IID 02: Disease-causing Pathogens Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 types of infectious pathogens?

A
  • bacteria
  • virus
  • fungi
  • protozoa
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2
Q

What are the different classifications of disease-causing pathogens? (2)

A
  • cell wall
  • shape
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3
Q

What are the 3 main groups of disease-causing pathogens based on cell wall characteristics?

A
  • gram-positive
  • gram-negative
  • unique cell wall/no cell wall
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4
Q

What are the 7 shapes of disease-causing pathogens?

A
  • cocci
  • coccobacilli
  • bacilli
  • vibrios
  • spirilla
  • spirochetes
  • actinomycetes
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5
Q

Describe the cocci shape.

A

spherical/oval

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6
Q

Describe the coccobacilli shape.

A

elongated oval shaped

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7
Q

Describe the bacilli shape.

A

rod shaped

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8
Q

Describe the vibrios shape.

A

comma shaped

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9
Q

Describe the spirilla shape.

A

rigid spiral forms

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10
Q

Describe the spirochetes shape.

A

flexible spiral forms

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11
Q

Describe the actinomycetes shape.

A

branching filamentous

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12
Q

Describe gram-positive stains.

A

purplish-blue

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13
Q

Describe gram-negative stains.

A

pinkish-red

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14
Q

Gram-positive

What are the two main shapes of gram-positive bacteria?

A
  • cocci
  • bacilli
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15
Q

Gram-positive Cocci

What are the two types of cocci bacteria?
What test is done to determine the type?

A

catalase test

  • streptococci (chains) – negative, no bubbles
  • staphylococci (clusters) – positive, bubbles
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16
Q

What is the catalase test?

A

enzyme produced by microorganisms that rapidly converts hydrogen peroxide to water and free oxygen

  • positive reaction: immediate effervescence (bubble formation)
  • negative reaction: no bubble formation
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17
Q

Gram-positive Cocci

What are the 3 types of streptococci (chains)?
What test is done to determine the type?

A

hemolytic test

  • alpha-hemolytic – green zone
  • beta-hemolytic – clear/yellowish zone
  • gamma-hemolytic – no hemolysis
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18
Q

Gram-positive Cocci

What is alpha-hemolysis?

A

alpha-hemolysin partially breaks down RBCs, resulting in a ‘green zone’ surrounding the bacterial colonies

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19
Q

Gram-positive Cocci

What is beta-hemolysis?

A

beta-hemolysin completely breaks down red blood cells and hemoglobin, leaving a ‘clear/yellowish zone’ around the bacterial colonies

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20
Q

Gram-positive Cocci

What is gamma-hemolysis?

A

no hemolysis

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21
Q

Gram-positive Cocci

What are alpha-hemolytic bacteria?

A
  • normal flora of nasopharynx
  • possible pathogen in: pneumonia, otitis media, sinusitis, meningitis
  • ie. streptococcus pneumoniae, viridans streptococci
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22
Q

Gram-positive Cocci

What are beta-hemolytic bacteria?

A
  • normal flora of oropharynx, colonizer of skin
  • possible pathogen in: pharyngitis, tonsillitis, cellulitis
  • ie. group A streptococci (S. pyogenes), group B streptococci (S. agalactiae)
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23
Q

Gram-positive Cocci

What are gamma-hemolytic bacteria?

A
  • normal flora of GI/GU tract
  • possible pathogen in: UTI, intra-abdominal infection, endocarditis
  • human pathogens (E. facaelis and E. faecium)
  • ie. enterococcus
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24
Q

What is minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)?

A

lowest concentration of antibiotic which prevents visible growth of a bacteria

  • used in antimicrobial susceptibility testing – ie. E-test, broth dilution method
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25
Q

Gram-positive Cocci

Describe the resistance of streptococcus.

A
  • drug-resistant streptococcus pneumonia emerging
  • vaccination with pneumococcal conjugate vaccine associated with decreased rates of resistance
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26
Q

Gram-positive Cocci

Describe the resistance of enterococcus.

A
  • vancomycin-resistant enterococci (VRE)
  • 30% resistance rate in US
  • associated with healthcare or long-term care exposure
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27
Q

Gram-positive Cocci

What are the 2 types of staphylococci (clusters)?
What test is done to determine the type?

A

coagulase test

  • coagulase (+)
  • coagulase (-)
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28
Q

What is the coagulase test?

A

enzyme produced by some bacteria that forms clots when applied to plasma

  • coagulase positive: presence of coagulase converts fibrinogen to fibrin (clot)
  • coagulase negative: no clot formation
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29
Q

Gram-positive Cocci

What are coagulase positive bacteria?

