IID 10: Introduction to the ID Patient Flashcards

1
Q

What is the innate immune response?

A

limits pathogen spread and activates adaptive immune response for a more targeted defense

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2
Q

What does activation of the adaptive immune response by the innate immune system involve? (3)

A
  • phagocytosis
  • antigen processing/presenting
  • activation of adaptive immune response
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3
Q

What is antigen processing/presenting?

A

after the invading pathogen is broken down via phagocytosis, its antigens are processed and presented to the adaptive immune response to trigger further action

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4
Q

What are the key components of the innate immune response? (4)

A
  • natural killer (NK) cells
  • white blood cells
  • cytokines
  • complement proteins
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5
Q

What do natural killer cells do?

A

key role in identifying and eliminating infected or abnormal cells in the body

  • target infected and tumour cells for self-destruction
  • secrete interferon to block viral replication
  • activate other immune cells
  • recognize infected cells broadly rather than specific pathogens
  • release perforin and granzymes, which cause lysis of the target cell
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6
Q

What do white blood cells do?

A

help to identify and destroy pathogens

  • key to innate and adaptive immunity
  • protect against infections by acting in connective tissues
  • produced in bone marrow, then released via cytokines to target infection sites
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7
Q

What are the low, normal, and high values for white blood cells?

A

normal value: 4,000 – 11,000/mm3

  • low value (< 4,000/mm3) – leukopenia
  • high value (>11,000/mm3) – leukocytosis
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8
Q

What are the 2 types of white blood cells?

A
  • granulocytes
  • agranulocytes
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9
Q

What are granulocytes?

A

contain membrane-bound granules

  • neutrophils
  • eosinophils
  • basophils
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10
Q

What are agranulocytes?

A

lack membrane-bound granules

  • lymphocytes (B cells and T cells)
  • monocytes
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11
Q

What is the order of white blood cell types from most to least abundant

A

Never Let Monkeys Eat Bananas

  • neutrophils
  • lymphocytes
  • monocytes
  • eosinophils
  • basophils
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12
Q

What do neutrophils do?

A

phagocytize and destroy bacteria

  • ‘band cells’ or ‘left shift’ = presence of immature neutrophils
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13
Q

What do B lymphocytes do?

A

secrete antibodies that bind to and mark pathogens for destruction

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14
Q

What do T lymphocytes do?

A

direct destruction of virus infected and mutated cells

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15
Q

What do monocytes do?

A

transform into macrophages (phagocytic cells)

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16
Q

What do eosinophils do?

A

role in body’s immune response to parasitic infections and allergic reactions

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17
Q

What do basophils do?

A

role in inflammation and mediation of allergic reactions

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18
Q

What do cytokines do?

A

signaling proteins that help regulate and direct immune responses during the innate immune process

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19
Q

List some cytokines. (4)

A
  • histamine
  • bradykinin
  • acute-phase proteins
  • interleukins
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20
Q

What does histamine do?

A

triggers local vasodilation, increasing blood flow and enabling faster white blood cell migration to infected tissues, promoting a quicker immune response

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21
Q

What does bradykinin do?

A
  • promotes vasodilation
  • activates pain receptors
  • works with histamine to direct immune cells to infection sites while alerting the body through pain
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22
Q

What do acute-phase proteins do?

A
  • quickly respond to injury or infection by activating complement and tagging pathogens for destruction
  • ie. C-reactive protein (CRP) – levels can be measured in blood tests to monitor infection responses
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23
Q

What are interleukins?

A

chemical messengers that coordinate leukocyte activity, activating and enhancing immune responses to infections

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24
Q

What do complement proteins do?

A

work alongside the immune cells to help destroy pathogens and enhance the effectiveness of the immune response

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25
Q

Describe the steps of phagocytosis.

A
  1. ingestion of pathogen
  • macrophage engulfs pathogen into a granule, which then fuses with a lysosome to begin digestion
  1. pathogen digestion
  • lysosome’s enzymes break down the pathogen into smaller antigen fragments inside the macrophage
  1. antigen presentation
  • macrophage displays these antigen fragments on its surface, becoming an antigen-presenting cell (APC) to activate the adaptive immune response
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26
Q

What is the complement system/cascade essential for?

A

essential for both innate and adaptive immune responses, activated by different immune pathways during infections

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27
Q

What does the complement system/cascade do?

A
  • promotes inflammation, attracting phagocytes to the infection site for faster pathogen elimination
  • enables opsonization, tagging pathogens to make them more recognizable to phagocytes for effective destruction
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28
Q

How does the complement system/cascade work?

A

membrane attack complex (MAC) is activated, causing cell lysis by breaking down infected cells, preventing infection spread
- overall, the system enhances immunity by triggering inflammation, marking pathogens, and causing cell lysis

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29
Q

What are the lymphocytes of the adaptive immune response and their function?

A
  • helper T cells (CD4) recognize the antigen and activate B cells and cytotoxic T cells (CD8)
  • B cells form plasma cells to produce antibodies and memory B cells to store viral memory for future protection
  • cytotoxic T cells directly kill infected cells by releasing substances that stop viral spread
  • memory T and B cells ensure a faster, stronger response if the virus reappears, providing long-term immunity
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30
Q

The Antibody Response

What is the primary immune response?

A

antibody production is delayed, taking 1-2 weeks to reach sufficient levels to fight the infection

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31
Q

The Antibody Response

What is the time delay?

A

immune system requires time to recognize pathogens and produce antibodies, often up to a week

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32
Q

The Antibody Response

What is the role of antibiotics?

A

support the immune system during severe infections

  • bacteriostatic antibiotics slow pathogen growth
  • bactericidal antibiotics kills pathogens
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33
Q

The Antibody Response

What do vaccines do?

A

create memory cells, allowing quicker antibody production during subsequent exposures

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34
Q

The Antibody Response

What is the secondary immune response?

A

memory cells ensure rapid and robust antibody production, providing immediate protection

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35
Q

The Antibody Response

Why are mild infections often resolved without antibiotics?

A

delayed response – immune system takes time to produce specific antibodies during the first exposure

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36
Q

The Antibody Response

What is antibiotic support?

A

severe infections may require antibiotics to provide temporary relief while the immune system builds its response

37
Q

What are routes of transmission important for pharmacists? (4)

A
  • self-protection
  • patient education
  • risk assessment
  • improved care
38
Q

What are the 3 contact routes of transmission?

A
  • direct
  • indirect
  • droplet
39
Q

What are some infections acquired by direct transmission?

A
  • mononucleosis
  • STIs
  • respiratory viruses
40
Q

What are some infections acquired by indirect transmission?

A
  • norwalk virus
  • rhinovirus
  • RSV
41
Q

What are some infections acquired by droplet transmission?

A
  • meningococcus
  • respiratory viruses
  • COVID-19
42
Q

Compare droplet transmission vs. indirect transmission.

A

droplet transmission:

  • when an infected person coughs or sneezes, droplets containing the virus are released into the air
  • if another person is within 1 to 2 meters, these droplets can land on their mouth, nose, or eyes
  • these droplets may enter the respiratory system, leading to infection

indirect transmission:

  • infected droplets land on surfaces like phones, computers, or other objects
  • when another individual touches these contaminated surfaces, the virus can transfer to their fingers
  • if they touch their nose or mouth, they may infect themselves
43
Q

What are the types of personal protective equipment (PPE)?

A
  • eye protection
  • facemask
  • isolation growth
  • non-sterile gloves
44
Q

What are the 3 non-contact routes of transmission?

A
  • airborne
  • vehicle
  • vector-borne
45
Q

What is airborne transmission?

A
  • transmission via small aerosols that contain organisms in droplet nuclei or dusts
  • can be spread via ventilation systems
  • airborne particles can travel over larger distances and infect individuals not in close proximity
46
Q

What are some infections that can be acquired by airborne transmission?

A
  • tuberculosis
  • measles
  • chickenpox
  • smallpox
  • COVID-19
47
Q

What are some precautions that can be taken to prevent transmission of airborne transmission?

A
  • masks/PPE
  • ventilation systems
  • prevent spread through proper airflow control
48
Q

What is vehicle transmission?

A
  • transmission occurs through the exposure to an inanimate object, such as food or water, that has been contaminated with the pathogen
  • point source: transmission contained within a localized area
  • common source: transmission over a much larger geographic area
49
Q

What are some infections that can be acquired by vehicle transmission?

A
  • point source: infected batch of food at single
    restaurant
  • common source: nationwide Listeria or E.coli outbreak linked to a meat processing plant or farm
50
Q

What are some precautions that can be taken to prevent transmission of vehicle transmission?

A

food safety and disinfection standards

51
Q

What is vector-borne transmission?

A

transmission by insect or animal vectors

  • infectious agents are passed on through bites or contact with these vectors
52
Q

What are some infections that can be acquired by vector-borne transmission?

