*ILA* Flashcards

1
Q

what is the structure of an artery (3)

A

inner intima
media
outer adventitia

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2
Q

what are modifiable risk factors for atherosclerosis (6)

A

smoking, sedentary lifestyle, weight, hypertension, high cholesterol, diabetes

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3
Q

what are non-modifiable risk factors for atherosclerosis (3)

A

age (more fatty streaks), family history, male gender (earlier fatty streak formation)

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4
Q

what are examples of primary prevention (4) regarding atherosclerosis

A

stop smoking, exercise, diet, decrease alcohol intake

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5
Q

what is secondary prevention and what is its aim

A

detecting during early disease development and aims to intervene before development of disease

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6
Q

examples of secondary intervention for aatherosclerosis and what does each of them do (3)

A

aspirin (inhibits platelelt aggregation)
atorvastatin (reduces cholesterol levels)
atenolol (controls hypertension)

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7
Q

what are the 2 tertiary preventative measures for atherosclerosis (surgical)

A

PCI- stents
CABG

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8
Q

define a co-benefit of health and climate change

A

extra non-direct benefits from controlling climate change on health

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9
Q

what are the 4 steps of atherosclerosis formation

A
  1. endothelial lining damage
  2. formation of fatty streaks in intima
  3. inflammatory response where leukocytes attach the endothelial lining
  4. platelet and plaque formation with a fibrous smooth muscle cap
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10
Q

what can cause endothelial lining damage (2)

A

smoking, T2DM

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11
Q

how can T2DM cause endothelial damage

A

poorly controlled diabetes mellitus can cause oxidative stress on vascular system= endothelial damage

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12
Q

explain what happens at the fatty streak formation in atherosclerosis formation

A

low density lipoproteins enter the endothelium and r phagocytosed by macrophages and become foam cells

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13
Q

what stage of atherosclerosis is reversible

A

fatty streak formation

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14
Q

explain what happens when leukocytes attack the endothelial lining in atherosclerosis formation

A

foam cells recruit other inflammatory cells eg neutrophils, macrophages, lymphocytes

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15
Q

where is the fibrous cap located in atherosclerosis

A

the fibrous cap cover the internal lumen side of the plaque

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16
Q

what is a stable atherosclerotic plaque

A

non-ruptured

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17
Q

what can atherosclerotic plaque rupture cause (3)

A

ischaemia, cerebrovascular thrombus and peripheral vascular disease

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18
Q

what is anaphylaxis

A

Gell and Coombs IgE mediated hypersensitivity to an otherwise normal allergen

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19
Q

what can trigger anaphylaxis 6

A

pollen, pets, dust, nuts, drugs (penicillins), contrast media
2 P, 2 D, C, N

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20
Q

what r the risk factors of anaphylaxis 2

A

family history, atopic triad (asthma, allergic rhinitis, eczema)

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21
Q

what are the two stages of anaphylaxis

A

sensitisation then secondary exposure

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22
Q

what happens during the sensitisation stage of anaphylaxis (3)

A
  1. 1st exposure to trigger
  2. IgE forms against the antigen and binds via Fc to mast cell
  3. this primes the antibodies in the body
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23
Q

what happens in the secondary exposure stage of anaphylaxis

A

allergen binds to FAb region of IgE and this results in mast cell degranulation, releasing leukotrienes, tryptases and histamine

