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CMOD- Block1 > Immunology 1: Lymphoid Cells/Tissue > Flashcards

Immunology 1: Lymphoid Cells/Tissue Flashcards

1
Q

What is plasma?

A

the components of blood after red and white blood cells have been removed; contains clotting factors, antibodies, complement proteins, etc.

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2
Q

What is serum?

A

the components of blood that are neither cells nor clotting factors

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3
Q

What is a titer?

A

the measurement of the concentration of a substance in a solution; most typically refers to the concentration of antibodies specific for a particular antigen

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4
Q

What does the suffix -penia mean?

A

deficiency, or a lack of

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5
Q

What are bands?

A

immature neutrophils that are observed during bacterial infections

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6
Q

What are the recognition mechanisms of the innate immune system? (re: onset, response type, number of specificities, activity over time)

A

rapid response (hours); fixed specificities; limited number of specificities; constant response during course of infection; same reponse for each encounter with a specific pathogen

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7
Q

What are the recognition mechanisms of the adaptive immune system? (re: onset, response type, number of specificities, activity over time)

A

slow response (days to weeks); variable response; lymphocytes have numerous highly selective specificities; improves during response; involves clonal expansion and memory of response for increased effectiveness in future encounters

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8
Q

What are pattern recognition receptors (PRRs)?

A

receptors expressed on the surfaces of innate immune cells that recognize pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs); this concept is the reason for limited specificities of the innate immune response

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9
Q

How do cells of the acquired immune system have numerous specificities?

A

the B and T cells express highly specific receptors that recognize specific structures of a particular pathogen

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10
Q

What are the three broad categories of the non-cellular innate immune response?

A

mechanical/chemical; microbiological; complement cascades

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11
Q

Name examples of innate immunity mechanical barriers.

A

epithelial cells joined by tight junctions; longitudinal flow of air/fluid; movement of mucus by cilia

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12
Q

Name examples of innate immunity chemical barriers.

A

fatty acids; low pH; enzymes; saliva; defensins (antibacterial peptides)

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13
Q

Name examples of innate immunity microbiological barriers.

A

normal flora of skin, GI tract, respiratory tract, UG tract, eyes

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14
Q

When the complement cascade is initiated, there are three end products that help to control or eliminate infectious agents. They are:

A
  1. anaphylotoxins: inflammatory mediators
  2. opsonins: mark pathogens for uptake & destruction by neutrophils/macrophages
  3. membrane attack complex: inserts into bacterial outer envelopes to perforate/kill pathogenic cells
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15
Q

What are the three broad categories of the cellular innate immune response?

A

immune cells

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16
Q

What are the primary lymphoid tissues?

A

bone marrow and thymus

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17
Q

In what tissue/organ are all acquired immune responses initiated?

A

secondary lymphoid tissue, such as spleen, Peyer’s patches, lymph nodes, tonsils, and mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)

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18
Q

What are the functions of erythrocytes?

A
  1. transport of oxygen to all cells in the body

2. clearance of immune complexes from circulation

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19
Q

What are the functions of megakaryocytes?

A

produce platelets, or thrombocytes

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20
Q

What are the functions of bands?

A

during bacterial infections they move in large numbers to take up and kill bacteria

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21
Q

What are the functions of neutrophils?

A
  1. recognize pathogens by their PRRs

2. control bacterial and fungal infections

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22
Q

What is a monocyte?

A

monocytes are circulating precursors to macrophages; they leave the vasculature, move into tissues, and become mature machrophages

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23
Q

What are the innate immune functions of a macrophage?

A

recognize (by PRRs), engulf, and destroy potential pathogens

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24
Q

What are the acquired immune functions of a macrophage?

A

1 of 3 professional antigen presenting cell types that can activate T cells; express antibody Fc receptors that allow it to be bridged into an acquired immune response

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25
Q

What are the functions of eosinophils?

A

primary role is to control parasite infections; have IgE antibody receptors; contain granules with inflammatory mediators and other compounds that are toxic to parasites

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26
Q

What are the functions of basophils?

A

primary role is to control parasite infections; appear to function very similarly to eosinophils, otherwise they are poorly characterized cells

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27
Q

What cell types of the innate immune system are considered granulocytes?

A

neutrophils, bands, eosinophils, basophils

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28
Q

What are the functions of mast cells?

A

primary role is to control parasite infections; granules contain inflammatory mediators (including histamine); have high affinity IgE receptors on surface

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29
Q

What are the functions of natural killer cells?

A

innate control of viral infections; bear no antigen-specific receptor therefore are a purely innate cell; identify and kill infected cells to limit the replicating cycle of the pathogen; express Fc receptors, therefore they are the effectors of antibody-dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC)

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30
Q

Inflammation is important to the innate control of infections, and it’s critical for the initiation of the adaptive immune response because…

A

…it promotes movement of antigens and antigen-presenting cells into the nearest secondary lymphoid tissues, where the adaptive immune response can be initiated.