A
  • malaria (mosquitos)
  • lyme disease (ticks)
53
Q

What are some precautions that can be taken to prevent transmission of vehicle transmission?

A
  • protective barriers (screens, nets, clothing)
  • insecticides
  • avoid exposure to bites
54
Q

Compare droplet vs. airborne transmission.

A

droplet transmission:

  • large droplets (>100 μm): travel short distances (1-2 meters) and stay airborne briefly
  • medium droplets (5-100 μm): remain suspended longer but still follow a ballistic trajectory

airborne transmission:

  • small droplets or aerosols (<5 μm): stay suspended in the air for long periods, enabling transmission over short or long distances
55
Q

What are the 4 factors that must be considered when preparing to select antimicrobials?

A
  • host factors
  • pathogen factors
  • drug factors
  • significance
56
Q

Preparing to Select Antimicrobials

Host Factors

A
  • age
  • weight
  • immune status
  • comorbidities
  • allergies
  • medication and medical history
  • immunization history
  • exposure risk
  • symptoms and history of present illness
  • risk factors for infection and immunosuppression
  • travel and pets
57
Q

What are the vitals signs and symptoms of infection?

A

signs:

  • fever (↑ temp)
  • tachycardia (↑ HR)
  • hypotension (↓ BP)
  • tachypnea (↑ RR)
58
Q

What are the CNS signs and symptoms of infection?

A

signs:

  • disorientation (A&O x 3 – person, place, time)

symptoms:

  • headache
  • confusion
  • neck stiffness
  • seizures
59
Q

What are the HEENT signs and symptoms of infection?

A

symptoms:

  • visual field defects
  • photophobia
  • sore throat
  • dysphagia
60
Q

What are the CVS/RESP signs and symptoms of infection?

A

signs:

  • ↓ blood oxygenation (hypoxia)
  • ↑ work of breathing
  • ↓ breath sounds

symptoms:

  • chest pain
  • cough
  • shortness of breath
  • increased sputum
61
Q

What are the GI signs and symptoms of infection?

A

symptoms:

  • N/V/D
  • pus or blood in stool
  • abdo pain
62
Q

What are the renal/GU signs and symptoms of infection?

A

signs:

  • ↓ urine output

symptoms:

  • flank pain
  • dysuria
  • frequency
  • urgency
63
Q

What are the skin signs and symptoms of infection?

A

symptoms:

  • PRISH – pain, redness, immobility, swelling, heat
64
Q

What are the non-specific signs and symptoms of infection?

A

signs:

  • can be present in any infection

symptoms:

  • myalgias
  • chills
  • rigors
  • sweating
  • anorexia
  • fatigue
  • malaise
  • weight loss
65
Q

Preparing to Select Antimicrobials

Pathogen Factors

A

identification begins with gram staining and progresses to advanced tests like MALDI-TOF to pinpoint the pathogen and guide antibiotic choice

66
Q

Preparing to Select Antimicrobials

Drug Factors

A

selection depends on factors like tissue penetration, toxicity, and whether the antibiotic is bactericidal or bacteriostatic

67
Q

Preparing to Select Antimicrobials

Significance

A
  • early decisions rely on probable pathogens and resistance patterns
  • treatments are refined as lab results become available to optimize effectiveness and minimize resistance
68
Q

What is A&O x 3?

A

refers to if a patient is Alert & Oriented

  • normally, a person should be oriented to person (who they are), place (where they are) and time (what day and approximate time it is)
  • ie. if someone only knows who they are but not where they are or the date, they
    would be categorized as A&O x 1 – this is a sign that they are disoriented, or confused, which may be due to infection
69
Q

Laboratory and Diagnostic Tests

What are the patient assessment tests? (6)

A
  • CBC with differential
  • inflammatory markers (CRP, ESR)
  • organ-specific markers (SCr, liver enzymes)
  • blood gases
  • analysis of bodily fluids (urine, cerebral spinal fluid, etc.)
  • imaging (x-ray, ultrasound, etc.)
70
Q

Laboratory and Diagnostic Tests

What are the pathogen assessment tests? (5)

A
  • gram stain
  • serological tests
  • molecular tests
  • culture
  • sensitivity and resistance
71
Q

Laboratory and Diagnostic Tests

What specimens can be cultured? (9)

A
  • blood
  • urine
  • cerebral spinal fluid
  • sputum
  • pus
  • peritoneal fluid
  • semen
  • vaginal secretions
  • feces
72
Q

What is the culture process?

