Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Western Med > Illness script - week 6 > Flashcards

Illness script - week 6 Flashcards

1
Q

GIT disorders

31% _____ and 29% _____ are the most common causes to a GP for acute _____ pain

A

GIT disorders

31% appendicitis and 29% colics are the most common causes to a GP for acute abdomen pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

GIT disorders

hospital presentations most commonly for abdomen pain are _____ (34%), _____ (34%), and _____ (10%)

A

GIT disorders

Hospital presentations most commonly for abdomen pain are non-specific (34%), appendicitis (34%), and cholecystitis (10%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Probability diagnosis of GIT

1) acute _____ and _____
2) _____
3) _____ _____ _____
4) _____ and _____ colic

A

Probability diagnosis of GIT

1) Acute gastroenteritis and appendicitis
2) Dysmenorrhoea
3) Irritable bowel syndrome
4) Biliary and renal colic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Pitfalls of abdominal pain

1) acute _____
2) _____ _____
3) _____ causes
4) _____
5) _____ _____
6) _____ _____

A

pitfalls of abdominal pain

1) acute appendicitis
2) myofascial tear
3) pulmonary causes
4) pneumonia
5) pulmonary embolism
6) faecal impaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

abdominal diagnostic testing

1) Blood: _____, _____ _____ _____ (ERS), _____ _____ (CRP)
2) Stools: _____ blood, _____ _____ and _____
3) ______
4) Radiology: _____ scan, _____, _____
5) Endoscopy: _____, _____ with _____

A

abdominal diagnostic testing

1) Blood: haemoglobin, Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ERS), C-reactive protein (CRP)
2) Stools: occult blood, microscopic analysis and culture
3) Urine
4) Radiology: CT scan, MRI, Ultrasound
5) Endoscopy: colonoscopy, gastroscopy with biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

endoscopy diagnostic

Sigmodoidoscopy: helps exlude local _____, searching for abnormalities in _____, _____ and _____; __% usually occurs in the first __cm of the bowel

A

endoscopy diagnostic

Sigmoidoscopy: helps exclude local disease, searching for abnormalities in blood mucus and neoplasia; 60% usually occurs in the first 60 cm of the bowel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Appendicitis

The rodimentary part of the colon, it’s role in immunity becomes inflamed and is in risk of perforating leading to peritonitis

A

appendicitis

The _____ part of the colon, it’s role in immunity becomes inflamed and is in risk of perforating leading to _____

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Appendicitis

life-time risk is 1 in __ for people in america, 1/__ of appendicitis presents to hospital with a _____ _____

A

appendicitis

life-time risk is 1 in 15 for people in america, 1/3 of appendicitis presents to hospital with a perforated appendix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Signs and symptoms of appendicitis

1) general _____ pain that is localised to the _____ _____ _____
2) _____
3) _____ and _____

A

signs and symptoms of appendicitis

1) general abdominal pain that is localised to the right iliac fossa
2) anorexia
3) Diarrhea and constipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Diagnosing appendicitis

1) _____ _____ _____
2) _____ (last resort)
3) _____ or _____ scan

A

diagnosing appendicitis

1) Full blood count
2) Laporoscopy (last resort)
3) Ultrasound or CT scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Treatment of appendicitis

1) Antibiotics: if it is _____ _____
2) _____ and antibiotics: if _____

A

treatment of appendicitis

1) Antibiotics: if it is low grade
2) Surgery and antibiotics: if perforated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Colic

Presents as rhythmical patterns of _____ ______

Biliary colic has smaller variations in ______

Ureteric colic and intestinal colic are more during _____ of _____

A

colic

Presents as rhythmical patterns of painful contractions

Biliary colic has smaller variations in wavelength

Ureteric colic and intestinal colic are more during periods of rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Colic

Intensely painful: can be faked for _____ seeking behaviour

_____ on palpations

_____ or _____ scans used to find any obstructions

A

colic

Intensely painful: can be faked for opioid seeking behaviour

Tender on palpations

Ultrasound or CT scans used to find any obstructions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Cholelithiasis

_____ are hard, _____-like structures that obstructs the _____ _____

_____ are formed by presence of _____ _____ which is a mix of _____, ______ deposits and _____ crystals in the galbladder or biliary ducts

