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Phase 1 mine > IMMS > Flashcards

IMMS Flashcards

1
Q

cholesterol in cell membrane role

A

supports fluidity

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2
Q

proteins in cell membrane role

A

as transporters

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3
Q

glycolipids and glycoproteins in cell membrane role

A

involved in cell signalling

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4
Q

tight junction role

A

seals neighbouring cells together in epithelial sheet to prevent leakage of molecules between them

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5
Q

adherens junction role

A

joins an actin bundle in one cell to a similar bundle in neighbouring cell

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6
Q

desmosome role

A

joins intermediate filaments in one cell to those in a neighbour

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7
Q

gap junction role

A

allows passage of small water-soluble ions and molecules

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8
Q

hemidesmasome role

A

anchors intermediate filaments in a cell to basal lamina

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9
Q

steroid hormone response is

A

slow

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10
Q

peptide hormone response is

A

fast

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11
Q

example of steroid hormone

A

sex hormones - oestrogen, testosterone

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12
Q

example of peptide hormone

A

insulin

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13
Q

homeostasis definition

A

maintenance of a constant internal environment

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14
Q

autocrine signalling

A

chemical is released from cell into ECF then acts upon same cell that secreted it

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15
Q

paracrine signalling

A

chemical messengers involved in communication between cells, released into ECF

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16
Q

example of paracrine signalling

A

ACh at neuromuscular junction

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17
Q

endocrine signalling

A

secretion into blood, longer distance, systemic communication

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18
Q

exocrine signalling

A

secretion into ducts then into organs

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19
Q

proportions of water in body

A

1/3rd extracellular

2/3rd intracellular

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20
Q

how much water in intracellular vs extracellular

A

28L intracellular

14L extracellular

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21
Q

breakdown of extracellular fluid

A

1L transcellular
3L plasma
10L interstitial

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22
Q

ECF contains

A 
glucose
urea
Cl-
HCO3-
Na+
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23
Q

main cation in ICF

A

K+

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24
Q

main cation in ECF

A

Na+

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25
Q

osmolality definition

A

concentration of solutes in plasma per kilogram of solvent

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26
Q

osmolarity definition

A

concentration of solutes in plasma per litre of solution

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27
Q

osmotic pressure definition

A

measure of how easily a solution can take in water

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28
Q

oncotic pressure

A

form of osmotic pressure exerted by proteins pulling fluid into a solution (albumin)

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29
Q

oedema

A

increased movement of fluid from plasma to interstitial space

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30
Q

monosaccharide

A

sugar that cannot be hydrolysed

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31
Q

oligosaccharide

A

3-10 monosaccharides

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32
Q

glycosidic bonds formed by

A

condensation reaction of 2 monosaccharides water produced as byproduct

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33
Q

triglyceride made up of

A

3 fatty acids 1 glycerol

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34
Q

ATP

A

adenosine triphosphate

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35
Q

basal metabolic rate (BMR)

A

measure of energy required to maintain non-exercise bodily functions

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36
Q

1st step of glycolysis

A

glucose to glucose 6 phosphate by hexose kinase

1 atp to adp

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37
Q

2nd step glycolysis

A

glucose 6 phosphate to fructose 6 phosphate by phosphohexose isomerase

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38
Q

3rd step glycolysis

A

fructose 6 phosphate to fructose 1,6 bisphosphate by phosphofructokinase
1 atp to adp

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39
Q

4th step glycolysis (1)

A

fructose 1,6 bisphophate to dihydroxyacetone phosphate by triose phosphate isomerase

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40
Q

4th step glycolysis (2)

A

fructose 1, 6 bisphosphate to 3 phosphoglyceraldehyde x2 by fructose bisphosphate aldolase

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41
Q

5th step glycolysis

A

3 phosphoglyceraldehyde x2 to 1,3 bisphosphoglyceraldehyde x2 by glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
2NAD+ and 2Pi to 2NADH

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42
Q

6th step glycolysis

A

1,3 bisphosphoglyceraldehyde x2 to 3 phosphoglycerate x2 by phosphoglycerate kinase
2adp to 2atp

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43
Q

7th step glycolysis

A

3 phosphoglycerate x2 to 2 phosphoglycerate x2 by phosphoglycerate mutase

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44
Q

8th step glycolysis

A

2 phosphoglycerate x2 to phosphoenolpyruvate x2 by enolase

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45
Q

9th step glycolysis

A

phosphoenolpyruvate x2 to pyruvate x2 by pyruvate kinase

2adp tp 2atp

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46
Q

mneumonic for krebs cycle

A

can i keep selling socks for money officer

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47
Q

intermediated of krebs cycle

A 
citrate
isotrate
alphaKetoglutarate
succinyl coA
succinate
fumerate
malate
oxoalacetate
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48
Q

enzymes of krebs cycle

A 
aconitase
isocitrate dehydrogenase
alphaKetoglutarate dehydrogenase
succinyl coA synthetase
succinase dehydrogenase
fumarase
malate dehydrogenase
citrate synthetase
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49
Q

enzyme of krebs cycle mneumonic

A

can anthony drink down seven drinks ‘fore dying

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50
Q

oxidative phosphorylation takes place in

A

inner mitochondrial membrane

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51
Q

explain oxidative phosphorylation

A

H+ pumped into intermembrane space via proton pumps
form electrochemical gradient
electrons transferred to O2 (final electron acceptor)
O2 split to form water

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52
Q

1 NADH is equal to

A

3ATP

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53
Q

1 FADH is equal to

A

2ATP

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54
Q

total atp from 1 molecule of glucose is

A

34 - 38 ATP

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55
Q

examples of fatty acids

A

linoleic acid
oleic acid
palmitic acid
arachidonic acid

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56
Q

fatty acid (beta) oxidation definition

A

catabolic process by which fatty acids are broken down in mitochondria to produce acetyl coA which enters krebs

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57
Q

where does beta oxidation take place

A

mitochondrial matrix

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58
Q

carnitine shuttle

A

acyl coA too big to transport into mitochondria
carnitine acyltransferase 1 on outer mitochondrial membrane removes CoA and ads carnitine
becomes acyl carnitine - transported into matrix
in matric carnitine acyltransferase 2 removes carnitine adds coA
acyl coA is oxidised to form acetyl coA

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59
Q

each round of fatty acid beta oxidation produces

A

1NADH
1FADH2
1 Acetyl CoA

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60
Q

can fatty acids act as nervous system fuel source

A

no FA cannot get through BBB

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61
Q

where does the krebs cycle take place

A

mitochondrial matrix

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62
Q

beta oxidation is dependent on

A

oxygen
good blood supply
adequate mitochondria number

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63
Q

ketogenesis is caused by

A

during high rates of fatty acid oxidation too much acetyl CoA is produced
this overwhelms the Krebs cycle and so you get ketone body formation

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64
Q

3 ketone bodies

A

acetone
acetoacetate
B-hydroxybutyrate

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65
Q

where does ketogenesis occur

A

in hepatocytes in the liver

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66
Q

3 causes of disease

A

genetic
multifactorial
environmental

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67
Q

ketone bodies used as fuels

A
  • b-hydroxybutyrate oxidised to acetoacetate
  • acetoacetate activated to acetoacetyl coA
  • cleaved by thiolase enzyme to form acetyl coA
  • can enter krebs
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68
Q

karyotype definition

A

number and appearance of chromosomes in a cell

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69
Q

G1 phase

A

not visible
rapid growth
protein synthesis of spindle proteins

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70
Q

cell cycle phases

A

G1 S G2 M

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71
Q

S phase

A

DNA doubles
histone proteins double
centrosome replication
double the DNA by the end of phase

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72
Q

G2 phase

A

energy stores accumulate

mitochondria and centrioles double

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73
Q

what happens in prophase

A

chromatin condenses into chromosomes

centrosomes nucleate microtubules and move to opposite poles

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74
Q

what happens in prometaphase

A

nuclear membrane breaks down
chromatids attach to microtubules
cell no longer has nucleus

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75
Q

what happens in metaphase

A

chromosomes line up along equator

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76
Q

what happens in anaphase

A

sister chromatids separate and pushed to opposite poles as spindle fibres contract

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77
Q

what happens in telophase

A

nuclear membrane reform
chromosomes unfold into chromatin
cytokinesis begin

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78
Q

what happens in cytokinesis

A

cell organelle evenly distributed

cell divides into 2 daughter cells with nucleus and 46 chroms each

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79
Q

clinical significance of cytokinesis

A

downs syndrome occurs here

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80
Q

how is genetic diversity introduced in meiosis

A

metaphase 1 = random assortment

prophase 1 = crossing over

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81
Q

what is non-disjunction

A

failure of chromosome pairs to separate in meiosis 1 or sister chromatids to separate in meiosis 2

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82
Q

example of non disjunction disorders

A

downs syndrome = 1 extra

turners syndrome = only 1 X

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83
Q

what is gonadal mosaicism

A

when there are 2 different populations of cells in the gonads
one normal population one mutated
all gametes from the mutated line are effected

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84
Q

allele definition

A

one of several alternative forms of a gene at a specific locus

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85
Q

polymorphism

A

frequent hereditary variations at locus

not mutation = doesnt cause problems

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86
Q

autozygosity

A

homozygous by descent

= inheritance of same mutation from 2 branches of same family

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87
Q

penetrance definition

A

proportion of people with gene/genotype who show expected phenotype

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88
Q

what is lyonisation

A

process of X chromosome inactivation

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89
Q

what is knudson’s 2 hit hypothesis

A

genes can be inherited or acquired
sporadic cancer requires 2 acquired mutations
inherited cancer requires 1 acquired mutation
higher chance of inherited cancer

90
Q

what are peroxisomes

A

small membrane bound organelles containing enzymes which oxidase long-chain fatty acids

91
Q

lactose made up of

A

glucose and galactose

92
Q

sucrose made up of

A

glucose and fructose

93
Q

maltose made up of

A

glucose and glucose

94
Q

chiral centre is

A

carbon surrounded by 4 different groups

95
Q

purine bases

A

adenine

thymine

96
Q

pyrimidine bases

A

cytosine

guanine

97
Q

glutamic acid charge

A

negative

98
Q

primary structure of protein held together by

A

covalent bonds

99
Q

bonds in secondary protein structure

A

hydrogen bonds between amino acids

100
Q

bonds in tertiary protein structure

A

ionic bonds
disulphide bridges
van der Waal forces

101
Q

what is an isoenzyme

A

enzymes have different structure and sequence but catalyse same reactions

102
Q

what is sickle cell anaemia

A

genetic disorder characterised by hard sticky sickle-shaped RBC created by a mutation in Hb

103
Q

role of antibodies

A

bind to antigens on toxins or proteins

label for destruction by immune system

104
Q

what is the specificity of antibodies determined by

A

the variable region

105
Q

features of prokaryote

A

no nuclear membrane

dna arranged in single chromosome

106
Q

DNA in the mitochondria is

A

purely maternal

107
Q

DNA polymerase role

A

reads template strand from 3’ to 5’

thus DNA is synthesised on daughter strand from 5’ to 3’

108
Q

why is DNA synthesised from 5’ to 3’

A

because phosphate at 5’ is used for energy for reaction to occur

109
Q

topoisimerase role

A

unwinds double helix by relieving the supercoils

110
Q

DNA helicase role

A

separates DNA apart
breaks H bonds between bases
exposes nucleotides

111
Q

DNA polymerase role

A

reads 3’ to 5’ and synthesises DNA on daughter strand

starts at a primer

112
Q

single strand binding protein role

A

keeps 2 strands apart during synthesis to prevent annealing

113
Q

primase enzyme role

A

RNA polymerase that synthesises short RNA primers needed to start the strand replication process

114
Q

RNAse H role

A

removes RNA primers that began DNA strand synthesis

115
Q

how is DNA replication completed

A

ligase enzymes join together short DNA pieces = Okazaki fragments

116
Q

what are transcription factors

A

proteins which bind to promotor regions

117
Q

what is a promotor

A

specific sequence of nucleotides that act as binding sites at the 5’ end

118
Q

where does a transcription complex form

A

around the TATA box

119
Q

start codon

A

AUG

120
Q

stop codons

A

UGA, UAG, UAA

121
Q

where is mRNA made

A

the nucleus

122
Q

what is an exon

A

contain the coding sequence

123
Q

what is splicing

A

the removal of introns from pre-mRNA

124
Q

what is exon shuffling

A

exons can be joined together in different order following splicing
allows new proteins to be made

125
Q

degenerate but unambiguous definition

A

amino acids specified by more than one codon but each codon only specifies one amino acid

126
Q

factors that turn off gene expression

A

activation of repressors (inhibitors of RNA polymerase binding)
enzymes no longer activated
transcription and processing proteins no longer produced

127
Q

what is an out of frame deletion

A

base is lost within a codon so whole sequence shifts over and reading frame of gene is changed
catastrophic effects

128
Q

what is an in frame deletion

A

complete codon is removed

milder effects - late onset

129
Q

what is a mis-sense mutation

A

point mutation in which single nucleotide change results in a codon that codes for a different amino acid (substitution)
can result in silent mutation/non-functional protein

130
Q

what is a non-sense mutation

A

point mutation that produces a stop codon

results in an incomplete/non-functional protein

131
Q

example of a non-sense mutation disorder

A

duchennes muscular dystrophy

132
Q

what is a splice site mutation

A

affects the removal of an intron

133
Q

what is anticipation

A

when a disease will affect the future generation earlier and with greater severity than the past generation
e.g. huntingtons

