Immuno Flashcards

1
Q

EBV and amoxicillin/ampicillin/cephalosporin

A

Causes hypersensitivity reaction in presence of EBV - not true allergy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Ibrutinib can be used in which leukemia?

A

CLL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

mAb Tx Psoriasis

A

Ustekinumab (anti IL-12/23)

Guselkumab (anti IL-23)

Sekukinumab (anti IL-17A for PA and ankalosing spondylitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Tx RA (not DDMARD/MTX)

A

Rituximab (anti CD20), anti-TNFa (etanercept or adalimumab), tocilizumab (anti-IL6)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Wegener’s with severe flare

A

Cyclophosphamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Worsening Crohn’s, already on Azathioprine and Prednisolone, what tx?

A

Infliximab (Anti-TNFa)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Malignant melanoma medical treatment

A

Pembrolizumab

Explanation: Pembrolizumab is anti PD-1, just like Nivolmab.

Ipilimumab is an anti CTLA-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Rituximab target and used in

A

anti-CD20

Used in Lymphoma, RA, SLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Transplant drugs

A

Tacrolimus, Cyclosporin Azathioprine Mycophenolate Mofetil Antithymocyte globulin (ATG Prednisolone Basiliximab (anti-CD25/IL-2) (prophylactic)

typical regime is: CNI + AZA/MMF +/- steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Type I hypersensitivity

A

Allergy/Atopic eczema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Type II hypersensitivity

A

Auto-immune/auto-inflammatory e.g. Graves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Type III hypersensitivity

A

Complex mediated e.g. SLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Type IV hypersensitivity

A

Delayed e.g. contact dermatitis, diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

CD40L associated

A

Hyper IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

GPA’s other name

A

Wegener’s Granulomatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

eGPA’s other name

A

Churg-Strauss Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Monitoring SLE (inactive, active, severe disease)

A

Inactive: C3 and C4 normal

Active: C3 normal, C4 low

Sever: C3 and C4 low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Immune condition with chest and renal involvement

A

Good-pasture’s classically but can be GPA/eGPA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Features of hyperacute rejection (transplant)

A

Minutes-hours Pre-formed Abs to HLA activate complement –> Thrombosis and necrosis Prevent by cross-match and HLA typing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Features of acute cellular rejection (transplant)

A

Weeks-months. Activated by direct APCs.

CD4 cells –> type IV hypersensitivity reaction –> cellular infiltrate

Tx: T-cell immunosuppression e.g. Steroids

Memory aid: T cell = T 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Features of acute Ab-mediated rejection (transplant)

A

Weeks-months B-cells –> antibodies –> attack vessels and endothelial cells –> vasculitis Complement deposition (C4d - stains positive in Ab mediated rejection). Treat with B-cell immunosuppression & remove Abs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Features of chronic rejection (transplant)

A

Months-years Various immune+non-immune mechs –> fibrosis, GN, ischaemia –> Tx: minimise organ damage RF: multiple acute rejections, HTN, hyperlipidaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

GvHD

A

Days-weeks (T cell mediated) Rash, bloody D&V, & jaundice Tx: Immunosuppress with steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Acute vascular rejection

A

4-6 days post transplant after xenograft - presents similarly to hyperacute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
H1 vs H2 antagonisst
H1 = antihistamines H2 = reducing gastric acid
26
Itchy skin when running in cold for an hour
Acute urticarial --\> H1 antagonist
27
Hereditary angioedema treatment
C1q esterase inhibitor (reduces swelling)
28
Measure of mast cell degranulation
Mast cell tryptase levels
29
Chemokine promoting eosinophil growth
IL-5
30
Tingly mouth after eating apples, melons etc.
OAS (Sxs limited to mouth)
31
Woman with flushed face, breathing problems (happened multiple times) and hepatomegaly
Hereditary angioedema Tx: C1 esterase inhibitor
32
Kid with rash on extensor surfaces, IgE mediated
Atopic dermatitis
33
Hypertensive and diabetic with angioedema - potential cause?
ACE inhibitor
34
Absent T cells and normal B cells
X-linked SCID ... can also be DiGeorge syndrome, but Q usually has more hints
35
1m baby, serious bacterial infections Normal CD8, no CD4 B cells present IgM present, IgG absent
Bare Lymphocyte Syndrome (Type 2) Absent expression of MHC Class II molecules
36
Jaundiced 4m baby, FTT, recurrent infections raised ALP, low CD4, defect protein regulates MHC class 2
Bare Lymphocyte Syndrome (Type 2) Associated with sclerosing cholangitis --\> jaundice
37
Recurrent strep. pneumonia FHx of having it and dying young
Complement deficiency (Encapsulated organism)
38
Child with recurrent infections, improved with age, now delay in language and speech
DiGeorge Immune function improves with age Can be associated with lots of speech/language issues and LDs as well as rest of CATCH-22
39
Loss of the terminal complement pathway
Encapsulated organisms
40
Recurrent meningitis
Complement deficiency (C5-9) Encapsulated organism e.g. Hib or N. meningitidis
41
Recurrent infections, negative NBT test
Chronic Granulomatous disease
42
PID causing atypical granulomas
IFNy/IL12 or receptor deficiency Predisposed to mycobacterial infections Inability to form granulomas hence atypical
43
Recurrent infections negative NBT test negative dihydrorhodamine test
Chronic Granulomatous disease
44
6m boy, sevete FTT & recurrent infections No T cells, B cells normal
X linked SCID
45
Alternative complement pathway components
Factor B, I & P "BIP"
46
Alternative complement pathway components
Factor B, I & P "BIP"
47
Lady with spinal fracture due to TB
IFNy/IL12 or receptor deficiency Mycobacteria susceptible --\> Pott's disease
48
Felty's syndrome (3 features)
RA, neutropenia/leukopenia and splenomegaly
49
Rheumatoid arthritis and splenomegaly
Felty's
50
Monocytes in peripheral skin cells
Langerhands
51
Cells that express Foxp3 and CD25
Treg
52
Responsible for killing cancerous cells + inhibited by MHC-I
NK cells
53
PEP exists against (3)
Rabies, HIV, tetanus
54
Routine vaccine that is not given to immunocompromised patients
MMR If oral steroids in past 3 months delay vaccine
55
Vaccine target HA
Influenza
56
Every 5 years post splenectomy
Pneumococcal
57
Adaptive response to HIV: Neutralising antibodies against what?
anti-gp120 and anti-gp41
58
Adaptive response to HIV: Non-neutralising antibodies against what?
anti-p24 & gag IgG
59
Co-receptor required for HIV entry into CD4
CCR5 & CXCR4, both chemokine receptors
60
HIV binding to CD4 1. Initial binding 2. Conformational change 3. Co-receptors 4. What are they co-receptors on?
1. gp120 2. gp41 3. CCR4 & CXCR5 4. Macrophages
61
Intrastructural support for HIV
gag protein
62
Chemokines which block CCR5 (inhibit HIV entry into cell)
MIP-1a, MIP-1b, and RANTES
63
HIV enzyme that copies with errors, and another point of lifecycle with room for error
reverse transcriptase and when DNA is used to male RNA copies for new viruses
64
AIRE gene - which condition?
AIPS2 (APECED)
65
FAS gene mutation causes which condition?
ALPS (autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome)
66
MEFV gene, periodic abdominal pain and ascites
Familial Mediterranean Fever
67
Nod2/CARD15
Crohn's
68
DR4 and CCP
RA
69
HLA-B27
Ank spond
70
What should you check before starting azathioprine?
TPMT levels (enzyme)
71
Serum sickness = what type of hypersensitivity?
Type 3 Hypersensitivity Reaction 5-10 days after foreign protein injected (e.g. **penicillin**), leading to Ig production and subsequent immune complex formation.
72
Adult with bronchiectasis, recurrent sinusitis, diarrhoea and development of atypical SLE
CVID
73
What does IPEX stand for?
Immune dysregulation (autoimmune conditions) Polyendocrinopathy Enteropathy X-linked inheritance syndrome Absolute deficiency of Treg cells (Foxp3 mutation) BMT is only cure
74
PTPN22
Tyrosine phosphatase associated with **RA**, SLE, T1DM Suppresses T-cell activation
75
Connective tissue disease screening antibody
ANA
76
Calcinuerin inhibitors names and MOA
Ciclosporin and tacrolimus Block cytokine expression
77
chronic granulomatous disease treatment type
IFN gamma
78
SE of cyclophosphamide
infertility (males \>\> females) Hair loss Haemorrhagic cystitis
79
SE of azathioprine
neutropenia (especially if TPMT is low)
80
SE of ciclosporin
Dysmorphic features (gum hypertrophy) Hypertension nephrotoxic Neurotoxic
81
SE tacrolimus
Nephrotoxic Hypertension Diabetogenic Neurotoxic
82
SE of Mycofenolate Mofetil
Progressive multifocal leukencephalopathy (caused by JC virus)
83
60yo develops rash while under general anaesthetic, what do you do?
Measure mast cell tryptase
84
75yo man with hypertension, tongue and periorbital swelling. Cause of swelling?
ACEi
85
Complement deficiency and nephritic factor
Membranoproliferative nephritis and bacterial infections
86
C1q deficiency
Skin conditions, childhood onset SLE (severe), infections, kidney disease
87
anti-CD25 mAb name and used in
Basilixumab used in prophylaxis of allograft rejection
88
anti IL12/23 mAb name and used in
Ustekinumab Crohn's and psoriasis
89
anti IL-6 mAb name and used in
Tocilizumab Used in RA and castleman's disease (lymphoproliferative diseasea)
90
AI hep/PSC antibody
Anti smooth muscle Ab (PSC also has p-ANCA and ANAs)
91
Goodpasteurs connective tissue thing
Type IV collagen
92
Mouldy hay
Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
93
Oligoclonal bands of IgG on CSF with myelin basic protein
MS
94
OKT3
A mab for hyperacute rejection (anti-CD-3, T cells)
95
Calcineurin inhibitor
Cyclosporin (reduces IL-2) Tacrolimus
96
Medication that inhibits DNA synthesis in an attempt to prevent proliferation of T cells (post transplant)
Azathioprine
97
IVDU who has multiple aneurysms
Hep B is associated with PAN
98
SLE pt develops bleeding from gums and nose bleeds, with low platelet count 1. Antibody target 2. name of condition developed
1. Glycoprotein IIb-IIIa 2. Autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura
99
Drug that prevents cell replication by damaging DNA (B cells more than T cells)
Cyclophosphamide Used in SLE, wegeners, leukemias, CTD
100
CTLA4-immunoglobulin fusion protein name and used in
Abatacept (rheumatoid arthritis) Used in RA
101
Mycophenylate Mofetil MoA
Guanine synthesis (IMPDH is the enzyme)
102
Kveim test
Sarcoidosis
103
Test for HSP
Skin biopsy and immunofluoresence stain for IgA and C3
104
Increased CH50
acute inflammation e.g. RA
105
Pot strep rheumatoid fever (mechanism)
Molecular mimicry
106
1st exposure to allergen IL
IL-12
107
Cyclosporin MoA
Calcineurin inhibitor
108
Dermatomyositis appearance on immunofluoresence
Speckled (Anti-Jo1)
109
Lipiduria
Minimal change disease (increase in lipids to try to maintain oncotic pressure)
110
TNF-ß is central in diagnosis of which condition?
CREST
111
Antibodies found in diabetes patients
Anti glutamic aid dehydrogenase 65 (Anti-GAD65) Islet antigen (IA-2) Anti-islet cell antibody Anti-insulin antibody
112
113
Peptidyl arginine deaminase, PAD
Mutated in RA Enzymes involved in deamination of arginine to citrulline
114
Dermatomyositis vs polymyositis type of hypersensitivity reaction
Dermatomyositis Type 3 (Immune complex mediated vasculitis) Polymyositis Type 4 (CD8 cells surround myofibres)
115
Ix for anaphylactic shock
**Serial** mast cell tryptase (at 1,3 and 24 hrs after) Blood/urine histamine levels
116
Ix for allergy (elective)
* skin prick (≥3mm wheal is positive) * Lab quantification of allergen specific IgE (but often positive wihtout symptoms * Chellenge test (Gold standard)
117
Dilution IM adrenaline Dose for adults, 6-12 and \<6
1: 1000 0. 5, 0.3, 0.15 ml
118
treatment anaphylaxis
IM adrenaline Fluids IV antihistamines (chlorpheniramine) IV Hydrocortisone
119
Chronic uritcaria and angioedema plus takes ACEi
ACEi angioedema (ACEi lead to accumulation of bradykinin which causes the symptoms)
120
121
most important HLA loci for translplant
-A, -B, -DR
122
Name live vaccines
MMR BCG Typhoid (oral) Polio (oral) VZV Yellow Fever
123
Checkpoint inhibitors
ipilimumab (CTLA-4) nivolumab pembrolizumab (PD-1)
124
JAK inhibitors examples and used in
Tofacitinib and baracitinib Used in RA
125
Apremilast used in and MOA
Psoriasis ans psoriatic arthritis PDE4 inhibitor
126
anti-IL-17 mAb name and used in
Secukinumab used in psoriasis
127
denosumab target (full for VSA) used in
receptor activator of NFkB ligand Osteoporosis
128
MOA azathioprine
prevents **de novo purine synthesis** to prevent **T\>B cell** activation/proliferation
129
MOA Mycophenylate
Blocks **de novo guanosine nucleotide** synthesis ## Footnote **T\>B cells**
130
MOA Cyclophosphamide
Alkylating agent Alkylates guanine base of DNA Damages DNA and prevents cell replication Affects **B cells \> T cells**
131
drugs that prevent integration of HIV genetic information into host DNA
Integrase inhibitors e.g dolutegravir
132
ARVs that blocks reverse transcriptase
(non-)nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors e.g. zidovudine, abacavir
133
ARV that prevents assembly and release of virus
Protease inhibitors
134
ARV that block binding of virus to cell
Attachment inhibitors e.g. maraviroc
135
MOA sirulimus
mTOR inhibitor
136
What natural antibody against, which confers protective immunity against HIV?
Gp120
137
What are the base-line treatment for immunosuppression?
Calcineurin inhibitor (cyclosporine/tacrolimus) + Prednisolone + Mycofenolate Mofetil.
138
Boy with abscesses has a **positive** NBT
**Myeloperoxidase deficiency** NOT chronic granulomarous, as NBT would be negative.