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31
Q

The spleen is a secondary lymphoid tissue important for:

A

filtering blood for phagocytes to remove pathogens; also for storing new RBCs and removing old RBCs (red pulp)

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32
Q

Lymph nodes are dispersed throughout the body, connected by _____, and capture antigens from _____.

A

lymphatic vessels; lymph

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33
Q

____ are the most organized tissue of the GALT, or gut-associated lymphoid tissue.

A

Peyer’s patches

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34
Q

Describe the basic organization of secondary lymphoid tissue, such as that seen in white pulp/Peyer’s patches/lymph nodes.

A

germinal center within B cell zone, closely associated concentrated T cell zone occupied by antigen presenting cells; T cell interacts more closely with blood in order to recognize the antigen and supply a second signal to activate the B cells

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35
Q

What is the location and function of microfold cells (aka M cells)?

A

located in Peyer’s patches; role is to sample antigens from gut lumen, transport into patch for antigen presentation to T cells and sampling by B cell receptors

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36
Q

How do antigens and antigen presenting cells get transported from Peyer’s patches to lymph nodes?

A

via the efferent lymphatics of the Peyer’s patch

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37
Q

What 3 cell types have the role of antigen presentation to T cells?

A 
dendritic cells (innate cell)
macrophages (innate cell)
B cells (adaptive cell)
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38
Q

What is the function of dendritic cells?

A

most potent antigen-presenting cells; high surface areas for interacting with many T cells at once; not good killer cells

39
Q

What are the antigen-presenting functions of macrophages?

A

activation of adaptive immune response; recognition and removal of bacterial and fungal pathogens

40
Q

Two types of lymphocytes are:

A

B cells and T cells

41
Q

Production and secretion of antigen-specific antibodies is the role of which lymphocyte?

A

B cells

42
Q

Which lymphocyte has cytotoxic and helper functions?

A

T cells

43
Q

Effector CD4+ cells do what?

A

modulate activity of other immune cell types through cytokine production

44
Q

Effector CD8+ cells do what?

A

recognize and kill infected host cells

45
Q

Why are there two “arms” of the acquired immune response?

A

for clearing two types of pathogens from the host: those that reside in extracellular spaces, and those that reside within cells

46
Q

Antibodies are best for clearing ____ infections and T cells response is best for clearing ___ infections.

A

extracellular; intracellular

47
Q

What is somatic recombination?

A

mechanism that allows for generation of diverse lymphocyte receptors for specific antigen recognition; at the DNA level a cassette system is used to rearrange genes that code for antigen receptors

48
Q

What are the two forms of antigen-specific receptors utilized by lymphocytes?

A
  1. antibodies from B cells
  2. T cell receptors
    (together these are immunoglobulins)
49
Q

When binding antigens, B cell receptors recognize __?__, and T cell receptors recognize __?__.

A

almost any antigen; peptides only

50
Q

What is an MHC molecule?

A

major histocompatability complex molecules; this is the protein that presents the antigenic peptide to T cells for recognition

51
Q

What is the difference between the two classes of MHC molecules?

A 
LOCATION:
class I = found on all nucleated cells
class II = found only on antigen-presenting cells
52
Q

Myeloid Progenitor cells are the precursors for:

A

Granulocytes, macrophages, dendritic cells, and mast cells

53
Q

Another name for granulocytes is:

A

Polymorphonuclear cells (PMNs)

54
Q

Name a WBC type that functions to kill antibody-coated parasites.

A

Eosinophils

55
Q

What WBCs have an unknown function but probably do something similarly to eosinophils?

A

Basophils

56
Q

What are the immature, circulating precursors to macrophages?

A

Monocytes

57
Q

Which cells are the most potent stimulators of T Cell responses?

A

Dendritic cells

58
Q

These cells take up antigen at the site of infection and present the antigens to naive T cells in secondary lymphoid tissues.

A

Dendritic cells

59
Q

The common lymphoid progenitor gives rise to these three types of cells:

A

T cells and B cells (specific). Also NK cells (Non-specific)

60
Q

This type of cell is found in the corona of the PALS within white pulp of the spleen:

A

B cells

61
Q

These cells are recycled in the red pulp (cords of biliroth) of the spleen:

A

RBCs

62
Q

Within the lymph nodes, _______ cells are localized in follicles, with _______ cells distributed more diffusely in paracortical areas.

A

B cells; T cells

63
Q

Germinal centers are _____ cell follicles in which ____ cells are undergoing intense proliferation following antigenic stimulation with T cell help.

A

B cell; B cell

64
Q

Give 4 examples of gut associated lymphatic tissue (GALT)

A

Tonsils, adenoids, appendix and Peyer’s patches

65
Q

Bronchial-associated lymphoid tissue (BALT) and mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) are similar to GALT, but are more diffusely organized lymphoid tissues that protect:

A

The respiratory epithelium

66
Q

Inflammatory mediators (cytokines) facilitate uptake of _______ by phagocytes and increase the flow of ______ toward the draining lymphoid tissue. (Facilitates antigen transport to secondary lymphoid tissue)

A

Antigen; lymph

67
Q

The ability of lymphocytes to produce different receptor molecules; therefore each potentially binding to a different specific component of an infectious agent, is referred to as:

A

The lymphocyte repertoire

68
Q

The body’s ability to selectively remove (most) lymphocytes that bear receptors that bind to “self” antigens, thus preventing the immune system from attacking host tissues is referred to as:

A

Self tolerance

69
Q

Briefly describe clonal selection.

A

Central principle of adaptive immunity; when a lymphocyte is stimulated by binding of its receptor to its cognate antigen, lymphocyte proliferates, gives rise to clones that bear identical antigen-receptor specificity

70
Q

What cell types will function in protection against parasites?

A

eosinophils, basophils, mast cells

71
Q

What cell types will function in protection against viruses?

A

natural killer (NK) cells

72
Q

What cell types will function in protection against fungus?

A

neutrophils

73
Q

What cell types will function in protection against bacteria?

A

macrophages, neutrophils

74
Q

What is the lymphatic system and what is its function?

A

collects material from EC fluid and filters it through lymph nodes, then returns it to the blood circulation; edema “flushes the bad stuff toward the sewer” (lymphatic system)

75
Q

Random recombination of immunoglobulin genes that generate complete coding regions for the antigen-binding portions of the lymphocyte receptor molecules is referred to as:

A

Somatic recombination

76
Q

Name the three antigen presenting cell types:

A

Macrophages, dendritic cells, B cells

77
Q

True of false: MHC class I/II molecules bind very tightly to many different peptides in a very specific way.

A

False. They bind tightly in a non-specific way

78
Q

True or false: the T cell binds most favorably to peptides that are presented on MHC molecules.

A

False. The T cell ONLY binds to peptides that are presented on MHC molecules

79
Q

Name the 3 effects of antibodies.

A

Neutralization
Opsonization
Complement activation

80
Q

Briefly describe antibody mediated neutralization

A

Abs can neutralize some pathogen-derived toxins, and even some pathogens

81
Q

Briefly describe the opsonization function of antibodies.

A

Some Abs can coat antigens (or pathogens) which facilitates uptake of the antigen by phagocytes or NK cells

82
Q

Briefly describe the complement activation function of antibodies.

A

Some types if antibodies, when bound to specific antigen (pathogen), serve as a receptor for uptake or destruction of the antigen (pathogen)

83
Q

In antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC), antibodies activate ______ cells.

A

NK cells

84
Q

Name the two primary populations of T cells.

A

CD8 and CD4 cells

85
Q

CD8 cells recognize peptide antigen present on MHC class _____ molecules.

A

MHC class I

86
Q

CD4 cells recognize antigen peptides on MHC class _____ molecules.

A

MHC class II

87
Q

Armed (activated) effector CD8 cells are programmed for only one purpose:

A

To kill cells that have the cognate peptide, MHC class I complex on their surface. Thus they are also called cytotoxic T lymphocytes or killer T cells. So they are like contract killers with a specific target.

88
Q

If any nucleated cell of the body is host to an intracellular pathogen, this class of cells will find them and kill them.

A

Armed effector CD8 (Killer) T cells

89
Q

This class of lymphocyte, once it encounters its cognate peptide MHC II and receives proper costimulation (from the antigen presenting cell), will proliferate and differentiate into armed effector T cells that secrete cytokines which modulate the activity of other immune cells. Also called helper T cells.

A

CD4 T cells

90
Q

The primary role of these cells is supply cytokine signals to macrophages; these signals upregulate various activities of the macrophage which increase its ability to kill ingested bacteria and to more efficiently present peptide antigens.

A

T helper 1 CD4 cells aka TH1 CD4 cells

91
Q

These cells secrete cytokines that stimulate B cells to produce Abs that are effective for opsonizing pathogens.

A

TH1 CD4 cells

92
Q

In general, TH1 CD4 cells help stimulate immune responses that are most efficient for destroying intracellular or extracellular pathogens?

A

intracellular

93
Q

The primary role of this subgroup of lymphocytes is to promote Ab-mediated immune responses.

A

T Helper 2 CD4 cells aka TH2 CD4 cells

94
Q

TH2 CD4 cells supply cytokine signals that stimulate B cells to produce antibodies that best participate in processes that:

A

Eliminate extracellular pathogens (such as neutralization and complement fixation)

CMOD- Block1 (36 decks)

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