Immuno: Case Studies in Immunology Pt.2 Flashcards

1
Q

Explain the following clinical manifestations of serum sickness:

  1. Deterioration in renal function
  2. Disorientation
  3. Purpura
A
  1. Deterioration in renal function
    • ​​Deposition of immune complexes in the glomeruli leads to complement activation and inflammatory cell recruitment
    • This leads to glomerulonephritis resulting in a rise in creatinine, proteinuria and haematuria
  2. Disorientation
    • ​​Small vessel vassculitis affecting the cerebral vessels can compromise the oxygen supply to the brain
  3. Purpura
    • ​​Inflamed blood vessels are likely to leak resulting in local haemorrhage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How should serum sickness be managed?

A
  • Stop penicillin
  • Give corticosteroids
  • Ensure appropriate fluid balance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

List some features of immunodeficiency.

A
  • Severe infections (hospitalisation)
  • Persistant (difficult to treat)
  • Unusual (e.g. opportunistic, unusual sites of infection)
  • Recurrent
  • Concomitant problems
    eg. failure to thrive,
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

List some non-immunological causes of recurrent infections in children.

A
  • Prematurity
  • Allergic rhinitis, sinusitis, Asthma
  • Cystic fibrosis
  • Local factors (e.g. foreing body)
  • Ciliary disorders
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the point of testing people with recurrent infections for antibodies against infections that they have been vaccinated for (e.g. tetanus)?

A

To see whether they are capable of mounting an antibody response
eg. tetanus, HiB, PCV-13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

General investigations in suspected immunodeficiency?

A
  • FBC
  • Serum Immunoglobulins
  • HIV test

Immunologists will do the rest
(ie. antibody testing, Flow cytometry)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which condition is characterised by a failure to produce any immunoglobulin?

A

X-linked agammaglobulinaemia - failure of pre-B cells to mature in the bone marrow leading to failure of production of antibodies

Lack of Bruton’s Tyrosine kinase
(overactive in haematological malignancies eg. CLL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How is X-linked agammaglobulinaemia treated?

A

IgG Immunoglobulin replacement therapy - every 3 weeks

IV or SC
in hospital or trained to do it at home
Lifelong

includes Antibodies against pneumococcus and haemophillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Why do XLA patients have predisposition to autoinflammatory disease

A

BTK tyrosine kinase (deficiency in XLA) also acts as an inhibitor to inflammasome

So unregulated immune responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are some classic presenting features of multiple myeloma?

A

CRABS

Bone pain and pathological fractures

Hypercalcaemia symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which investigation is used to diagnose multiple myeloma?

A

Serum protein electrophoresis - shows a monoclonal band (this can be stained to check whether it is composed of heavy or light chains)

Kappa : Lambda ratio of ligh chains in serum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Why are patients with multiple myeloma prone to infections?

A

Suppression of normal antibody production by the malignant clone of cells results in a functional antibody deficiency

NOTE: this is sometimes called immune paresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How does multiple myeloma lead to aneamia?

A
  • Expansion of malignant clone of cells into the bone marrow crowds out normal red and white cell precursors
  • Cytokines produced by the myeloma cells inhibit normal bone marrow function
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Why is ESR elevated in multiple myeloma?

A
  • Normally, erythrocytes don’t clump together because the repellent negative surface charge is greater than the attractant charge of plasma constituents
  • If the protein constituents of plasma change, it increases the attractant charge, causes erythrocytes to clump together and clumped erythrocytes fall more quickly through plasma
  • This causes raised ESR
  • Often normal CRP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which red blood cell abnormality may you see in the blood film of a patient with multiple myeloma?

A

Rouleaux formation

NOTE: you may also see Bence-Jones protein in the urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the key clinical features of rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Peripheral, symmetrical polyarthritis with stiffness lasting > 6 weeks

17
Q

When does rheumatoid arthritis commonly present and what is a possible explanation for this?

A

Post-partum - Th2 cells predominate during pregnancy and this switches back to Th1 post-partum

18
Q

What is Rheumatoid Factor?

A
  • Antibody directed against the Fc portion of human IgG
  • Assays mainly look for IgM but there are also IgG and IgA variants
  • 60-70% sensitive and specific
19
Q

Better test than rheumatoid factor?

A

Anti-CCP

20
Q

How are citrullinated peptides implicated in rheumatoid arthritis?

A
  • Arginine residues are deiminated to form citrulline by PAD enzymes
  • Polymorphisms in PAD that increases the level of citrullination may predispose to rheumatoid arthritis
  • Loss of tolerance to citrullinated peptides results in the production of antibodies against CCP
  • Anti-CCP antibodies are highly specific (95%)
21
Q

Describe how specific HLA alleles can predispose to the development of rheumatoid arthritis.

A
  • HLA-DR4 (60-70%) and HLA-DR1
  • These predisposing classes have a common sequence at positions 70-74 (this area encodes the peptide-binding groove)
  • Peptide presentation by these HLA molecules may be involved in disease pathogenesis
22
Q

Which PAD polymorphisms are associated with rheumatoid arthritis?

A

PAD 2 and PAD 4

23
Q

What is the role of PTPN22 and which polymorphism is associated with rheumatoid arthritis?

A
  • It is a lymphocyte-specific tyrosine kinase that suppresses T cell activation
  • 1858T allele increases susceptibility to rheumatoid arthritis, SLE and T1DM
24
Q

Outline the management of rheumatoid arthritis.

A
  • First-line: methotrexate (DMARD)
  • Other options: TNF-alpha antagonists, rituximab, abatacept (CTLA4-Ig fusion protein), tocilizumab (antibody against IL6 receptor)
25
Q

List some risks of biological therapy for rheumatoid arthritis.

A
  • TB
  • Opportunistic infections
  • Malignancy - skin protection