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Phase 1 > IMMS > Flashcards

IMMS Flashcards

1
Q

What is a Karyotype?

A

number and appearance of chromosomes in a cell

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2
Q

Each chromosome contains a DNA duplex of roughly how many base pairs?

A

10^7

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3
Q

What is the letter for the short arm of the chromosome?

A

p

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4
Q

What is the letter for the long arm of the chromosome?

A

q

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5
Q

What are the long and short arms of a chromosome separated by?

A

centromere

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6
Q

How many genes are there roughly in humans?

A

22,000

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7
Q

What does mitosis produce and what is the purpose of it?

A

produces 2 daughter cells that are genetically identical to parent cells. Growth and replace dead cells

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8
Q

What is the term given to cells: not in replication, during replication and after replication?

A

chromatin, chromosomes, chromatids

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9
Q

What 4 things occur in G1 stage of interphase?

A

rapid growth
normal metabolic function
new organelles produced
protein synthesis of proteins involved in spindle formation

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10
Q

What 3 things happen during synthesis stage of interphase?

A

DNA doubles through DNA replication
Histone proteins double through protein synthesis
Centrosome replication

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11
Q

What 3 things happen during G2 stage of interphase?

A

Chromosomes condense
Energy stores accumulate
Mitochondria and centrioles double

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12
Q

What 2 things happen during Prophase?

A

chromatin condenses into chromosomes

centrosomes nucleate microtubules and move to opposite poles of nucleus

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13
Q

What 4 things happen during Prometaphase?

A

nuclear membrane breaks down
microtubules invade nuclear space
chromatids attach to microtubules
cell no longer has a nucleus

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14
Q

What happens in metaphase?

A

chromosomes line up along equatorial plane

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15
Q

What happens in anaphase?

A

sister chromatids separate and are pushed to opposite poles of the cells, centromere first, as spindle fibres contract

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16
Q

What 3 things happen during Telophase?

A

nuclear membrane reforms
chromosomes unfold into chromatin
cytokinesis begins

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17
Q

What 2 things happen during Cytokinesis?

A

cell organelle become evenly distributed around each nucleus

cell divides into two daughter cells with a nucleus in each

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18
Q

What are 5 differences of meiosis compared to mitosis?

A

only in gametes
recombination of genetic material results in genetic diversity
2 cell divisions
4 haploid cells produced which are genetically distinct from each other and parent cell
not a cycle

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19
Q

What happens in meiosis 1?

A

chromosome number is halved

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20
Q

How and when is genetic diversity created in meiosis 1?

A

Crossing over between non-sister chromatids in Prophase 1

Random assortment on the metaphase plate in Metaphase 1

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21
Q

What happens in Meiosis 2?

A

Sister chromatids separate

Haploid cells are produced

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22
Q

How are spermatogonia formed?

A

lots of mitoses from primordial germ cells

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23
Q

How many sperm per ejaculate?

A

100/200 million

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24
Q

How are oogonia produced?

A

30 mitoses from primordial germ cell

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25
Q

When do oogonia enter prophase 1 of meiosis?

A

8th month of intrauterine life

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26
Q

how does the cytoplasm divide for female gametogenesis?

A

unequally, forms 1 egg and 3 polar bodies that apoptose

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27
Q

When are meiosis 1 and 2 completed?

A

meiosis 1 is completed at ovulation

meiosis 2 is only completed if fertilisation occurs

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28
Q

What are 2 problems with meiosis?

A

Non disjunction

Gonadal mosaicism

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29
Q

What is non-disjunction?

A

failure of chromosome pairs to separate in meiosis 1 or sister chromatids to separate properly in meiosis 2

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30
Q

What is Gonadal Mosaicism?

A

occurs when precursor germline cells to ova or spermatozoa are a mixture of 2 or more genetically different cell lines

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31
Q

What are the 3 main causes of disease?

A

Genetic
Multifactorial
Environmental

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32
Q

What is the locus?

A

the position of a gene/DNA on the genetic map

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33
Q

What is polymorphism?

A

frequent hereditary variations at a locus

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34
Q

What is consanguinity?

A

reproductive union between 2 relatives

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35
Q

What is autozygosity?

