Immuno: Allergy Pt.2 Flashcards

1
Q

When does mast cell tryptase reach peak levels and return to baseline levels?

A
  • Peak = 1-2 hours
  • Baseline = 6-12 hours

NOTE: if it fails to return to baseline, it may suggest systemic mastocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When might mast cell trypase be measured?

A

If the diagnosis of anaphylaxis is unclear (e.g. hypotension and rash during anaesthesia)

NOTE: it has lower sensitivity for food-induced anaphylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe how the basophil activation test works

A
  • Measures basophil response to allergen IgE crosslinking
  • When activated, basophils increases CD64, CD203, CD300
  • This upregulation is detected using flow cytometry
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the gold standard test for diagnosing food and drug allergy?

A

Challenge test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe how challenge tests are carried out.

A
  • Increasing volumes of the offending food/drug are ingested
  • Observe a reaction
  • Done under close medical supervision
  • Risk of severe reaction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Define anaphylaxis.

A

A severe, potentially life-threatening systemic hypersensitivity reaction characterised by rapid-onset airway, breathing and circulatory problems which are often associated with skin and mucosal changes.

NOTE: skin is the most frequent organ involved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

List some clinical features of anaphylaxis

A

Skin (most commonly involved organ) - urticaria, itch, angioedema

CVS - hypotension, tachycardia, syncope

Respiratory - SoB, wheeze, stridor, hypoxia

Respiratory symptoms more common in children, CVS symptoms more common in adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

List some mechanisms of anaphylaxis.

A
  • IgE - mast cells and basophils - histamine and PAF (triggered by food, venom, ticks, penicillin)
  • IgG - macrophages and neutrophils - histamine and PAG (triggered by blood product transfusions)
  • Complement - mast cells and macrophages - histamine and PAF (triggered by lipid excipients, liposomes, dialysis membranes)
  • Pharmacological - mast cells - histamine and leukotrienes (triggered by NSAIDs)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

List some reactions that can mimic anaphylaxis.

A
  • Skin - chronic urticaria and angioedmea (ACE inhibitors)
  • Throat swelling - C1 inhibitor deficiency
  • CVS - MI and PE
  • Respiratory - severe asthma, inhaled foreign body
  • Neuropsychiatric - anxiety/panic disorder
  • Endocrine - carcinoid, phaeochromocytoma
  • Toxic - scromboid toxicity (histamine poisoning)
  • Immune - systemic mastocytosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe the emergency management of anaphylaxis. What dose and concentration of adrenaline is used?

A

0.5mL of 1:1000 (>12 years old)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe the refractory anaphylaxis protocol and when is it used?

A

No respiratory or CVS symptom improvement after 2 IM adrenaline doses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of adrenaline in treating anaphylaxis.

A
  • Alpha 1 - peripheral vasoconstriction, reverses low BP and mucosal oedema
  • Beta 1 - increases HR, contractility and BP
  • Beta 2 - relaxes bronchial smooth muscle, reduces release of inflammatory mediators
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

List some measures that may be taken in the ongoing management of a patient who has experienced an episode of anaphylaxis.

A
  • Referral to allergy clinic
  • Investigate cause
  • Written information on recognition of symptoms, trigger avoidance and indications for self-treatment with EpiPen
  • Prescription of emergency kit to manage anaphylaxis
  • Copy of management plan for patients, parents and school staff and GP
  • Immunotherapy/drug desensitisation (if indicated)
  • Refer to dietician (if food-induced)
  • Advise getting MedicAlert bracelet
  • Utilise patient support groups (Anaphylaxis Campaign)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which commonly used drug can cause angioedema?

A

ACE inhibitors

NOTE: this can happen at any point when taking ACE inhibitors (i.e. even several years after being on ACE inhibitors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the key difference between food allergy and food intolerance?

A

The mechanism behind food intolerance is NOT immunological

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

List some types of food intolerance.

A
  • Food poisoning
  • Enzyme deficiency (e.g. lactose intolerance)
17
Q

List some types of food allergy.

A
  • IgE mediated - anaphylaxis
  • Mixed IgE and cell-mediated - atopic dermatitis
  • Non-IgE mediated - coeliac disease
  • Cell-mediated - contact dermatitis
18
Q

Which investigations are usually used to confirm the diagnosis in patients with a clinical history suggestive of food allergy?

A

Skin prick test or specific IgE blood test

Gold standard is oral food challenge

19
Q

List some IgE-mediated food allergy syndromes.

A
  • Anaphylaxis (e.g. peanut)
  • Food-associated exercise-induced anaphylaxis (ingestion of food leads to anaphylaxis if the individual exercises within 4-6 hours of ingestion (e.g. wheat, shellfish))
  • Delayed food-induced anaphylaxis to beef/pork/lamb (symptoms occur 3-6 hours after ingestion, induced by tick bites)
  • Oral allergy syndrome (limited to oral cavity with swelling and itching, occurs after pollen allergy is established, caused by cross-reaction of IgE antibody to pollen with stone fruits (e.g. apples), vegetables and nuts)
20
Q

Which cytokine is key for development of eosinophils

A

IL-5