A

cholelithiasis

Gallstones are hard, pebble-like structures that obstructs the cystic duct

Gallstones are formed by presence of biliary sludge which is a mix of glycoproteins, calcium deposits and cholesterol crystals in the gallbladder or biliary ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Cholelithiasis

More common in adults __-__% between __-__ years old

Ages <40 Males to females __:__
Over >40 Males to females __:__

Relationship between _____ and high diet of _____ _____

A

cholelithiasis

More common in adults 10-15% between 18-65 years old

Ages <40 Male to females 1:3
Over >40 Males to females 1:1

Relationship between disease and high diet of refined sugar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

cholecystitis

almost always associated with obstruction of gallbladder or cystic duct by a gall stone, the obstruction may be from mucus, parasitic worm or bile tumour

the initial inflammation is _____ induced and leads to _____ damage which releases _____ and _____

A

cholecystitis

almost always associated with obstruction of gallballder or cystic duct by a gallstone, the obstruction may be from mucus, parasitic worm or bile tumour

the initial inflammation is chemically induced and leads to mucosal damage which releases phosphollipase and lysolecithia

17
Q

Dsypepsia

_____ _____ _____ most common cause

__% of population experienced at some point, but not all are caused by _____ _____

__% develops into _____ _____ _____, __ - __% of chronic _____ users have peptic ulceration

A

Dsypepsia

Gastoesophagal reflux disease most common cause

80% of population experienced at some point, but not all are caused by hiatal hernia

10% Develops into peptic ulcer disease, 10-20% of chronic NSAIDs users have peptic ulceration

18
Q

Gastroesophageal reflux disease

when _____ _____ is exposed to gastric contents for prolonged periods

factors such as delayed _____, increased _____-_____ pressure or abnormal lower _____ _____ function can lead to GORD

A

gastroesophagel reflux disease

when oesophageal mucus is exposed to gastric contents for prolonged periods

factors such as delayed emptying, increased intra-abdominal pressure or abnormal lower esophageal sphincter function can lead to GORD

19
Q

GORD

Can develop into _____ oesophagus a pre-malignant lesion that can lead to _____ _____

A

GORD

Can develop Barret oesophagus a pre-malignant lesion that can lead to oesophageal adenocarcinoma

20
Q

Treating GORD

1) _____: for rapid relief but is ineffective for long term treatment
2) _____-_____ _____ (PPI): 4 weeks
3) _____-_____ _____: 8 weeks

A

Treating GORD

1) Antacids: for rapid relief but is ineffective for long term treatment
2) Proton-pump inhibitior (PPI): 4 weeks
3) H2-receptor antagonists: 8 weeks

21
Q

Peptic ulcer

Strong associated with _____; _____ like to borrow in _____ which stimulates the chronic _____ by stimulating local inflammatory repsonse

A

peptic ulcer

Strongly associated with H.pylori; H.pylori like to borrow in mucosa which stimulates the chronic gastritis by stimulating local inflammatory response

22
Q

Peptic ulcer

_____ can impair muscosal defence which inhibits the _____ and __ (_____, _____); they are _____ that protect the function of gut _____

__% of the population is affected

A

peptic ulcer

NSAIDs can impair mucosal defence which inhibitis the COX1 and 2 (voltaren, ibuprofen); they are enzymes that protect the function of gut mucosa

2% of the population is affected

23
Q

Treating peptic ulcer

1) _____ _____ with heater probe and low _____ injection
2) IV _____/_____ or _____
3) _____ is also an option

A

treating peptic ulcer

1) endoscopic haemostasis with heater probe and low adrenaline injection
2) IV omeprazole/esomeprazole or pantroprazole
3) Surgery is also an option

24
Q

Histamine H2 receptor antagonists

_____, _____ and _____: these medications are less likely to affect _____ of other medications; they can be administered without food and patients are advised to avoid _____ _____ and _____

A

Histamine H2 receptor antagonists

Ranitidine, nizatidine and feimotidine: these medications are less likely to affect metabolism of other medications; they can be administered without food and patients are advised to avoid spicy foods and caffeine

25
Q

Proton-pump inhibitor (PPI)

Inhibits _____ _____ _____, it is more potent than _____ _____ _____ and managing conditions associated with _____

_____ is the most common medication

A

Proton-pump inhibitor (PPI)