A

homozygous by descent, inheritance of the same mutant allele through 2 branches of the same family

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36
Q

What is hemizygous?

A

gene that is carried on an unpaired chromosome

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37
Q

What is Penetrance?

A

proportion of people with a gene/genoptype who show the expected phenotype

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38
Q

What is lyonisation?

A

the process of X chromosome inactivation

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39
Q

What is the function of the nucleus?

A

houses DNA in the form of chromatin within the nucleolus

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40
Q

What is the function of mitochondria?

A

site of oxidative phosphorylation

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41
Q

What is the outer and inner membrane of mitochondria the site of?

A 
outer = lipid synthesis and fatty acid metabolism
inner = respiratory chain ATP production
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42
Q

What is the matrix and intramembranous space of the mitochondria the site of?

A

matrix = tricarboxylic acid (Krebs) cycle

intramembranous space = nucleotide phosphorylation

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43
Q

What is the structure and function of rough endoplasmic reticulum?

A

highly folded flattened membrane sheets

site of protein synthesis

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44
Q

What is the structure and function of smooth endoplasmic reticulum?

A

highly folded flattened membrane sheets

sit of membrane lipid synthesis, processes and stores synthesised proteins

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45
Q

What is the structure and function of golgi (cis medial and trans)?

A

parallel stacks of membrane
Cis receives smooth endoplasmic reticulum vesicles - protein phosphorylation occurs
Medial modifies products by adding sugars, forms complex oligosaccharides by adding sugars to lipids and peptides
Trans proteolysis of peptides into active forms and sprting of molecules into vesicles which bud from the surface

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46
Q

Function of lysosomes?

A

contain digestive enzymes breakdown for most molecules

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47
Q

Function of peroxisomes?

A

contain enzymes that oxidase long chain fatty acids

produce hydrogen peroxide which can be used to destroy pathogens

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48
Q

What is lipofuscin?

A

membrane bound orange-brown pigment, peroxidations of lipids in older cells, common in heart and liver

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49
Q

What are oligosaccharides?

A

3-12 monosaccharides

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50
Q

What are proteoglycans?

A

long, unbranched polysaccharides radiating from a core protein

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51
Q

What are the properties of peptide bonds?

A

very stable
cleaved by proteolytic enzymes
can have partial double bonds
flexibility around C atoms not involved in bond thus allows multiple conformations

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52
Q

What is the primary structure of a protein?

A

linear sequence of amino acids held together by covalent bonds

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53
Q

What is the secondary structure of a protein?

A

alpha helix - h bonds between each carbonyl group

beta pleated sheet - h bonds between linear regions of polypeptide chains

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54
Q

What is the tertiary structure of a protein?

A

electrostatic, hydrogen and covalent bonding

folding into a globular structure

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55
Q

What is the quaternary structure of a protein?

A

2 or more tertiary structures joined together to form a protein

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56
Q

What is an isoenzyme?

A

enzymes that have a different structure and sequence but catalyse the same reaction

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57
Q

What is a coenzyme?

A

cannot themselves catalyse a reaction but bind to an enzyme to activate it

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58
Q

What are activation-transfer coenzymes?

A

form a covalent bond and are regenerated at the end of the reaction

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59
Q

What are oxidation-reduction coenzymes?

A

electrons are transferred from one compound to the other

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60
Q

What is myoglobin?

A

found in the muscle, serves as a reserve supply of oxygen and facilitates the movement of O2 in muscles

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61
Q

In which direction is DNA synthesised and why?

A

5’to3’ as DNA polymerase reads template strand from 3’to5’

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62
Q

What enzymes are involved in DNA replication?

A 
Topoisomerase
DNA helicase
DNA polymerase
Primase enzyme
RNAse H
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63
Q

What is the role of topoisomerase in DNA replication?

A

unwinds the double helix by relieving the supercoils

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64
Q

What is the role of DNA helicase in DNA replication?

A

separates the DNA apart by breaking hydrogen bonds between bases, exposing nucleotides

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65
Q

What is the role of the primer in DNA replication?

A

short strand of DNA that us the start point for DNA synthesis

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66
Q

What is the role of the single strand binding protein in DNA replication?

