Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

2A content- Sameera > **GP** > Flashcards

**GP** Flashcards

1
Q

what is polypharmacy

A

use of multiple medications (usually 5+)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is concordance

A

patients and healthcare workers work together to effectively plan treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are reasons for low concordance (3)

A

forgetfulness/ age, no understanding of meds, med accessibility (cost)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is green prescribing

A

health professionals direct patients to nature-based activities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is blue prescribing

A

health professionals direct patients to wetland-based activities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

why might green and blue prescribing not be important to patients (2)

A

may have social anxiety, may not understand why they need it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

when is the postnatal mother and new born check done?

A

6-8 weeks after birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is done in a baby’s 6-8 week physical exam 4

A

look at eyes, heart, hips and whether the males testicles have descended

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what can assess for post-natal depression in new mothers

A

patient healthcare questionnaire 9 (PHQ9)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

why is a weight check done for in a postnatal check

A

there is a risk of developing obesity if the weight is retained

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what three things are discussed for the future in a postnatal mothers gp appt

A

scheduling cervical screening
discuss contraception
weight check

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is checked/ asked about in a postnatal mother check

A
  1. period/ vaginal discharge
  2. issues with waste secretion or sex
  3. check stitches if present
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what 4 things happen during the newborn check at birth

A

Apgar score check
physical exam
heel prick
hearing screening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what does the apgar score check cover? (5)

A

skin color, heart rate, reflexes, muscle tone, breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

when is the heel prick done and what does it test for

A

5-8 days
cystic fibrosis
congenital hyperthyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

when is the newborn physical exam done

A

72 hours then at 6-8 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what do growth charts measure and what should cause concern

A

track baby’s length/ height and weight
concerns when plots do not remain within a similar centile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what does the ASQ questionnaire look at (5) and when is this done (2)

A

9 months and 2 years
monitors diet, activity, movement, speech and sleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is included in the 6 in 1 vaccination

A

diptheria, tetanus, pertussis (whooping cough), polio, Hib disease, Heb B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

when is the 6 in 1 vaccination given (3)

A

8 weeks
12 weeks
16 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are the three categories of signs of depression

A

psychological, physical, social

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

psychological signs of depression (5)

A

low self esteem, no motivation, feeling hopeless, anxious, thoughts of harming

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

physical signs of depression (4)

A

reduced sleep, unexplained aches, lack of energy, slower movements/ speech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

social signs of depression (2)

A

neglecting interest, avoiding socialising with friends

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what two assessments/ questionnaires can be done for depression

A

becks depression index
patient health questionnaire 9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what does SSRI stand for and explain how it works

A

selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor
blocks reuptake of serotonin into neurone which causes more serotonin to be available as a neurotransmitter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what does SNRI stand for and explain how it works

A

serotonin-noradrenaline re-uptake inhibitors
block reuptake of serotonin and noradrenaline back into presynaptic cells which causes more serotonin and noradrenaline to be available as a neurotransmitter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what does TCA stand for and explain how it works

A

tricyclic antidepressants
block reuptake of serotonin and noradrenaline back into presynaptic cells which causes more serotonin and noradrenaline to be available as a neurotransmitter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

give an example of SSRI

A

citalopram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

give an example of SNRI

A

duloxetine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

given an example of a TCA

A

amytriptyline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

where are SGLT2 inhibtors, DPP4 inhibtors, sulfonylurea and metformin metabolised and excreted

A

all metabolised in liver except for metformin which is metabolised in the kidney
all are excreted in the urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what are the risk factors for atrial fibrillation (5)

A

age, hypertension, alcohol, obesity, family history

34
Q

causes of atrial fibrillation (5)

A

SMITH
sepsis
mitral valve stenosis or rgurgitation
ischaemic heart disease
thyrotoxicosis
hypertension

35
Q

what are the two tests for atrial fibrillation

A

ECG= gold standard
blood tests

36
Q

explain what is the purpose of blood tests for atrial fibrillation

A

detect non-cardiac factors eg anaemia or renal impairment

37
Q

what are the two main asssessments to determine atrial fibrillation treatment

A

CHA2DS2-VAsc and ORBIT score

38
Q

what is CHA2DS2-VAsc and what does it indicate

A

uses a 0-9 point system to identify the risk of stroke in AF patients eg hypertension, previous stroke
anything over 2 is considered high risk and requires an anticoagulant

39
Q

what is the ORBIT score and what does it indicate

A

products the bleeding risk of patients on anticoagulants for AF
uses a 0-7 point system to identify the risk of stroke in AF patients eg bleeding history, haemoglobin levels etc
anything from 4-7 is high risk

40
Q

what is the treatment if there is a high risk CHA2DS2-VAsc and high risk ORBIT score

A

no anticoagulant prescribed as risk of bleeding

41
Q

two methods to calculate rate from an ECG and what types of rhythms can they be used for

A
  1. box method- for regular and irregular rhythms
    300 divided by the number of boxes between two consecutive R waves
  2. R wave method- for regular rhythms only
    count the number of QRS complexes in a 6 second strip (30 large boxes) and x 10
42
Q

what 4 things should be noted to see if there is regular rhythm in an ECG

A

-> is the R-R rhythm is consistent or not: defines if it is regular or irregular
-> is the QRS complex normal (0.12 seconds- 3 small boxes), wide or narrow
-> r there sinus P waves? positive P waves deflection in Lead II, negative in aVR and all P waves followed by a QRS complex
-> is the P-R interval 0.12-0.2 seconds (3-5 small squares) and is the case for all P-R intervals