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24
Q

explain why bronchospasm occurs in anaphylaxis

A

due to smooth muscle spasm

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25
what are the clinical signs of anaphylaxis (4)
bronchoconstriction, hypotension, tachycardia, central cyanosis
26
what can anaphylactic shock be classed as
a medical emergency
27
what is a sign of anaphylaxis exposure to an allergen (1)
deterioration after antigen exposure
28
what is the step by step treatment of anaphylaxis (2)
ABCDE IM adrenaline 500mcg
29
why is a second dose of adrenaline sometimes needed in anaphylaxis
adrenaline has a short half life so it may not have been effective as its concentration reduced too rapidly
30
what test can confirm anaphylaxis and what does it read?
serum mast cell tryptase= specific reading for mast cell degranulation
31
what is prevelance
number of cases at a given point in time
32
what is incidence
number of new cases in a given time frame
33
what two things will make an anaesthetic more effective
high protein binding highly lipid soluble
34
why are anaesthetics high protein binding
binds to receptors so it has a longer effect
35
why are anaesthetics highly lipid soluble
increases potency and can cross BBB early (2)
36
why are two anaesthesias given to a patient for surgery
IV anaesthesia is given first to sedate patient (short half life) then followed by volatile anaesthesia to keep patient knocked out (longer half life)
37
what happens to EC50 for competitive and non-competitive antagonists
comp= EC50 stays the same just a higher concentration is needed non-c= EC50 is decreased
38
what is first pass metabolism/ first pass effect and give an example with its bioavailability after first pass metabolism
where a drug is metabolised which reduces the amount of active drug before it reaches the systemic circulation eg morphine undergoes phase 1 and phase 2 detoxification by the liver thats why bioavailability reduced to 50%
39
what form is morphine excreted as and what is significant about this
morphine-6-glucuronide it's toxic to the body
40
how is morphine prescribed in a patient with renal impairment
decreased morphine dose
41
what r the names of factor 2 and 2a
2= prothrombin 2a= thrombin
42
what r the names of factor 1 and 1a
1= fibrinogen 1a= fibrin
43
when does the extrinsic pathway for the coagulation cascade occur and how
endothelial tissue injury exposed tissue factor in blood (factor 3)
44
how is the intrinsic pathway activated
activated by vascular endothelium damage
45
what is unique about the intrinsic pathway for coagulation cascade and why is this useful
has a + feedback loop which allows the fibrin plus to form quickly in the blood
46
what is the blood test 1st line for DVT and GS/ diagnostic
positive D-Dimer test duplex doppler US
47
what is d-dimer and what does it mean if there is a high d dimer value
product released when fibrin from a 2nd platelet plug is fibrinolysed If there r higher levels than normal of this product, it means there r higher levels of clot formation and degradation.
48
how does heparin work
binds unselectively to antithrombin 3 which activates this and this inactivates certain factors in the coagulation cascade
49
what factors does heparin work on
2 and 10
50
state the half life and how fast heparin acts (general)
short half life acts rapidly
51
how does warfarin act and what factors does it work on and what effect does this have
vitamin K antagonist prevents factors 2, 7, 9 and 10 being synthesised which prolongs prothrombin action
52
state the half life and how fast warfarin acts (general)
longer half life slower onset
53
what is INR
prothrombin time (measure time taken for a clot to form from a blood sample
54
what does a high INR mean and what risk does this increase
blood takes too long to clot= increased risk of bleeding
55
what r signs of a PE (6)
sudden onset chest pain syncope tachycardia ankle odema dyspnoea hemoptysis
56
advice to reduce DVT on long haul flights (3)
compression stockings stay hydrated exercise legs regularly
57
what is the term for transient visual disturbances and what causes this
amaurosis fugax mostly caused by carotid artery stenosis
58
compare rhythms of atrial fibrillation and flutter
fibrillation is irregularly irregular flutter is regularly irregular
59
what is cushings reflex
body's response to raised intercranial pressure
60
what is the triad of presentation for cushings reflex
triad: hypertension bradycardia irregular respirations
61
explain the pathophysiology of the cushings reflex 4
1. high intra-cranial pressure due to inflammation in the brain 2. this leads to poor cerebral perfusion and ischaemia of the brain 3. blood pressure increases due to arterial smooth muscle vasoconstriction to re-perfuse the brain 4. baroreceptors in the aorta detect the increase in blood pressure and initiate bradycardia to counteract the high blood pressure
62
what causes raised intracranial pressure 3
ischaemic and haemorrhagic stroke, hypertension
63
what are the two main physiological mechanisms of damage for AKI
reduction in GFR damage to glomeruli
64
why are NSAIDs contraindicated for renal failure patients (what do they specifically do in their mechanism of action)
inhibits cox 1 and 2 which decreases prostaglandin secretion this decreases prostaglandin mediated vasodilation this decreases GFR= renal damage
65
what is given with insulin to prevent hypoglycaemia
dextrose
66
what are the complications of AKI 3
pulmonary/ peripheral oedema hyperkalaemia uremic pericarditis
67
what is amaurosis fugax and what causes this 2
temporary/ transient visual disturbance loss of blood supply due to cartoid artery stenosis