A

keeps 2 strands of DNA apart whilst synthesis of DNA occurs, prevents annealing to form double stranded DNA

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67
Q

What is the role of primase enzyme in DNA replication?

A

RNA polymerase that synthesises the short RNA primers needed to start the strand replication process

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68
Q

What is the role of RNAse H?

A

removes the RNA primers that previously began the DNA strand synthesis

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69
Q

Where is the promotor region?

A

5’ of the 1st exon

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70
Q

When mRNA leaves the nucleus what type ribosome does it attach to?

A

80s

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71
Q

What is exon shuffling and what does it allow?

A

exons are not in the same order allows huge variants of antibodies to be produced

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72
Q

What does degenerate but unambiguous mean?

A

many amino acids specified by more than one codon but each codon specifies only one amino acid

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73
Q

What 3 factors can turn off gene expression?

A

activation of repressors
enzymes no longer activated
transcription and processing proteins required for RNA transcription and or processing are no longer produced

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74
Q

What is a mis-sense mutation?

A

single nucleotide change results in a codon that codes for a different amino acid

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75
Q

What is a non-sense mutation?

A

mutation that produces a stop codon resulting in an incomplete usually non-functional protein

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76
Q

What is a splice-site mutation?

A

affects the accurate removal of an intron

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77
Q

What is expansion of a tri-nucleotide repeat and what happens in Huntingtons?

A

normal range of repeats in first part of coding sequence is 15-20. repeats larger than 36 of CAG patient develops Huntingtons. More repeats=earlier onset

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78
Q

What is Anticipation?

A

repeats get bigger when they are passed onto next generation resulting in earlier symptoms of greater severity

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79
Q

What is Homeostasis?

A

property of a system in which variables are regulated so that internal conditions remain stable and relatively constant

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80
Q

What happens in Autocrine secretion?

A

chemical is released from cell into the extracellular fluid and then acts upon the very cell that secreted it

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81
Q

What happens in Paracrine secretion?

A

chemical messengers involved in the communication between cells, released into extracellular fluid, travel short distances, local communication

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82
Q

What happens in Endocrine secretion?

A

production and secretion of hormones into blood, travel longer distances, systemic communication, can affect the whole body

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83
Q

What happens in Exocrine secretion?

A

secretion into ducts then into organ

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84
Q

What are the 3 classified types of hormones?

A

Peptide
Steroid
Amino-acid derivative

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85
Q

Explain properties of peptide hormones?

A
  • made from short chain amino acids
  • vary in size
  • some have carbohydrate side chains
  • large, hydrophilic charged molecules that cannot diffuse across a membrane
  • bind to receptors on membranes
  • fast response
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86
Q

Explain properties of steroid hormones?

A
  • synthesised from cholesterol
  • water insoluble and lipid soluble
  • cross membranes but requires transport proteins in blood
  • targets an intracellular receptor
  • slow response
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87
Q

Explain properties of amino-acid derivative hormones?

A
  • synthesises from tyrosine

- acts in same way to peptide hormones

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88
Q

What is the predominant electrolyte in Intracellular Fluid?

A

potassium

89
Q

What are the 4 predominant electrolytes in Extracellular Fluid?

A

sodium, chloride, bicarbonate and Ca2+ (especially in heart and muscle)

90
Q

What is transcellular?

A

makes up the CSF, digestive juices and mucus

91
Q

What is the total body water/percentage of bodyweight?

A

42L (approx 60%)

92
Q

What volume/percent of body weight is Intracellular fluid?

A

28L/40%

93
Q

What volume/percent of body weight is Extracellular fluid?

A

14L/20%

94
Q

What are the 3 components of Extracellular fluid?

A

interstitial
plasma
transcellular

95
Q

What volume of 14L extracellular fluid is Interstitial, Plasma, and Transcellular?

A 
Interstitial = 10L
Plasma = 3L
Transcellular = 1L
96
Q

What is osmosis?

A

net movement of solvent molecules through a semipermeable membrane to a higher solute concentration

97
Q

What is Osmolality?

A

measure of the number of dissolved particles per kg of fluid

98
Q

What is Osmolarity?

A

measure of the number of dissolved particles per L of fluid

99
Q

What is Osmotic pressure?

A

pressure applied to a solution, by a pure solvent, required to prevent inward osmosis through a semipermeable membrane

100
Q

What is Oncotic pressure?

A

form of osmotic pressure exerted by protein that tends to pull fluid into its solution - water moves from interstitial fluid into plasma

101
Q

What is Hydrostatic pressure?

A

pressure difference between capillary blood and interstitial (water and solutes move from plasma into interstitial fluid)

102
Q

What happens when water is lost from ECF?

A
  • change detected by osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus
  • ADH/vasopressin release from posterior pituitary
  • ADH acts to increase water reabsorption in the collecting ducts of the kidney
103
Q

What happens when there is decreased renal blood flow?

A
  • decrease in water in ECF
  • release of renin from the juxtaglomerular kidney cells
  • renin converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I
  • angiotensin converting enzyme then converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II
  • triggers release of aldosterone from adrenal cortex above kidneys
  • angiotensin II and aldosterone increase Na+ reabsorption in kidneys in exchange for potassium or hydrogen excretion
  • stimulates ADH release
104
Q

What are the consequences of dehydration?

A

thirst, dry mouth, inelastic skin, sunken eyes, raised haematocrit, weight loss, confusion and hypotension

105
Q

What are the consequences of water excess?

A

hyponatraemia, cerebral over-perfusion

106
Q

What is oedema?

A

excess water in the intercellular tissue space

107
Q

What are the causes of Hypernatraemia?

A

renal failure, mineralocorticoid excess, osmotic diuresis, diabetes insipidus

108
Q

What are the consequences of Hypernatraemia?

A

cerebral intracellular dehydration

109
Q

What are the causes of Hyponatraemia?

A

diuresis, Addisons disease, excess IV fluids and oedema

110
Q

What are the consequences of Hyponatraemia?

A

intracellular over hydration, hypotension

111
Q

What is Hyperkalaemia?

A

high potassium

112
Q

What are the causes of hyperkalaemia?

A

renal failure, diuretics, acidosis

113
Q

What are the consequences of hyperhalaemia?

A

risk of myocardial infarction

114
Q

What are the causes of hypokalaemia?

A

diarrhoea, vomiting, alkalosis, hypomagnesaemia

115
Q

What are the consequences of hypokalaemia?

A

weakness and cardiac dysrhythmia

116
Q

What is Hypercalcaemia?

A

high calcium

117
Q

What are the causes of Hypercalcaemia?

A

primary hyperparathyroidism, skeletal metastases, vitamin D toxicity and TB

118
Q

What are the consequences of Hypercalcaemia?

A

metastatic calcification and kidney stones

119
Q

What are the causes of Hypocalcaemia?

A

vitamin D deficiency, magnesium deficiency, renal disease, parathyroidectomy and intestinal malabsorption

120
Q

What are the consequences of Hypocalcaemia?

A

tetany

121
Q

What are glycolipids for in the phospholipid bilayer?

A

communication, join cells to form tissues and stability

122
Q

What are glycoproteins for in the phospholipid bilayer?

A

cell to cell recognition, act as receptors

123
Q

What is cholesterol for in the phospholipid bilayer?

A

maintains fluidity

124
Q

What is the main function of the cell membrane?

A

act as a selective barrier to the passage of molecules, allowing some molecules to cross whilst excluding others

125
Q

What is the occluding function of the cell membrane?

A

tight junctions help seal cells together to prevent leakage of molecules

126
Q

What is the anchoring function of the cell membrane?

A

Actin filaments enable cell to cell adhesion through adherens.
Intermediate filaments enable cell to cell adhesion through desmosomes

127
Q

What is endocytosis?

A

energetic process to absorb/engluf molecules into a cell

128
Q

What is pinocytosis?

A

drinking

129
Q

How many kcal/g do carbohydrates, proteins, alcohol and lipids give?

A

4,4,7,9

130
Q

What is the Basal metabolic rate?

A

amount of energy needed to keep the body alive in the state

131
Q

What are some factors that increase BMR?

A 
high BMI
hyperthyroidism
low ambient temperature
fever/infection
pregnancy
exercise
132
Q

What are some factors that decrease BMR?

A

age
gender (lower for female)
starvation
hypothyroidism

133
Q

What is Daily energy expenditure?

A

energy to support our BMR and our physical activity + energy required to process food we eat

134
Q

What is a kinase enzyme?

A

enzyme that adds/removes phosphate group to things from an ATP

135
Q

What is an isomerase enzyme?

A

enzyme that rearranges structure of substrate without changing the molecular formula

136
Q

What is an aldolase enzyme?

A

enzyme that creates or breaks carbon-carbon bonds

137
Q

What is a dehydrogenase enzyme?

A

enzyme that moves hydride ion to an electron acceptor

138
Q

What is an enolase?

A

enzyme that produces a carbon=carbon double bond by removing a hydroxyl group

139
Q

What happens to the lactate produced in anaerobic respiration?

A

Released into blood, taken up by brain and heart and converted back to pyruvate.
Taken up by liver where it is sued as a precursor for the formation of glucose

140
Q

Why is glycolysis inhibited in acidosis?

A

Phosphofructokinase-1 is pH dependant and is inhibited by acidic conditions

141
Q

How does ketogenesis occur?

A

high rates of fatty acids oxidation primarily in the liver, large amounts of acetyl-CoA generated. Exceed Krebs and synthesise of ketone bodies

142
Q

What are reactive oxygen species (ROS)?

A

highly reactive oxygen containing compounds that are free radicals (single unpaired electron)

143
Q

What is the formation of ROS?

A

oxygen reduced by single electron to superoxide. Superoxide reduced to hydrogen peroxide. Hydrogen peroxide reduced to hydroxyl radical which is further reduced to water

144
Q

What is superoxide dismutase?

A

converts superoxide to hydrogen peroxide and oxygen

145
Q

What is the role of Catalase in ROS formation?

A

catalyses conversion of hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen, and protects white blood cells against own respiratory burst

146
Q

What is the role of Glutathione Peroxidase?

A

catalyses the reduction of hydrogen peroxide to water and a disulphide

147
Q

What are the 3 systems involved in control of hydrogen ion concentration?

A

Blood and tissue buffering
Excretion of CO2 by the lungs
Renal excretion of H+ and regeneration of HCO3-

148
Q

What are the 3 body buffer systems?

A

Bicarbonate, Proteins and Haemoglobin

149
Q

Why is bicarbonate an important buffer?

A

removes CO2 from lungs and bicarbonate is regenerated by kidneys

150
Q

How are proteins buffers?

A

albumin contains weak acidic and basic group within structure. intracellular proteins limit pH changes within cells. Protein matrix of bone buffers large amounts of H+ ion in patients with chronic acidosis

151
Q

How is haemoglobin a buffer?

A

binds to CO2 and H+, deoxygenated haemoglobin had the strongest affinity

152
Q

What is respiratory acidosis?

A

when PaCO2 is above upper limit of normal (greater than 6kPa)

153
Q

What is the most common cause of respiratory acidosis?

A

decreased alveolar ventilation causing decreased excretion of CO2

154
Q

What is respiratory alkalosis?

A

excessive excretion of CO2 when PaCO2 is less than 4.5kPa

155
Q

What is the most common cause of respiratory alkalosis?

A

hyperventilation due to anxiety

156
Q

What is metabolic acidosis?

A

excess of acid due to increased production of organic acids or reduced buffering capacity due to low concentration of bicarbonate

157
Q

What causes the excess H+ concentration in metabolic acidosis?

A

tissue hypoxia

158
Q

What are some of the reasons tissue hypoxia occurs?

A
  • reduced arterial oxygen content (anaemia)
  • hypoperfusion
  • reduced ability to use oxygen as a substrate (cyanide poisoning)
159
Q

How is diabetic ketoacidosis another form of metabolic acidosis?

A

production of ketone bodies release H+ ions

160
Q

What is metabolic alkalosis?

A

excessive loss of H+ ions, the excessive reabsorption of bicarbonate or the ingestion of alkalis

161
Q

What can cause excess H+ loss that could then lead to metabolic alkalosis?

A

loss of gastric secretions such as prolonged vomiting or pyloric stenosis

162
Q

What is the anion gap and the equation for it?

A

difference in serum concentrations of cations and anions

Na+K - HCO3+CL

163
Q

What is a normal range for anion gap value?

A

between 3-11mEq/mol

164
Q

When does an embryo become a foetus?

A

at the end of week 8
kidneys, liver, brain and lungs beginning to function.
fingers and toes are separate and the external genitalia are formed

165
Q

What is the infundibulum?

A

part of the fallopian tube with associated fimbriae located near the ovaries

166
Q

What is the ampulla of the fallopian tube?

A

widest part of the tube, represents the major portion of the lateral tube

167
Q

What is the isthmus part of the fallopian tube

A

narrower part of the tube that links to the uterus

168
Q

What is the tubal ostium of the fallopian tube?

A

point where the tubal canal meet the peritoneal cavity

169
Q

What happens to the primary follicles that grow in each ovarian cycle?

A

number of them begin to grow but usually only one (the dominant follicle) reaches full maturity and only 1 oocyte is discharged at ovulation

170
Q

How is ovulation initiated?

A

through a surge in LH from the pituitary gland

171
Q

Where does fertilisation take place?

A

in the fallopian tube, at the junction of the ampulla and the isthmus

172
Q

What happens during the 1st week of the embryonic period?

A

fertilisation and formation of the blastocyst

173
Q

What happens during the 2nd week of the embryonic period?

A

implantation and formation of bilaminar embryonic disc

174
Q

What happens during the 3rd week of the embryonic period?

A

further development of the embryo and formation of trilaminar embryonic disc

175
Q

What happens during the 4th week of the embryonic period?

A

folding of the embryo

176
Q

What happens from the 5th to the end of the 8th week of the embryonic period?

A

development of all organs

177
Q

What will happen to the fertilised ovum (zygote) after it undergoes rapid mitotic divisions?

A

produces a 16 cell morula that enter the uterus on the 3rd or 4th day after fertilisation, a cavity begins to appear and the blastocyst forms

178
Q

What happens to the cells of the blastocyst?

A

differentiate into 2 cell masses. Inner cell mass = embryoblast. outercell mass = trophoblast

179
Q

What happens to the embryoblast?

A

differentiates into to layers
- epiblast
- hypoblast
these 2 layers form a flast disc - bilaminar disc

180
Q

What does the epiblast produce?

A

amnioblasts that line the amniotic cavity superior to the epiblast layer

181
Q

What does the hypoblast produce?

A

cells that line the blastocyst cavity and the inner surface of the trophoblast which form the exocoelomic membrane (primitive yolk sac)

182
Q

What happens to the trophoblast?

A

differentiates into cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast

183
Q

What is the role of lacunae and when/where are they formed?

A

day 9, develop in the syncytiotrophoblast resulting in maternal sinusoids being eroded so maternal blood can enter the lacunar network and a primitive utero-placental circulation is established

184
Q

How is the extraembryonic mesoderm formed?

A

new cells appear between inner surface of cytotrophoblast and outer surface of exocoelomic membrane of yolk sac, form a fine, loose connective tissue

185
Q

What happens in the extraembryonic mesoderm?

A

large cavities develop forming the chorionic cavity. Mesoderm forms 2 layers - splanchnopleuric and somatopleuric. responsible for formation of blood vessels that will connect the embryo to the placenta

186
Q

What are endodermal cells and how are they formed?

A

in the hypoblast, migrate along inside of the exocoelomic membrane, proliferate gradually and form a new cavity - the secondary yolk sac (definitive yolk sac)

187
Q

What is the connecting stalk and where is it formed?

A

formed on further development of the trophoblast, contains capillaries which are connected to the chorionic plate (extraembryonic mesoderm) and the embryo

188
Q

How is the formation of placenta initiated?

A

chorion membrane between foetus and mother, formed by extraembryonic mesoderm and 2 layers of trophoblast. chronic villi emerge from chorion and invade endometrium and allow transfer of nutrients from maternal to fetal blood

189
Q

What is gastrulation?