43
Q

what does each part of the PQRST wave represent in an ECG

A

P wave= atrial depolorisation
PR interval= contraction of atria and conduction from SAN to AVN
Q= depolarisation of inter ventricular septum
R= depolorisation of most of the ventricles
S= depolorisation of the base of the ventricles
QRS complex= ventricle depolarisation and atrial depolarisation
ST interval= ventricular contraction
T wave= ventricular depolarisation

44
Q

what are the ecg changes for atrial fibrillation (3)

A

-> irregularly irregular pulse
-> narrow QRS (less than 0.12s)
-> no p waves, instead there r fibrillatory waves

45
Q

what are the ecg changes for atrial flutter (2)

A

-> f wave ‘saw tooth’ pattern
-> often with a 2:1 block (2 p waves for every QRS complex)

46
Q

what are the ecg changes for 1st degree heart block (2)

A

PR interval prolongation (200ms +)
every P followed by QRS

47
Q

what is the ecg change for 2nd degree heart block Mobitx type I

A

PR prolongation until a QRS is dropped (PR progressively elongates)

48
Q

what are the ecg changes for 2nd degree heart block Mobitx type II

A

PR interval is consistently prolonged (not progressive) with random dropped QRS

49
Q

what are the ecg changes for 3rd degree/ complete heart block (2)

A

AV dissociation (complete heart block so atria and ventricles beat independantly of each other
p waves never related to the QRS complex

50
Q

what class of drug is mesalazine and when is it prescribed

A

aminosalicylate
IBS

51
Q

mechanism of action of mesalazine

A

decreases prostaglandin synthesis to decrease the inflammatory response

52
Q

what is the medication given for flare ups of IBS and what class is each

A

mebeverine- antispasmodic
loperamide- antidiarrhoeal

53
Q

what is a stoma and the two types

A

opening on abdomen that can be connected to the digestive or urinary system to allow urine or faeces to be diverted out of the body.
can be permanent or temporary

54
Q

name two aspects of stoma care

A

change regularly, clean skin with warm water before changing

55
Q

what are the consequences of stomas 2

A

social anxiety
body consciousness

56
Q

what are the three otomy types and explain where each’s opening is

A

colosctomy- opening in colon
ileostomy- opening in ileum
urostomy- opening in ureters

57
Q

what are nephrogenic drugs 6

A

NSAIDs
ACE inhibitors
ARBs
gentamicin
rifampicin
diuretics
iodine based contrast media if used within past week
GAINAR

58
Q

how are NSAIDs, ACEi and ARBs nephrotoxic

A

decrease GFR by causing vasoconstriction of afferent and vasodilation of efferent arterioles

59
Q

how is gentamicin nephrotixic

A

toxic to epithelial cells in proximal convoluted tubule

60
Q

how is NSAIDs and rifampicin nephrotoxic

A

cause inflammation of interstitium of kidney

61
Q

when is renal replacement therapy given

A

when patients are non responsive to medication

62
Q

what things to consider when women are taking contraceptives 2

A

will be able to take everyday
comfort when inserting devices

63
Q

what do doctors consider when recommending contraceptives

A

medical history (eg clots)
does she want future kids

64
Q

2 pros 3 cons of renal transplant

A

+better survival rate +better quality of life.
-lifelong immunosuppressants
-risk of rejection
-long waiting list

65
Q

what is haemodialysis 1 pro and 1 con

A

Dialysis machine uses counter current flow with blood and dialysate (diffusion dependant )
+dialysis free days
-diet and fluid restriction

66
Q

what is peritoneal dialysis, 1 pro 1 con

A

Dialysate is pumped into peritoneal cavity and left for several hours then is removed
+at home
-risk of peritonitis

67
Q

what is haemofiltration and 1 pro and 1 con

A

Dialysis machine uses a counter current flow with blood and dialysate and removes solute from body, replacing it with clean fluid (convection dependant). +better control of hypertension and fluid levels
-expensive replacement fluid

68
Q

what are the lifestyle changes that can be done for BPH 2
how can urinary flow be maintained in large BPHs 1

A

lifestyle changes: reduce alcohol and caffeine, reduce water intake before bed
catheters to maintain urinary flow

69
Q

investigation for PBH and what is PSA produced by

A

PSA test- (prostate specific test)
protein produced by normal and cancerous prostate cells

70
Q

conditions for a PSA test

A

requires no heavy exercise or ejaculation in past 24 hours and no prostate biopsy within past 6 weeks

71
Q

when is PSA raised/ lowered (3,1)

A

raised with:
1. exercise
2. age
3. larger prostate
lowered with:
1. obesity

72
Q

what is the specificity of PSA testing and give an example

A

not specific enough to be used in a screening programme to diagnose early prostatic cancer (3/4 men with raised PSA won’t have cancer and 1/7 with normal psa have prostate cancer

73
Q

risk factors for prostate cancer 3

A

black, family history, age

74
Q

What group of drugs do all epilepsy treatment drugs belong to

A

anti epileptic

75
Q

are AEDs okay with 1. contraception and 2. pregnancy

A
  1. affects how effective implants/ the pill are so natural barrier contraception is recommended
  2. higher risk of baby born with birth defect
76
Q

triggers for epilepsy 4

A

non adherence with medication
stress
alcohol
flashing lights

77
Q

mechanism of action of sodium valproate

A

GABA agonist

78
Q

mechanism of action of carbamazepine

A

blocks sodium gated channels which inhibits release of glutamate

79
Q

side effect of sodium valproate and carbamazepine 2

A

GI distress
dry mouth

80
Q

diagnosis for epilepsy

A

2 or more unprovoked seizures occurring less than 24 hours apart

2A content- Sameera (21 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions