Immune Checkpoint Inhibitors Flashcards

1
Q

Define Amplitude in the realm of Immunology

A

In immunology, this refers to
the level of effector output.
-For T cells, this can be levels of cytokine production, proliferation, or target killing
potential.

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2
Q

Define Quality in the realm of Immunology and use CD4+ T-cells as an example.

A

In immunology, this refers to the type of immune response generated, which is often
defined as the pattern of cytokine production. This, in turn, mediates responses against specific types of pathogen.

For example, CD4+ T cells can be predominantly:
A) TH1 cells
-characterized by IFN-gamma production
-antiviral and antitumour responses
B) TH2 cells
-characterized by IL-4 and IL-13 production
-these cells are important for antihelminth
responses
C) TH17 cells
-characterized IL-17 and IL-22 production
-these cells are important for mucosal bacterial and fungal responses.

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3
Q

Amplitude and Quality of T-cell response is initiated by _______ and regulated by ______ and _____ signals

A

TCR; co-stimulatory; inhibitory

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4
Q

Steps in T-cell mediated immunity?

A

1) Clonal selection of antigen specific cells
2) their activation and proliferation in secondary
lymphoid tissues
3) trafficking to sites of antigen and inflammation
4) execution of direct effector functions
5) provision of help (through cytokines and
membrane ligands) for a multitude of effector immune
cells.

Each of these steps is regulated by counterbalancing
stimulatory and inhibitory signals that fine-tune the
response.

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5
Q

What are immune checkpoints?

Why are immune checkpoints important in healthy people?

A

Immune checkpoints: immune-inhibitory pathways

Under normal physiological conditions, immune checkpoints are crucial for the maintenance of self-tolerance (prevention of autoimmunity) and also to protect tissues from damage when the immune system is responding to pathogenic infection.

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6
Q

Indoleamine 2,3-dioxygenase (IDO) and arginase produced or expressed on which cells?

How do these metabolic enzymes inhibit immune function?

A

IDO - both tumour cells and infiltrating myeloid cells
Arginase - myeloid-derived suppressor cells

IDO and Arginase inhibit immune responses through:

  • local depletion of amino acids that are essential for anabolic functions in lymphocytes (particularly T cells)
  • the synthesis of specific natural ligands for cytosolic receptors that can alter lymphocyte functions.
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7
Q
CTLA
A) definition
B) Expression
C) Role for CD8 T cells
D) MoA for D
E) Role for CD4 T cells
F) MoA
A

A) CTLA4 = cytotoxic T lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 AKA CD152
B) exclusively on T cells
C) primarily regulates the amplitude of the early stages of T cell activation
D) Primarily, CTLA4 counteracts the activity of the T cell
co-stimulatory receptor, CD28.
-Naive or resting T-cell has minimal CTLA4 receptors on the surface but with T-cell activation, CTLA is transported to the T-cell surface via intracellular vesicles and is directly proportional with the strength of the TCR and CD28 stimulation.
-Can sequester CD80 and CD86 from CD28 engagement or actively remove CD80/86 from APC surface.
-May also activate protein phosphatases e.g. SHP2 and PP2A that conteracte kinase signals induced by TCR and CD28
E) downmodulation of helper T cell activity and enhancement of regulatory T (TReg) cell immunosuppressive activity
F) CTLA4 blockade results in a broad enhancement of immune responses that are dependent on helper T cells and, conversely, CTLA4 engagement on TReg cells enhances their suppressive function. CTLA4 is a target gene of the forkhead transcription factor FOXP3

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8
Q
PD1
A) Definition
B) Expression
C) Role and difference from CTLA4
D) MoA 
E) Ligands for PD1
F) Role of PD1 inhibitors
A

A) PD1 = programmed cell death protein 1 AKA CD279
B) Broadly expressed e.g. highly expressed on TReg cells and can be on B cells and NK cells
C) major role of PD1 is to limit the activity of T cells
in peripheral tissues at the time of an inflammatory response to infection and to limit autoimmunity. PD1 predominantly regulates effector T cell activity
within tissue and tumours, whereas CTLA4 predominantly regulates T cell activation
D) PD1 expression is induced when T cells become activated.
-Activated T cells upregulate PD1 and continue to express it in tissues. Inflammatory signals in these tissues –> expression of PD1 ligands –> downregulate the activity of T cells –> limit collateral tissue damage
-best characterized signal for PD1 ligand 1 induction is
interferon‑γ predominantly produced by TH1 cells
-When engaged by one of its ligands, PD1 inhibits
kinases that are involved in T cell activation through
the phosphatase SHP2
-may enhance proliferation of Tregs
E) PDL1 (aka B7‑H1 and CD274) and PDL2 (aka B7‑DC and CD273)
F) Antitumor activity through increase in effector T cell activity, NK cell activity, and PD1+ B cell activity. Possibly decreases Treg activity.

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9
Q

How does T-cell activation occur?

A
  • TCR on naive or resting T-cell binds to the antigen from MHC molecule.
  • CD28 = co-stimulatory molecule that binds to the CD 80 (B7.1)and CD 86 (B7.2) ligand on APC but does not affect T cell activation unless the TCR is first engaged by cognate antigen.
  • Once antigen recognition occurs, CD28 signalling strongly amplifies TCR signalling to activate T cells.
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10
Q

Role of FOXP3 for T-cells?

A

-expression of which determines the TReg cell lineage and TReg cells therefore express CTLA4 constitutively.
-encoded on the X chromosome.
-Genes encoding some of these immunecheckpoint
receptors, such as CTLA4, are actually FOXP3 target genes

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11
Q

Define suicide substrates

A

Molecules that inhibit an enzyme by mimicking its

substrate and covalently binding to the active site.

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12
Q

Name some other immune checkpoints besides PD1 and CTLA4

A
PDL1
LAG3
B7-H3
B7-Ha
TIM3
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13
Q

Define Anergy

A

A form of T or B cell inactivation in which the cell remains alive but cannot be activated to execute an immune response.
Anergy is usually a reversible state.

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14
Q

Important distinguishing feature of ICI compared to conventional chemo agents and oncogene-targeted smll molecule drugs

A

Kinetics

-response to be ICB may be up to 6 months after treatment initiation

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15
Q

Define pseudoprogression.

Implications?

A

metastatic lesions actually increase in size on computed tomography (CT) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scans before regressing, which seems to occur owing to increased immune cell infiltration

Demand reevaluation of response criteria for immunotherapeutics away from the conventional time-to-progression or Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumours (RECIST) objective response criteria, which were developed on the basis of experiences with chemotherapeutic agents and as the primary measure of drug efficacy

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16
Q

B7 family binds to co-stimulatory or inhibitor receptors? Give an examples.

A

Both

e.g. CD80 (B7.1) and CD86 (B7.2) bind to CD28 or CTLA.

17
Q

Tumor necrosis factor (TNF) family members bind to cognate TNF receptor family members and delivery what type of signal

A

predominantly co-stimulatory signals

18
Q

What occurs with chronic antigen exposure?

A

chronic antigen exposure (e.g. chronic viral infection and cancer)
–>high levels of persistent PD1 expression
–> a state of exhaustion or anergy among cognate
antigen-specific T cells.

19
Q

Where is PDL1 expressed?

A

tumor cells
myeloid cells in the TME
TIL

20
Q

Describe 2 general mechanisms of expression of immune-checkpoint ligands on tumor cells using PDL1 as an example

A

Innate

  • constitutive oncogenic signalling can upregulate PDL1 expression
  • e.g. Activation of the AKT (loss PTEN) and signal transducer and activator of transcription 3 (STAT3) pathways has been reported to drive PDL1 expression

Adaptive
-induced in response to inflammatory signals that are produced by an active antitumour immune response. e.g. IFN-gamma