for the ACTH receptor is

A

MC2-R

139
Q

the primary and secondary actions of ACTH are

A

secretion of glucocorticoids; secretion of sex steroids

140
Q

what is a phamacological target for pituitary adenomas

A

SSTR5

141
Q

the adrenal cortex arises from what embryological tissue? what about the medulla?

A

mesoderm; neural crest ectoderm

142
Q

mineralcorticoids regulate

A

Na/K balance at the kidneys

143
Q

what is the starting material for production of steroids

A

cholesterol

144
Q

all steroid production starts with conversion of ___________ to ___________

A

cholesterol; pregnenolone

145
Q

what is the rate limiting step in steroidogenesis

A

movement of cholesterol into the mitochondria

146
Q

what moves cholesterol to the inner mitochondrial membrane? what stimulates it’s insertion?

A

StAR protein (in conjunction with PBR); ACTH (via cAMP)

147
Q

what converts cholesterol to pregnenolone

A

side chain of P450 enzyme

148
Q

StAR is located on the _______ mitochondrial membrane whereas PBR is located on the ________ mitochondrial membrane

A

outer; inner

149
Q

what are the two steroid transport proteins

A

albumin (25%)
transcortin (75%)

150
Q

T/F mineralocorticoids have transport proteins

A

F

151
Q

T/F cortisol stimulates glycolysis

A

F; it stimulates gluconeogenesis

152
Q

T/F cortisol recruits glucose from non-CHO sources

A

T

153
Q

how does cortisol dampen the inflammatory response

A

decreases cytokine production; inhibits chemoattraction; decreases production of some immune cells

154
Q

what triggers release of cortisol (broadly)

A

chronic, low-grade stress; hypoglycemia

155
Q

what is the role of adrenal androgens

A

normal physiology in females; secondary sex characteristics in males and females

156
Q

how would clinical signs differ between primary and secondary hypoadrenocorticism

A

primary: hyposecretion of all corticosteroids, including mineralocorticoids

secondary: hyposecretion of cortisol and sex androgens due to hyposecretion of ACTH

157
Q

primary hypoadrenocorticism is called

A

Addisons disease

158
Q

adrenal disease is a common cause of hyperadrenocorticism in

A

ferrets

159
Q

most hyperadrenocorticism cases are

A

secondary (ACTH oversecreting pituitary tumour)

160
Q

the most common cause of hyperadrenocortisim is

A

administering exogenous glucocorticoids (iatrogenic)

161
Q

in horses, ACTH oversecretion is usually due to

A

Pituitary pars intermedia dysfunction (PPID)

162
Q

what is the effect of aldosterone on the kidney

A

increase Na reabsorption and decrease K reabsorption

163
Q

what is the goal of aldosterone

A

maintain Na/K homeostasis and blood volume

164
Q

what is the effect of ADH on the kidney

A

increase H2O reabsorption

165
Q

what is the goal of ADH

A

maintain blood osmolality

166
Q

what hormone inhibits Na reabsorption and acts to decrease blood volume

A

ANP

167
Q

high K does what to the adrenal cortex

A

depolarizes cells of zona glomerulosa -> aldosterone secretion

168
Q

aldosterone puts what receptors in the DT/CD

A

ENaC and Na/K ATPases

169
Q

low Na does what to the adrenal cortex

A

low Na -> release of renin by juxtaglomerular apparatus -> renin produces angiotensin II -> angiotensin II stimulates the release of aldosterone

170
Q

ADH is released with as little as a ___% increase in

A

1%

171
Q

ADH uses what receptor type

A

Gs (cAMP)

172
Q

ANP inhibits

A

ENaC and Na/K ATPase

173
Q

hyperaldosteronism is typically

A

primary (bilateral hyperplasia or neoplasia of the zona glomerulosa)

174
Q

what can be used to treat diabetes insipidus

A

desmopressin

175
Q

diabetes insipidus can be caused by:
central:
nephrogenic:

A

lack of ADH from pituitary; reduced ability of kidneys to respond to ADH

176
Q

effects of NE/E from medulla last ____________ than NE/E within nervous system

A

10x longer

177
Q

what cell type produces NE/E in the medulla

A

Chromaffin

178
Q

T/F cortisol release assists with NE/E synthesis

A

T

179
Q

a rare tumour that secretes NE/E is called

A

pheochromocytoma

180
Q

the brain uses ___% of glucose at rest

A

60%

181
Q

what produces insulin/glucagon/somatostatin

A

pancreatic islets

182
Q

α cells:
β cells:
δ cells:

A

glucagon; insulin; somatostatin

183
Q

where is insulin cleaved

A

golgi

184
Q

how is glucose released and what is it dependent on

A

dependent on Ca

  1. in presence of ATP, K+ channels close and depolarize the cell
  2. Ca channels open and mediate fusion of secretory vesicles (containing insulin) with the membrane
185
Q

insulin uses a _____________ receptor

A

tyrosine kinase

186
Q

what are target tissues for insulin

A

liver, adipose, skeletal muscle

187
Q

in the presence of glucose, what inhibits glucagon release

A

insulin and somatostatin (GHIH)

188
Q

as a primary action, glucagon binds to ___________ receptors in the______________ to stimulate ____________

A

GPCR; liver; glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis

189
Q

what other functions are mediated by glucagon (besides gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis in the liver)

A

lipolysis, protein catabolism, ketogenesis

190
Q

pancreatitis is associated with

A

premature activation of pancreatic enzymes

191
Q

pancreatitis and diabetes mellitus is rare in

A

horses and cattle

192
Q

what is one endocrine-related risk factor for pancreatitis

A

hyperadrenocorticism

193
Q

Type I diabetes:
Type II diabetes:

A

insufficient insulin; insulin resistance

194
Q

causes of Type I diabetes in dogs are _________________ in cats ______________; type II can be caused by ___________________ or _________________ treatment

A

immune-mediated or post-pancreatitis; amyloidosis; hyperadrenocorticism; glucocorticoids

195
Q

measurement of serum _____________ can differentiate between diabetes mellitus and stress-induced hyperglycemia

A

fructosamine

196
Q

hyperglycemia may be caused by what physical insult

A

traumatic/severe injury (can be prognostic in dogs but not cats)

197
Q

insulinoma is ___________ and is common in _____________

A

increased insulin secretion due to a beta-cell tumor; ferrets

Veterinary Physiology (11 decks)

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