A

embryoblast develops into a trilaminar structure known as the gastrula, occurs during the 3rd week

190
Q

What are the 3 germ layers called?

A
  • ectoderm
  • mesoderm
  • endoderm
191
Q

How does gastrulation begin?

A

The primitive streak appears on the dorsal mid-sagittal surface of the epiblast

192
Q

What gives rise to the mesoderm and what is the process called?

A

cells of epiblast migrate towards the primitive streak, detach from epiblast and slip beneath it - invagination

193
Q

What gives rise to the endoderm?

A

invaginating cells that displace the hypoblast

194
Q

What gives rice to the ectoderm?

A

the remaining epiblast

195
Q

How is the notochord formed and what does this later become?

A

Prenotochordal cells invaginating in the node of the primitive streak
The notochord forms a midline axis which serves as the basis of the axial skeleton

196
Q

What structures does the ectoderm give rise to?

A
  • central nervous system
  • peripheral nervous system
  • sensory epithelium of nose, ears and eyes
  • epidermis of skin, hair and nails
  • pituitary, mammary and sweat glands
  • enamel of teeth
197
Q

What are the 3 parts of the mesoderm?

A
  • paraxial plate
  • intermediate plate
  • lateral plate
198
Q

What structures does the paraxial plate give rise to?

A
  • somites (supporting tissue of the body)
199
Q

What are the 3 types of somites?

A
  • myotome (muscle tissue)
  • sclerotome (cartilage and bone)
  • dermatome (dermis of the skin)
200
Q

What structures does the intermediate plate give rise to?

A
  • kidneys

- gonads and their respective duct systems

201
Q

Where is the lateral plate mesoderm found?

A

periphery of the embryo

202
Q

What are the 2 layers the lateral plate mesoderm splits into?

A
  • somatic (parietal) layer

- splanchnic (visceral)

203
Q

What does the somatic layer of the lateral plate mesoderm form?

A

future body wall

204
Q

What does the splanchnic layer of the lateral plate mesoderm form?

A
  • circulatory system
  • connective tissue for the glands
  • muscle, connective tissue and peritoneal components of the gut
205
Q

What structures does the endoderm give rise to?

A
  • epithelial lining of the GI tract, respiratory tract and urinary bladder
  • parenchyma of the thyroid gland, parathyroid gland, liver and pancreas
  • epithelial lining of the tympanic cavity and auditory tube
206
Q

At the beginning of the 4th week, what do somites differentiate into?

A

myotomes
sclerotomes
dermatomes

207
Q

What is the oropharyngeal membrane?

A

located at cranial end of the embryonic disc, consists of tightly adherent ectoderm and endoderm cells

208
Q

Where is the cloacal membrane formed?

A

caudal end of the embryonic disc

209
Q

What does the cloacal membrane consist of?

A

tightly adherent ectoderm and endoderm cells

210
Q

What happens when the cloacal membrane appears?

A

the posterior wall of the yolk sac forms a small diverticulum, the Allantois which extends into the connecting stalk

211
Q

What does the cranial area contain?

A

oropharyngeal membrane, cardiogenic area and septum transversum

212
Q

What is cranial flexion?

A

brings together the oropharyngeal membrane, cardiogenic area and septum transversum ventrally, forming the ventral surface of future face, neck and chest

213
Q

What is caudal flexion?

A

brings the cloacal membrane onto the ventral surface of the embryo

214
Q

What is lateral folding?

A

results in the incorporation of a portion of the yolk sac into the embryo to form the primitive gut

215
Q

What is the primitive gut?

A

blind-ended tube that divides into the foregut, midgut and hindgut

216
Q

What happens to the midgut?

A

remains connected temporarily to the yolk sac by the vitelline duct

217
Q

Where is the foregut in the primitive gut?

A

extends from the oropharyngeal membrane tp the liver bud

218
Q

Where is the midgut in the primitive gut?

A

from the liver bud to the end of the right 2/3 of the transverse colon

219
Q

Where is the hindgut in the primitive gut?

A

from the beginning left 1/3 of the transverse colon to the cloacal membrane

Phase 1 (5 decks)

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