134
Q

role of a positive feedback loop

A

amplification of a signal

135
Q

role of a negative feedback loop

A

inhibits a signal

136
Q

what is a hormone

A

molecule that acts as a chemical messenger

137
Q

peptide hormone properties

A

large
hydrophilic
bind to receptors on membranes
dissolved in blood when needed

138
Q

steroid hormone properties

A

hydrophobic, lipid soluble
require transport proteins in blood
binds to receptors in cell - directly affects DNA

139
Q

what is transcellular fluid composed of

A

CSF digestive juices mucus

140
Q

3 ways to intake fluid

A

drinking
diet
IV

141
Q

what are insensible losses

A

losses unaware of cannot be measured e.g. sweat, breath, vomiting, faeces

142
Q

hydrostatic pressure definition

A

pressure difference between plasma and interstitial fluid

143
Q

what happens when water is lost from ECF

A

ECF increase in osmolality
detected by osmoreceptors in hypothalamus
ADH released from post pituitary
increase water reabsorption from collecting duct

144
Q

what happens when decreased renal bloodflow

A

renin released from jgc in kidney
renin = angiotensinogen to angiotensin 1
angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2 by ACE
release of aldosterone from adrenal cortex

145
Q

what does aldosterone do

A

increase Na+ reabsorption in kidneys in exchange for K+/H+ excretion
brings water into ECF

146
Q

what is hyponatraemia

A

low sodium levels

consequences = intracellular overhydration

147
Q

what is serous effusion

A

excess water in a body cavity

148
Q

what is oedema

A

excess water in intercellular tissue space

149
Q

types of oedema (4)

A

inflammatory
venous
lymphatic
hypoalbuminaemic

150
Q

what is hypernatraemia

A

high sodium

consequences = intracellular dehydration

151
Q

what is hyperkalaemia

A

high postassium

consequences = risk of myocardial infarction

152
Q

what is hypokalaemia

A

low potassium = weakness and cardiac dysrhythmia

153
Q

what is hypercalcaemia

A

high calcium

consequences = metastatic calcification

154
Q

what is hypocalcaemia

A

low calcium

consequences = spasms

155
Q

3 types of endocytosis

A

phagocytosis
pinocytosis
receptor mediated

156
Q

3 types of cell receptors

A

ion channel
g protein coupled
enzyme linked

157
Q

how much energy per g of carbs

A

4kcal

158
Q

how much energy per g of protein

A

4kcal

159
Q

how much energy per g of alcohol

A

7kcal

160
Q

how much energy per g of lipid

A

9kcal

161
Q

BMR calculation

A

1kcal/kg body mass /hr

162
Q

factors increase BMR (5)

A 
high BMI 
hyperthyroidism
exercise
low ambient temp
fever/infection
163
Q

factors decrease BMR

A

age
female
starvation
hypothyroidism

164
Q

what is daily energy expenditure DEE

A

energy needed to support BMR, physical activity, digestive energy

165
Q

atp production at rest

A

30% carbs

70% lipids

166
Q

where does glycolysis take place

A

cytosol

167
Q

pyruvate to lactate in what conditions

A

in anaerobic conditions

168
Q

pyruvate to lactate equation

A

2 pyruvate + 2APD + 2Pi = 2 lactate + 2ATP + 2H2O

169
Q

why is glycolysis inhibited by acidosis?

A

phosphofructokinase-1 is pH dependent and is inhibited by acidic actions

170
Q

AMP affect on glycolysis

A

AMP is an allosteric activator

increases affinity of PFK-1 for fructose-6-phosphate

171
Q

ATP affect on glycolysis

A

ATP is an allosteric inhibitor
decreases affinity of PFK-1 to fructose-6-phosphate
high ATP levels = slow reaction

172
Q

before being oxidised, fatty acids must

A

be activated in the cytoplasm

173
Q

activation of fatty acid equation

A

fatty acid + ATP + CoA = Acyl-CoA + pyrophosphate + AMP

174
Q

when are fatty acids used as fuel

A

when hormones signal fasting or increased demand

175
Q

electron transport chain is formed from

A

cytochromes and other proteins

176
Q

role of ATP synthestase

A

forms a channel in the membrane to allow H to flow back into matrix via chemiosmosis

177
Q

where are ketone bodies synthesised

A

mitochondrial matrix

178
Q

what enzyme does the liver not have enough of and what are the consequences of this

A

succinyl CoA/acetoacetate CoA
cannot utilise ketone bodies as fuel
extrahepatic tissues have access to ketone bodies during prolonged starvation

