Immuno: Autoinflammatory and Autoimmune diseases Pt.2 Flashcards

1
Q

Which autoimmune conditions are often seen in IPEX?

A

“Diabetes, dermatitis, Diarrhoea”
* Enteropathy
* Diabetes mellitus
* Hypothyroidism
* Dermatitis (Eczema)

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2
Q

What does ALPS stand for?

A

Autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome

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3
Q

Which mutations cause ALPS?

A

Mutations in the FAS pathway leading to defects in apoptosis of lymphocytes

This leads to a failure of lymphocyte tolerance (as autoreactive lymphocytes don’t die by apoptosis) and failure of lymphocyte homeostasis (you keep producing lymphocytes)

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4
Q

Describe the clinical phenotype of ALPS.

A
  • High lymphocyte count
  • Large spleen and lymph nodes
  • Autoimmune disease (usually cytopaenias)
  • Lymphoma - over time
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5
Q

What is the best known chromosomal region that is implicated in Crohn’s disease?

A

IBD1 on chromosome 16

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6
Q

Which gene in this region is associated with Crohn’s disease?
(Chromosome 16)

A

NOD2 (aka CARD15)

Abnormalities are associated with increased risk of Crohn’s, Blau syndrome and some forms of sarcoidosis

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7
Q

Where is NOD2 found and what is its role?

A

Cytoplasm of myeloid cells

Acts as a microbial sensor

(recognises muramyl dipeptide)

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8
Q

Outline the treatment approaches to Crohn’s disease

A
  • Corticosteroids
  • Azathioprine
  • Anti-TNF-alpha antibodies
  • Anti-IL 12/23 antibodies
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9
Q

What is the strongest genetic association of ankylosing spondylitis?

A

HLA-B27

NOTE: othes include IL23R, ERAP1, ANTXR2 and ILR2

90% heritability

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10
Q

Where does ankylosing spondylitis tend to manifest?

A

At sites with high shear forces (i.e. entheses, SI Joint)

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11
Q

What are the treatment options for ankylosing spondylitis?

A
  • NSAIDs
  • Immunosuppression (anti-TNF-alpha and anti-IL17)
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12
Q

List the autoimmune diseases associated with the following HLA polymorphisms:

  1. DR3
  2. DR3/4
  3. DR4
  4. DR15
A
  1. DR3
    • Graves’ disease
    • SLE
  2. DR3/4
    • Type 1 diabetes mellitus
  3. DR4
    • Rheumatoid arthritis
  4. DR15
    • Goodpasture’s syndrome
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13
Q

Name and state the function of 2 genes that are involved in T cell activation and are often mutated in polygenic autoimmune disease.

A
  • PTPN22 - suppresses T cell activation
  • CTLA4 - regulates T cell function (expressed by T cells)
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14
Q

What are three forms of peripheral tolerance?

A
  • T cell require costimulation to become activated (costimulatory molecules are upregulated in infection and inflammation)
  • Regulatory T cells
  • Immune privileged sites
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15
Q

Outline the Gel and Coombs effector mechanisms of immunopathology.

A

Type I: Anaphylactic hypersensitivity - immediate hypersensitivity which is IgE-mediated

Type II: Cytotoxic hypersensitivity - antibody reacts with cellular antigen

Type III: Immune complex hypersensitivity - antibody reacts with soluble antigen to form an immune complex

Type IV: Delayed-type hypersensitivity - T cell mediated response

NOTE: autoimmunity is most common with type II hypersensitivity

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16
Q

Effect of Type II Hypersensitivity

A
  • Activate complement
  • Activate NK cells
  • Opsonin for phagocytosis
17
Q

List some inflammatory mediates involved in type I responses that are:

  1. Pre-formed
  2. Synthesised
A
  1. Pre-formed: Histamine, Serotonin, Proteases
  2. Synthesised: Leukotrienes, prostaglandins, bradykinin, cytokines
18
Q

Outline the pathophysiology of IgE-mediated type I responses.

A

IgE binds to a foreign antigen (e.g. pollen)

The Fc portion binds to mast cells and basophils leading to degranulation

NOTE: this mechanism is implicated in eczema

19
Q

How does antibodies binding to cellular antigens lead to cell death?

A

Antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity:
antibodies can activate complement (by binding to C1) or bind to NK cells and macrophages resulting in phagocytosis

20
Q

What is sometimes considered a type V hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Antibodies activate or block cellular receptors (e.g. Graves’ disease, myasthenia gravis)

21
Q

Name the autoantigen in the following diseases:

  1. Goodpasture’s disease
  2. Pemphigus vulgaris
  3. Graves’ disease
  4. Myasthennia gravis
A
  1. Goodpasture’s disease = non-collagenous domain of basement membrane collagen IV
  2. Pemphigus vulgaris = Epidermal cadherin
  3. Graves’ disease = TSH receptor
  4. Myasthenia gravis = nicotinic acetylcholine receptor
22
Q

What are the consequences of immune complex formation in type III hypersensitivity reactions?

A

Immune complexes can deposit in blood vessels

(especially in the kidneys (nephritis), joints and skin (purpura)

They activate complement and inflammatory cells through their Fc portion

Classic example - SLE

23
Q

What is the autoantigen in:

  1. SLE
  2. Rheumatoid arthritis
A
  • SLE: DNA, histones, RNP
  • Rheumatoid arthritis: Fc portion of IgG
24
Q

Give some examples of type IV hypersensitivity mediated diseases and state the autoantigen involved.

A
  • Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus: pancreatic beta-cell antigen
  • Multiple sclerosis: myelin basic protein, proteolipid protein, myelin oligodendrocyte glycoprotein
25
Q

How can coeliac cause immune deficiency?

A
  • Protein losing enteropathy
  • Immunoglobulins are proteins - hence, the loss of circulating antibodies will reduce immunity.
  • May be diagnosed by performing faecal alpha-1 antitrypsin levels

Can occur with IBD, Coeliac, SLE