Immuno BB Flashcards

1
Q

A 30 year old women presents to her GP with a red, itchy, oozing rash around her neck and fingers

A

contact dermatitis

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2
Q

A 55 year old man with history of angina was advised to take a tablet before a long flight. After taking the pill, he suddenly finds that he has difficulty breathing, feels nauseous and is itching.

A

mast cell degranulation

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3
Q

A 24 year old medical student develops worsening swelling of the hands and feet and abdominal pain before her final year medical exams. She says that similar milder episodes have occurred preciously.

A

c1 inhibitor deficiency

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4
Q

A 35 year old woman presents with persistent itchy wheels for the last 2 months. She noticed that when this is at its worst, she also has a fever and feels generally unwell. After an acute attack, she has bruising and post-inflammatory residual pigmentation at the site of the itching.

A

urticarial vasculitis

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5
Q

A 35 year old woman presents with a two day history of a red itchy skin rash which started soon after her first scuba-diving lesson. She is otherwise well.

A

acute urticaria

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6
Q

A 22 year old woman presents with an intermittently itchy and desquamating skin rash on her abdomen which is unresponsive to antihistamines

A

contact hypersensitivity

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7
Q

This 45 year old woman presents to A&E with tongue swelling and acute respiratory tract obstruction. She has longstanding hypertension and received a renal transplant two years previously. no allergic Hx, examination normal

A

acute angioedema

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8
Q

Rx for allergic rhinitis

A

PO antihistamines

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9
Q

MHC associated with Th1 cells

A

MHC class 2

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10
Q

Which component of the innate immune system is usually one of the first to respond to infection through a cut?

A

neutrophil

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11
Q

Commonest infection as a result of B cell deficiency

A

bacterial

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12
Q

Meningococcal infections are quite common as a result of which deficiency of the component of the immune system?

A

complement

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13
Q

What is the functional complement test used to investigate the classical pathway?

A

CH50

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14
Q

Which complement factor is an important chemotaxic agent?

A

c3a

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15
Q

Classification of autoimmune diseases

A
Type II - antibody mediated
 - Graves' disease
 - ITP
 - ABO incompatibility transfusion reaction
 - Goodpasture's disease
 - myesthenia gravis
Type III - immune complex mediated
 - SLE
 - Hep C associated membranoprolypherative glomerulonephritis type 1
Type IV - T cell mediated
 - Rheumatoid arthritis
 - T1DM
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16
Q

Goodpastures: The pattern of the antibody deposition in the glomerular basement membrane is typically described as what?

A

smooth, linear

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17
Q

Goodpastures: Immune damage may be associated with the kidney and commonly which other tissue?

A

Lung

18
Q

Severe Combined Immunodeficiency. which protein affected

A

IL-2 receptor

19
Q

This region encodes C2, C4 and factor B

A

MHC class III

20
Q

In acute rejection, release of this substance from CD8+ lymphocytes helps kill target cells

A

Granzyme B

21
Q

In acute rejection, these are produced as a result of the activation of neutrophils and macrophages

A

Free radicals

22
Q

Risk factor for chronic allograft rejection

A

hypertension

23
Q

The 3 most important HLA types to screen for in renal transplantation when matching donor and recipient, in order of importance

A

HLA DR > B > A

24
Q

Prevents DNA replication especially of T cells

A

mycophenylate mofetil

25
Q

Causes a transient increase in neutrophil count

A

prednisolone

26
Q

Monoclonal antibodies inhibiting the actions of cytokines

A

infliximab

27
Q

Plasmapheresis may be indicated in which condition?

A

Goodpasture’s

28
Q

A condition where antigen desensitization therapy may be indicated

A

bee/wasp venom allergy

29
Q

Administration of this may boost the immune system

A

immunoglobulins

30
Q

Prednisolone side effect

A

hypertension

31
Q

cyclosporin side effect

A

HTN and reduced GFR

32
Q

azathioprin side effect

A

bone marrow suppression

33
Q

methotrexate side effect

A

pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, cirrhosis

34
Q

immunoglobulin side effect

A

anaphylaxis

35
Q

Vaccine that is made using recombinant DNA technology.

A

Hep B vaccine

36
Q

A vaccine given only to sero-negative women

A

Rubella

37
Q

A feature of immunological central memory

A

IL2

38
Q

Which vaccine is normally given to infants under the age of 13 months in the form of three doses at monthly intervals to protect against an infection that has symptoms similar to meningitis and predominantly occurs in children < 5 years?

A

HiB

39
Q

Diploid cell vaccine containing inactivated virus given before or after exposure to those considered at risk.

A

rabies

40
Q

Live attenuated vaccine that is no longer given as standard in the UK since the rates of reverse mutation are higher than those of active disease.

A

polio (sabin)

41
Q

A conjugate vaccine

A

HiB

42
Q

Excreted in the stools of immunised individuals.

A

oral poliomyelitis vaccine