A

essential for identifying the cause of infection and tailoring effective antibiotic treatments

73
Q

What are the 3 key steps of the culture process?

A
  • gram staining
  • pathogen identification
  • susceptibility testing
74
Q

Culture Process

What is gram staining?

A

classifies bacteria as Gram-positive or Gram-negative based on cell wall thickness

  • thicker cell walls retain a crystal violet stain (Gram-positive), while thinner walls do not (Gram-negative)
  • this step helps narrow down potential pathogens and guides the initial selection of antibiotics.
75
Q

Culture Process

What is pathogen identification?

A
  • MALDI-TOF: identifies bacteria by analyzing ionized components through mass spectrometry and can sometimes detect resistance genes
  • ELISA: uses antibodies to detect specific antigens, generating signals to confirm their presence
  • chromogenic media: bacteria are cultured on agar plates with substrates that change colour, helping to identify pathogens
  • PCR: amplifies bacterial DNA for identifying slow-growing or low-concentration organisms
76
Q

Culture Process

What is susceptibility testing?

A
  • disk diffusion (Kirby-Bauer Test): assesses bacterial sensitivity to antibiotics by observing the zone of inhibition around antibiotic disks
  • E-test: determines the MIC by measuring the point where the elliptical inhibition zone meets an antibiotic gradient strip
  • broth dilution: identifies both MIC and MBC by exposing bacteria to various antibiotic concentrations in a liquid medium
77
Q

Culture Process

What are some other methods for susceptibility testing?

A
  • advanced techniques like DNA microarrays and whole genome sequencing provide detailed insights into resistance genes and mutations
  • antibiogram: summarizes local bacterial susceptibility patterns to help clinicians make empiric treatment decisions and reduce the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics
78
Q

What type of antibiotic agents do immunocompromised patients require?

A

bactericidal – their immune system may struggle to eliminate pathogens effectively

79
Q

What type of antibiotic agents do life-threatening infections and hard-to-reach areas (ie. brain, bone) require?

A

bactericidal – due to difficulty of drug penetration

80
Q

Do penicillins act as bacteriostatic or bactericidal agents?

A

can act as bactericidal against certain bacteria, but bacteriostatic against others

  • primarily bactericidal, but exceptions exist depending on the bacteria (ie. Enterococcus)
81
Q

What are broad spectrum antibiotics?

A

effective against many bacteria

  • useful for empiric treatment when the pathogen is unknown
82
Q

What are narrow spectrum antibiotics?

A

targets specific bacteria

  • used after pathogen identification
83
Q

What are some considerations for pharmacists when determining whether to use broad spectrum or narrow spectrum antibiotics?

A
  • use the narrowest spectrum antibiotic to prevent resistance (antimicrobial stewardship)
  • tissue penetration varies (ie. nitrofurantoin works for bladder infections but not kidneys)
  • adjust route, dose, and duration based on infection severity and site
  • review the toxicity profile to ensure safety and minimize side effects
84
Q

What is MIC?

A

minimum concentration of an antimicrobial agent required to inhibit bacterial growth

  • key parameter in determining the effectiveness of an antibacterial agent
  • measures the minimum concentration needed to stop bacterial growth, but not necessarily to kill
85
Q

What is MBC?

A

minimum concentration of an antimicrobial agent required to kill bacterial cells

  • focused on killing bacteria, while MIC inhibits growth
86
Q

Is MIC or MBC more used in practice?

A

MIC is predominantly used to determine susceptibility patterns for bacterial pathogens

87
Q

What are drugs with time-dependent activity?

A

these drugs are most effective when their concentration remains above the MIC for as long as possible

  • in severe infections, frequent dosing (like every four hours) ensures that drug levels stay consistently above the MIC
  • unlike concentration-dependent drugs, the peak concentration is less important
  • instead, maintaining levels above the MIC is crucial, described using terms like “time
    over MIC” or “AUC to MIC ratio
  • ie. penicillin, cephalosporins
88
Q

What are drugs with concentration-dependent activity?

A

these drugs rely on achieving a high peak concentration relative to the MIC

  • often dosed once daily at a high dose to maximize their effect, followed by a washout period to allow the drug to clear from the system, minimizing toxicity
  • with these drugs, concentrations dip below the MIC between doses, but a higher peak concentration significantly enhances their effectiveness
  • ie. aminoglycosides, fluoroquinolones