Inhibits gastric acid secretion, it is more potent than H2 receptor antagonist and managing conditions associated with hyperacidity

Omeprazole is the most common medication

26
Q

Recurrent abdominal pain

3 distinct _____ over __ months, occurs in __% of school children

__-__% are diagnosed by organic causes, the other are psychological and emotional

A

recurrent abdominal pain

3 distinct episodes over 3 months, occurs in 10% of school children

5-10% are diagnosed by organic causes, the other are psychological and emotional

27
Q

Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)

abnormal host response to an _____ trigger, causes the gut _____ and release of inflammatory mediators that cause _____ _____

A

Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)

abnormal host response to an environment trigger, causes the gut inflammation and release of inflammatory mediators that cause tissue damage

28
Q

IBD

Ulcerative colitis: __/100,000
Chrohn’s disease: __/100,000

A

IBD

Ulcerative colitis: 9.8/100,000
Chrohn’s disease: 6.3/100,000

29
Q

Chrohn’s disease

More common in terminal _____ and right side of _____; the entire walls thicken and deep _____ create linear _____

This may ulcerate and form fistulas with _____, _____ and bowel

A

Chrohn’s disease

More common in terminal ileum and right side of colon; the entire walls thicken and deep ulcers create linear fissures

This may ulcerate and form fistulas with bladder, uterus and bowel

30
Q

Ulcerative colitis (UC)

involves _____ and _____ colon or even _____ colon; inflammation is confluent and affects the _____

A

ulcerative colitis (UC)

involves rectum and signoid colon or even whole colon; inflammation is confluent and affects the mucosa

31
Q

Treating IBD

1) _____, _____, _____ for treating UC
2) _____: for acute flares
3) _____ drugs for severe attacks: _____, _____
4) _____ agents: _____

A

treating IBD

1) Sulfasalazine, olsalazine, mesalazine for treating UC
2) Corticosteroid: for acute flares
3) Immunomodifying drugs for severe attacks: azathiopine, cyclosponn
4) Biological agents: infliximab

32
Q

Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)

__-__% worldwide: most common functional GI disorder caused by _____ and _____ (__% triggered by food)

_____-_____ breath test

A

Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)

7-21% worldwide: most common functional GI disorder caused by malabsorption and FODMAPs (90% triggered by food)

Hydro-methane breath test

33
Q

Treating IBS

1) Regular _____ pattern
2) No _____, _____, _____ and _____
3) High _____, low _____ and a lot of _____
4) Avoid _____

A

treating IBS

1) Regular eating pattern
2) No smoking, alcohol, laxatives and codeine
3) High fibre, low carbs and a lot of water
4) Avoid FODMAPs

34
Q

Diverticulitis

long-life and _____ deficient diet; small stools require higher _____-_____ pressure resulting in herniation of the _____

A

diverticulitis

long-life and fibre deficient diet; small stools require higher intra-colic pressure resulting in herniation of the mucosa

35
Q

diverticulitis

<40 years old: __%
>80 years old: __%
~__% of patients have at least 1 _____

A

diverticulitis

<40 years old: 10%
>80 years old: 70%
~20% of patients have at least 1 recurrence

36
Q

Colon cancer

Common GIT _____, second most common cause of _____ in western society; Males >50 years old (__%)

Mortability rate is __%, _____ prognosis if diagnosed early

A

colon cancer

Common GIT malignancy, second most common cause of death in western society; Males >50 years old (90%)

Mortality rate is 60%, good prognosis if diagnosed early

37
Q

Duke stages

~__ year survival
A-cancer: limited to _____ and _____ __%
B-cancer: extends into _____ or _____ __%
C-cancer: involves regional _____ _____ __%
D-distant _____ 7%

A

Duke stages

~5 year survival
A-cancer: limited to mucosa and submucosa 88%
B-cancer: extends into muscularis or terosa 70%
C-cancer: involves regional lymph nodes 43%
D-distant mestastses 7%

38
Q

diagnosing colon cancer

1) _____ _____ _____ _____ (FOBT): if results are positive, _____ or _____
2) _____ scan
3) _____ every __ years after 50 years old

A

diagnosing colon cancer

1) Full occult blood test (FOBT): if results are positive, colonscopy or sigmoidoscopy
2) PET scan
3) FOBT every 2 years after 50 years old

Western Med (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions