Immuno 5 Flashcards

1
Q

T or F. Innate responses are most

important over the first 4 days (96 hrs), but these responses will continue until the pathogen is cleared.

A

T.

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2
Q

What mechanical barriers prevent microorganisms from reaching our tissues?

A

the skin (epidermis) and epithelium that lines the GI and respiratory tracts is the most important of these barriers. It is difficult for most microbes to penetrate this barrier and gain access to our tissues. The flow of air or fluid across the epithelium and gut helps to prevent attachment by microbes. This is critical because attachment is typically the first step in gaining access. The airways of the lungs have cilia that move mucous along the lumen of the respiratory tract that also help to prevent attachment.

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3
Q

What chemical barriers prevent microorganisms from reaching our tissues?

A

fatty acids in our skin prevent attachment,
enzymes such as pepsin and lysozyme that are produced in the gut and eyes/nose, respectively. The low pH in the gut also interferes with or kills many potential invaders.

antibacterial peptides (defenses) in the skin, gut, and lungs. At a minimum, the production of defensins increases the minimum infectious dose of a microorganism. The higher inoculum that is needed to cause disease, the less likely an organism is to cause a symptomatic infection.

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4
Q

What microbiological barriers prevent microorganisms from reaching our tissues?

A

normal flora of microbes int he skin and gut are very important because they compete with other microbes for colonization of our tissues, and they produce substances that are damaging or toxic to other microbes.

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5
Q

What are dermcidins?

A

the major family of human antimicrobial peptides (a type of defensin).

These make a helical wheel diagram that demonstrates that these peptides form what is known as an amphipathic alpha-helical structure. What this means is that the hydrophobic amino acid side chains of the alpha helix are all segregated to one face of the helix while the hydrophilic amino acid side chains partition to the other face of the helix. These peptide are always rich in positively charged amino acids (arginine and lysine).
Multiple copies of these peptides can multimerize via hydrophobic interaction, and their overall positive charge causes the multimers to insert across the negatively charged outer envelop of bacteria (much more effective for gram-negative bugs). Once inserted, the hydrophobic faces of each peptide monomer interact with the hydrophobic lipids of the outer envelop while the hydrophilic faces come together to form a pore in the surface of the pathogen. This results in osmotic disintegrity and death of the microbe.

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6
Q

What is one of the primary sources of defensins in the gut?

A

Paneth cells

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7
Q

What are Cathelicidins and where are they produced?

A

a type of antimicrobial peptide and it is produced in the lysosomes of macrophages and neutrophils as well as epithelial cells.

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8
Q

T or F. The proteins of the alternative complement cascade are constitutively made in the spleen

A

F. They are constitutively made in the liver and can be activated almost immediately following encounter with a microbe that has gained access to host tissues.

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9
Q

Is the MAC much more effective as a defense against gram-negative or gram-positive bacteria?

A

gram-negative because of the differences in their outer envelop construction.

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10
Q

What happens if a bacterial pathogen can survive the first few hours of attack by the innate immune system?

A

an inflammatory response results in recruitment of many more phagocytes.

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11
Q

What happens once the phagocytes arrive to the infectious tissue?

A

Tissue macrophages recognize the bacteria via their pattern recognition receptors, and following that recognition they begin to produce inflammatory cytokines.

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12
Q

What are the most abundant cells that are recruited early in the response?

A

neutrophils (brought in by IL-8 from macrophages and C5a)

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13
Q

What are the initial steps of response following the introduction of a pathogen into the body?

A

an injury to the skin has resulted in deposition of a bacterial pathogen in the tissues. A resident tissue macrophage recognizes the bacterium via its PRRs and begins to produce inflammatory cytokines that activate the vascular endothelium, resulting in movement of fluid and inflammatory cells into the tissues. The most abundant early phagocytes that will be recruited are neutrophils (there will be recruitment of some macs as well). The newly recruited phagocytes will take up bacteria that they encounter and will begin to produce additional inflammatory cytokines (IL-1, IL-6, and TNF-alpha).

The movement of fluid into the tissues will result in flow of fluid via the lymphatics toward the draining lymph nodes where APCs can present antigen to naïve T cells.

In many cases, this innate phagocyte-mediated response can completely clear the bacterial infection before it becomes symptomatic. If not, an amplified innate response will be produced to hold the infection down until an acquired response can be primed.

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14
Q

What happens when neutrophils are recruited to inflammatory sites?

A

they cross the vascular endothelium in a process that is mediated by surface adhesion molecules.

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15
Q

Who do neutrophils cross the vascular endothelium using surface adhesion molecules?

A

Addressins on the surface of the neutrophils (GlyCam-1 and/or CD34) bind to selectins (P-selectin and E-selectin) that are expressed on the surface of the vascular endothelium. As those interactions happen, the neutrophil is brought in close contact with the endothelial cells and begins to roll. Once this occurs, chemokines that are bound to the activated endothelial cells bind to chemokine receptors on the neutrophil and LFA-1 on the neutrophil binds to ICAM. Ultimately, these interactions bring the cell close enough to the endothelial cells that CD31 (PECAM-1) on the surface of neutrophils binds to CD31 that is expressed in the tight junctions between the endothelial cells. These interactions facilitate migration of the neutrophil through the tight junction and into the underlying tissue.

A similar mechanism results in extravasion of circulating monocytes as the inflammatory response continues.

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16
Q

How do phagocytes actually kill microbes (bacteria and fungi, primarily)?

A

Once a bug has been phagocytosed, the initial events that occur are binding of several types of azurophilic granules with the phagosome. These granules contain antimicrobial substances that can begin to have toxic effects on the bugs.

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17
Q

What kinds of antimicrobial substances are found in the azurophilic granules inside of phagocytes?

A

myeloperoxidase (MPO), elastase, lysozyme, defensins

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18
Q

What is the next step that occurs once the phagosome has binded with the azurophilic granules?

A

The next step is fusion of the phagosome with lysosomes, to create the phagolysosome.

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19
Q

What do Lysosomes contain that target the bacteria?

A

degradative enzymes that are collectively known as acid hydrolases.

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20
Q

Fusion of the phagosome with the lysozome causes what to happen?

A

NADPH oxidase is created which results in what is known as the respiratory burst because there is a transient increase in oxygen consumption during this process that results in the creation of toxic reactive oxygen species. Specifically superoxide particles are released that eventually turn into hydrogen peroxide.

These reactive oxygen species are not completely confined in the phagocyte and can cause damage to surrounding tissue. Some of this is mitigated because during the respiratory burst, the phagocyte also produces enzymes (such as catalase) that degrades hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen. Some bacteria make catalase to interfere with the respiratory burst, giving them a survival advantage.

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21
Q

What is NETosis?

A

NETosis is a type of cell death that neutrophils can undergo that results in what is essentially the opposite of apoptosis. When a cell dies via apoptotic death, its genome is digested into small pieces and then the cell blebs off small small fragments of the cell that are encased in cytoplasmic membrane. These small pieces are easily taken up by phagocytes. NETosis is very distinct from this because instead of the genome being digested, it is actually expelled from the cell in undigested form, allowing it to create a web or net of chromatin material that can entrap pathogens, preventing their dissemination. NETosis also results in expulsion of cytoplasmic contents, including digestive enzymes, anti-microbial peptides, etc.

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22
Q

What are Pattern recognition receptors (PRRs)?

A

recognize common components of pathogens that are commonly known as pathogen-associated molecular patterns or PAMPS.

When phagocytes recognize PAMPS via their PRRs, they are triggered to phagocytose the material, produce inflammatory cytokines, and begin to express B7 (co-stimulator) on their surface.

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23
Q

There are three broad classes of PRRs. What is the first type?

A

endocytic PRRs (e.g. mannose receptor, glucan receptor, and scavenger receptor).

These PRRs generally recognize carbohydrates and they promote phagocytosis on the material that they recognize. The receptors do not need to transmit a signal to the cell nucleus to initiate phagocytosis.

These are non-signaling receptors.

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24
Q

What is the second type?

A

signaling PRRs. There are a set of ten of these that are membrane-anchored receptors, called Toll-like receptors (some of them must be combined with another to create the receptor, while others by themselves (either in monomeric of homodimeric form) serve as the receptor.),

and the others are cytoplasmic receptors known as the NOD-like receptors (that recognize bacterial products) and RIG-1-like receptors (that are sensors for viral RNAs). Engagement of these receptors with their ligands results in cytokine production.

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25
Q

What do the TLR2/TLR6 heterodimers recognize?

A

recognize lipoteichoic acid (a component that is common to gram-positive bacteria) and zymosan (a component of yeast/fungi).

26
Q

What cells carry the TLR2/TLR6 heterodimer receptor?

A

monocytes, dendritic cells, eosinophils, basophils, mast cells

27
Q

What is the cellular location of the TLR2/TLR6 heterodimer receptor?

A

plasma membrane

28
Q

What does the TLR3 receptor recognize?

A

double stranded viral RNA

29
Q

What cells carry the TLR3 receptor?

A

NK cells

30
Q

What is the cellular location of the TLR3 receptor?

A

endosomes

31
Q

What does the TLR4 receptor recognize?

A

LPS of gram negative bacteria

32
Q

What cells carry the TLR4 receptor?

A

macrophages, dendritic cells, mast cells, eosinophils

33
Q

What is the cellular location of the TLR4 receptor?

A

plasma membrane

34
Q

What does the TLR7 and TLR8 receptor recognize?

A

recognize single-stranded viral RNAs

35
Q

What is the cellular location of the TLR7 and TLR8 receptor?

A

endosomes

36
Q

What happens when TLR receptors bind to their cognate ligands?

A

They initiate signaling that “notifies” the cell that it has encountered danger signals and that an immune response is needed.

37
Q

What is the third type of PRR? What are the main types?

A

secreted PRRs

mannose-binding protein and C-reactive protein

38
Q

T or F. mannose-binding protein is an acute phase protein whose expression is upregulated in the liver during an acute phase response

A

T. mannose-binding protein is an acute phase protein whose expression is upregulated in the liver during an acute phase response.

C-reactive protein is another of the secreted PRRs whose expression in the liver is
upregulated during an acute phase response.

39
Q

How does C-reactive protein work?

A

CRP binds to phosphocholine residues that are unique to bacterial surfaces, and when bound it becomes a ligand for binding by complement component C1. Once C1 binds, it becomes active and the classical complement cascade is initiated. Thus, this is an innate (antibody independent) way to initiate the classical pathway

40
Q

What are some of the cytokines produced by MACROPHAGES following binding to their PRRs?

A

IL-1B, IL-6, TNF-alpha, IL-12, and CXCL8

41
Q

What are the local and systemic effects of IL-1B?

A

local- activates vascular endothelium, activates lymphocytes, local tissue destruction, increases access of effector cells

systemic- fever, production of IL-6

42
Q

What are local and systemic effects of IL-12?

A

local only- activates NK cells

43
Q

What are the local and systemic effects of CXCL8?

A

local only- chemostatic factor that recruits neutrophils and basophils to site of infection

44
Q

What are the local and systemic effects of TNF-alpha?

A

local- activates vascular endothelium and increases vascular permeability

systemic- fever, mobilization of metabolites, shock

45
Q

What are the local and systemic effects of IL-6?

A

systemic only- fever, induces acute-phase protein production by hepatocytes

46
Q

IL-1, IL-6, and TNF-alpha are three (of many) cytokines produced by macrophages. These cytokines produced by macrophages are very important regulators of the innate immune response to bacterial infections. The three cytokines act synergistically to initiate the following innate immune responses:

A

Initiation of the acute phase response:

a) Act on liver to stimulate the production of two secreted pattern recognition receptors that can activate the classical and lectin complement pathways, respectively (C-reactive protein and mannose binding lectin).
b) Initiate neutrophil mobilization by acting on bone marrow endothelium. This results in increased phagocytosis and killing of the pathogen.
c) Act on both the hypothalamus and on fat and muscle to increase body temperature. This results in decreased rate of viral and bacterial replication.

47
Q

Define acute phase immune response.

A

an innate immune response that occurs soon after the initiation of an infection that involves the synthesis of acute-phase proteins by the liver (secreted into blood).
The acute phase response occurs in response to bacterial infections that persist for more than a few days, and I believe that in most cases some of the bacteria have disseminated into the circulation.

48
Q

The acute phase response results in production of several acute phase proteins, and most notably:

A

Fibrinogen

C-reactive protein: a secreted pattern recognition receptor that has affinity for phosphocholine residues that are expressed on bacterial surfaces. When C-reactive protein binds to a bacterium, it can initiate the classical complement cascade.

Mannose-binding lectin or mannose-binding protein: this protein has affinity for mannose residues expressed on the surface of bacteria. When bound, it serves as an initiator of the lectin pathway of complement activation.

49
Q

IL-6 is produced primarily by ______.

A

macrophages (kuppfer cells, or liver macrophages) that have recognized danger signals through their pattern recognition receptors. IL-6 stimulates hepatocytes to produce the acute phase reactants.

50
Q

T or F. TNF-alpha activates vascular endothelium causing leakage of fluids into the tissues, increased diapedesis of phagocytes from the circulation into the tissues, and *increased platelet adhesion to the walls of small blood vessels.

A

This results in occlusion of the blood vessels and thereby prevents the bacteria form disseminating via the blood, allowing time for local phagocytes to engulf and kill the organisms.

51
Q

What causes sepsis?

A

Once a bacterial infection becomes septic, macrophages in the liver and spleen make TNF-alpha that is secreted directly into the bloodstream. TNF- alpha now acts systemically on the vasculature, inducing systemic leakage of fluids from the vasculature and adherence of platelets to the walls of small vessels. Small vessels become occluded due to a combination of reduced blood volume and platelet adhesion, and many of them collapse. This is particularly problematic in organs and can result in multiple organ failure and septic shock…and ultimately, death.

52
Q

What are B1 B cells?

A

are a subset of B cells that are found in the secondary lymphoid tissues

53
Q

What do B1 B cells recognize?

A

T-independent type 2 antigens, which are typically composed of polysaccharides that have repeating structures (highly multivalent). B1 B cells have a relatively limited immunoglobulin receptor repertoire that is largely directed at common components of bacterial pathogens (e.g. capsular polysaccharide).

54
Q

Are B1 B cells considered innate or acquired cells? Why?

A

These cells are a truly innate cell type and every exposure of a single host to any pathogen that “activates” these cells will result in an identical B1 B cell response (in direct contrast with full activation of B cells that are specific for T-dependent antigens).

B1 B cells can be induced to produce antibody (primarily IgM, with some programmed class-switching to IgG), but they do not clonally expand, undergo affinity maturation, and never class switch to any isotypes other than IgG.

55
Q

T or F. this innate response is not effective until approximately 5 years of age in most cases because the B1 B cell population is not generated in full until that time.

A

T. In large part, this explains why young children respond very poorly to capsular vaccines.

56
Q

What happens in a virus infected cell?

A

It produces IFN-alpha and IFN-beta (type 1 interferons), thereby initiating the interferon response.

57
Q

What effects does the interferon response have on host cells?

A

(1) Induces a state of heightened resistance to viral infection and viral replication in all cells
(2) Induces increased expression of MHC class I and other ligands for the inhibitory receptors on NK cells
(3) Activation of NK cells to kill virus-infected cells. Please be aware that NK cells do not have any antigen-specific receptors. They recognize virus- infected cells by monitoring their surface expression of normal host proteins. This will be discussed in the next minute of two.

58
Q

What does the secreted IFN -alpha and IFN-beta interferons do?

A

These cytokines bind to receptors on the surrounding uninfected cells, and the signaling that results causes changes in those cells that make them more difficult for viruses to infect, as well as causing them to upregulate the level of MHC class I produced by the cell, making them less sensitive to killing by NK cells.

59
Q

Time course following a typical virus infection

A

Draw the graph:

The viral titer increases rapidly during the early stages of infection and then levels off on about day 3 and then begins to decrease rapidly on about day 6 post- infection. The increase in Cytokines: type 1 interferons (IFN-α and IFN-β) as well as IL-12 and TNF-α. correlates with the rapid increase in NK cell-mediated killing of virus-infected cells as well as with the leveling off of virus titer that starts on day 3.
Virus titer drops precipitously once the acquired CTL response has been produced, and the virus is eventually cleared completely.

60
Q

So what is the role of NK cells in viral infections?

A

NK cells control viral infections so that the acquired immune system has time to develop. NK cells also produce inflammatory cytokines that promote development of TH1-type cytokines

61
Q

NK cells have two different types of inhibitory and activating receptors on their surface. What are they?

A

Immunoglobulin-like receptors and lectin-like receptors.

Concentrate on the ligands on host cells that engage the inhibitory and/or activating receptors, and how these interactions determine whether or not the NK cell will degranulate on the target cell.

62
Q

How do NK cells know to bind to host cells if they have a viral infection?

A

NK cell that is interacting with a healthy host cell. The activating receptor is not bound to any ligand, while the inhibitory receptor in bound to its ligand. There are multiple host cell surface proteins that are expressed on healthy cells that can bind to these inhibitory receptors, preventing the NK from degranulating.

In the right hand panel an NK cell is interacting with a virus infected target cell, and both the inhibitory and the activating receptors are engaged with their ligands. The result of this is degranulation because in this case the host cell is expressing MIC proteins (MIC-1 and/or MIC-2). These are proteins that are expressed by stressed cells. Virus infection stresses the cell, and early during the viral replicative cycle, the host cell can produce these stress proteins that are recognized by the activating receptors.

(Both Panels): One of the inhibitory cell surface proteins produced by host cells (the one you must know about) is MHC class I. In the left panel you see an NK cell that is interacting with an uninfected host cell. Because the cell is uninfected, it has normal levels of MHC expression on its surface, and the NK cell’s inhibitory MHC class I receptor can recognize the MHC class I and inhibits the NK cell from performing its effector function (degranulation).
In the right hand panel, an NK cell is interacting with a virus-infected host cell. Because it is infected, the host cell is making MIC surface proteins that can bind to the activating receptors of the NK cell. MHC class I production has ceased and the surface levels of MHC class I on the host cell is reduced to the point that there is too little signaling through the inhibitory MHC class I receptor to prevent the NK cell from degranulating on that target cell. I take some issue with this graphic because, unless the virus encodes an analog of MIC, there should be no MIC present on the surface of the host cell shown in the right-hand panel.

However, you should consider NK cells as a cell that is programmed to kill MHC class I-deficient cells. The activating receptor does not need to be engaged for lack of MHC class I to cause an NK cell to degranulate.