179
Q

what is diabetic ketoacidosis

A

reduced glucose supply so more fatty acid oxidation
increased ketone body production exceeds ability of peripheral tissues to oxidise
ketone bodies strong acids so lower ph of blood

180
Q

what are the consequences of low blood pH

A

impairs ability of Hb to bind to O2

181
Q

what is a reactive oxygen species (ROS)

A

reactive molecules and free radicals derived from O2

182
Q

endogenous sources of ROS

A

NADPH and electron transport chain

183
Q

exogenous sources of ROS

A

UV radiation
tobacco
drugs

184
Q

fenton reaction

A

H2O2 + Fe2+ = Fe3+ + OH- + OH+

185
Q

harber-weiss reaction

A

O2radical- + H2O2 + H+ = O2 + H2O + OHradical

186
Q

what is respiratory burst

A

rapid release of oxygen species (superoxide radical/hydroxyl radical) from different types of cells during phagocytosis

187
Q

name 3 enzymes that protect against oxygen toxicity

A

superoxide dismutase
catalase
glutathione peroxidase

188
Q

name 3 antioxidant vitamins

A

vitamin E
vitamin C
carotenoids

189
Q

name 3 diseases associated with free radical injury

A

parkinsons
emphysema
diabetes

190
Q

2 other ways to protect against oxygen toxicity

A

cellular compartmentalisation

repair

191
Q

henderson hasselbalch equation

A

pH = pKa + log( [HCO3-] / [CO2] )

192
Q

buffer definition

A

solution which resists changes in pH when small quantities of strong acids or base are added

193
Q

normal pH range

A

7.35-7.45

194
Q

the most important buffer system in the body is

A

carbonic acid and bicarbonate

195
Q

3 systems for H+ concentration

A

blood/tissue buffering
excretion of CO2 by lungs
renal excretion of H+/regeneration of HCO3-

196
Q

bicarbonate buffer equation

A

CO2 + H2O = H2CO3 = HCO3- + H+

197
Q

3 biological buffers

A

protein
bicarbonate
haemoglobin

198
Q

how do protein buffers work

A

If pH falls H+ binds to the amino group of the protein

If the pH rises H+ can be released from the carboxyl group of the protein

199
Q

what occurs in the buffering of CO2

A

co2 from tissues diffuses into RBC
binds with Hb to form carbaminohaemoglobin
released at lungs and diffuses into alveoli
expired

200
Q

what happens to the PaCO2 in respiratory acidosis

A

PaCO2 increases leading to an increase in H+ ions and so pH decreases

CO2 production is greater than CO2 elimination

201
Q

causes of respiratory acidosis

A

inadequate ventilation due to airway obstruction - COPD/asthma

202
Q

causes of respiratory alkalosis

A

CO2 elimination is more than O2 reabsorption

hyperventilation in response to hypoxia

203
Q

3 causes of metabolic acidosis

A

renal failure
loss of HCO3- ions
excess H+ production

204
Q

2 causes of metabolic alkalosis

A

vomiting (excess H+ loss)

increased HCO3- reabsorption

205
Q

response in respiratory acid/alkalosis

A

rapid response limited effect

206
Q

response in metabolic acid/alkalosis

A

delayed response greater effect

207
Q

what is the anion gap

A

difference in serum concentration of cation and anions

208
Q

type 1 collagen example

A

bone skin and teeth

209
Q

type 2 collagen example

A

cartilage

210
Q

type 3 collagen example

A

arteries liver kidneys spleen unterus

211
Q

type 4 collagen example

A

basement membranes

212
Q

type 5 collagen example

A

placenta

213
Q

when does the trilaminar embryonic disc form

A

3rd week

214
Q

what layer of trilaminar disc form epiblast

A

ectoderm

215
Q

what cells does the epiblast give rise to

A

amnioblasts that line the amniotic cavity

216
Q

what cells does the hypoblast give rise to

A

cells that line the blastocyst cavity - become endodermal cells

217
Q

what is the chorion composed of

A

extra-embryonic mesoderm and 2 layers of trophoblast

218
Q

what are the 2 differentiated layers of trophoblast

A

cytotrophoblast

synctiotrophoblast

219
Q

ectoderm becomes

A

structures outside the body:
CNS, PNS
epidermis of skin/hair/nails
pituitary/mammary/sweat glands

220
Q

mesoderm becomes

A 
3 parts:
paraxial plate
intermediate plate
lateral plate
= bones/muscles/heart and circulatory system/int sex organs
221
Q

endoderm becomes

A

epithelial lining of GI/resp/urinary tracts

parencyma of thyroid/parathryoid/liver/pancreas

Phase 1 mine (12 decks)

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