A
  • normal flora on skin
  • invasive pathogen
  • possible pathogen in: cellulitis, osteomyelitis, septic arthritis, endocarditis
  • ie. staphylococcus aureus
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30
Q

Gram-positive Cocci

What are coagulase negative bacteria?

A
  • normal flora on skin
  • less pathogenic than S. aureus
  • common contaminant
  • possible pathogen in: osteomyelitis with prosthetic device, infection in immunocompromised host
  • ie. coagulase-negative staphylococci/CoNS (staphylococcus epidermidis)
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31
Q

Gram-positive Cocci

What is methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)?

A
  • spread in healthcare settings and community
  • more common (16x) in those who inject illicit drugs
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32
Q

Gram-positive Bacilli

What are the 2 types of bacilli?
What test is done to determine the type?

A

oxygen test

  • aerobic – require oxygen for growth/survival
  • anaerobic – do not require oxygen for growth/survival, oxygen may negatively impact growth
33
Q

Gram-positive Bacilli

What are some examples of aerobic bacteria? (2)

A
  • listeria
  • corynebacterium
34
Q

Gram-positive Bacilli

What are some examples of anaerobic bacteria? (1)

A
  • peptostreptococcus
35
Q

Gram-positive Bacilli

What is the listeria species?

A
  • found in unpasteurized milk
  • cause of listeriosis: severe sepsis, meningitis, encephalitis
36
Q

Gram-positive Bacilli

What is the corynebacterium species?

A
  • causes diphtheria (C. diptheriae)
  • vaccination: 2, 4, 6 months (DTaP-HB-IPV-Hib), 18 months (DTaP-IPV-Hib)
37
Q

Gram-positive Bacilli

What are the 2 types of anaerobic bacteria?

A
  • spore-forming – ie. clostridium
  • non-spore forming – ie. lactobacillus
38
Q

Gram-positive Bacilli

What is the clostridium species?

A
  • C. difficile – pseudomembranous colitis
  • C. tetani – tetanus (vaccination at 2, 4, 6 months (DTaP-HB-IPV-Hib), 18 months (DTaP-IPV-Hib))
  • C. botulinum – botulism
39
Q

Gram-positive Bacilli

What are C. difficile infections associated with?

A

associated with those who have taken antibiotics for other purposes

  • most common healthcare-associated infection
40
Q

Gram-positive Bacilli

What are some strategies to reduce C. difficile infections?

A
  • improving antibiotic use
  • infection control
  • healthcare facility cleaning and disinfection
  • personal hygiene
41
Q

Gram-negative

What are the two main shapes of gram-negative bacteria?

A
  • cocci
  • bacilli
42
Q

Gram-negative Cocci

What are the two types of cocci bacteria?
What determines the type?

A

arrangement/shape

  • diplococci
  • coccibacci
43
Q

Gram-negative Cocci

What are some examples of diplococci shaped bacteria? (2)

A
  • neisseria species
  • moraxella species
44
Q

Gram-negative Cocci

What are some examples of coccobacilli shaped bacteria? (2)

A
  • haemophilus influenzae
  • bordetella pertussis
45
Q

Gram-negative Cocci

What is neisseria meningitidis?

A
  • found in nasopharynx
  • possible pathogen in: meningitis, bacteremia
46
Q

Gram-negative Cocci

What is neisseria gonorrheae?

A
  • possible pathogen in: urethritis/cervicitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, neonatal conjunctivitis
  • causes gonorrhea (STI)
  • can result in life-threatening ectopic pregnancy and infertility
  • increases risk of contracting HIV
47
Q

Gram-negative Cocci

What is moraxella catarrhalis?

A
  • found in nasopharynx
  • possible pathogen in: pneumonia, otitis media, sinusitis, bronchitis
48
Q

Gram-negative Cocci

What is haemophilus influenzae?

A
  • colonized in nasopharynx
  • possible pathogen in: bronchitis, otitis media, sinusitis, pneumonia, meningitis
  • vaccination: 2, 4, 6 months (DTaP-HB-IPV-Hib), 18 months (DTaP-IPV-Hib)
49
Q

Gram-negative Cocci

What is bordetella pertussis?

A
  • pathogen in: pertussis (whooping cough)
  • vaccination: 2, 4, 6 months (DTaP-HB-IPV-Hib), 18 months (DTaP-IPV-Hib)
50
Q

Gram-negative Cocci

Describe the resistance of neisseria gonorrheae.

A

half of all infections resistant to at least one antibiotic

51
Q

Gram-negative Bacilli

What are the two types of bacilli bacteria?
What test is done to determine the type?

A

oxygen test

  • aerobic – require oxygen for growth/survival
  • anaerobic – do not require oxygen for growth/survival, oxygen may negatively impact growth
52
Q

Gram-negative Bacilli

What are the two types of aerobic bacteria?
What test is done to determine the type?

A

lactose fermentation test

  • lactose fermenter
  • lactose non-fermenter
53
Q

What is the lactose fermentation test?

A

when microorganisms ferment carbohydrate (ie. lactose), an acid or acid with gas are produced

  • positive – liquid turns yellow which indicates a drop in pH due to acid production (fermentation), gas production may occur
  • negative – liquid remains red as a result of no fermentation, no gas production will occur
54
Q

Gram-negative Bacilli

What are some examples of lactose fermenters?

A
  • proteus
  • serratia
  • escherichia coli
  • citrobacter
  • klebsiella
  • enterobacter
55
Q

Gram-negative Bacilli

What are some examples of non-lactose fermenters?

A
  • pseudomonas
  • acinetobacter
  • salmonella
  • shigella
56
Q

Gram-negative Bacilli

What is enterobacteriaceae?

A
  • many species live within normal flora of intestine
  • some species possess high rates of resistance to commonly used antibiotics
  • ie. E. coli, Klebsiella, Enterobacter, Citrobacter, Salmonella, Shigella
57
Q

Gram-negative Bacilli (Aerobic)

What is ‘easy’ GNB?

A
  • non-beta lactamase producing
  • ie. H. influenzae, E.coli, Klebsiella
58
Q

Gram-negative Bacilli (Aerobic)

What is ‘hard’ GNB?

A
  • ESBL – extended spectrum beta-lactamases
  • HECK YES – Hafnia alvei, Enterobacter cloacae, Citrobacter, Klebsiella, YErSinia
59
Q

Gram-negative Bacilli

What are 3 types of resistance?

A
  • broad spectrum beta-lactamases (BSBL)
  • extended spectrum beta-lactamases (ESBL)
  • carbapenemases
60
Q

Gram-negative Bacilli

What are broad spectrum beta-lactamases (BSBL)?

A

enzymes which rapidly break down commonly used beta-lactam structured antibiotics

  • confer resistance to many penicillins and first-generation cephalosporins
  • second, third and fourth gen. cephalosporins, carbapenems still considered active
61
Q

Gram-negative Bacilli

What are extended spectrum beta-lactamases (ESBL)?

A
  • confer resistance to third, and sometimes fourth generation cephalosporins
  • ESBL producing enterbacteriaceae often cause infection in otherwise healthy patients
  • limited antibiotic choices for treatment
62
Q

Gram-negative Bacilli

What are carbapenemases?

A
  • confer resistance to the same antimicrobials as ESBL plus second generation cephalosporins and carbapenems
  • nearly resistant to all available antibiotics
  • new antibiotics/combinations being investigated for activity
63
Q

Gram-negative Bacilli

What are some examples of anaerobic bacteria? (1)

A
  • bacteroides species
64
Q

What are anaerobic bacteria?

A
  • infections commonly associated with: abscess, foul odour or discharge, tissue necrosis, gangrene
  • possible pathogen in: intra-abdominal infections, aspiration pneumonia, abscess
65
Q

Unique Cell Wall/No Cell Wall (Atypicals)

Describe this type of bacteria.

A
  • chemically unique cell wall or no cell wall present
  • colour not apparent on gram stain
  • possible pathogens in: respiratory infections, pelvic inflammatory disease, sexually transmitted infections
  • consider antibiotics with mechanisms other than cell wall disruption – ie. macrolides (ribosomal interactions), tetracyclines, fluoroquinolones
  • ie. chlamydia, mycobacterium species (tuberculosis, leprosy), mycoplasma
66
Q

Pathogenic Viruses

Describe pathogenic viruses.

A
  • structurally unique as carry little other than information in the form of nucleic acid – use living host cells for replication
  • possible pathogen in almost all forms of infectious diseases
67
Q

Pathogenic Viruses

Describe drug treatment.

A

identifying effective antiviral targets is difficult as viral replication uses host cell machinery

68
Q

Pathogenic Viruses

Describe vaccinations.

A

vaccination programs can be effective for control/eradication (ie. smallpox, polio)

69
Q

What are some examples of pathogenic fungi? (4)

A
  • candida species
  • cryptococcus species
  • aspergillus species
  • pneumocystis species
70
Q

Pathogenic Fungi

What is the candida species?

A
  • yeast
  • normal flora in gut
  • possible pathogen in: oropharyngeal candidiasis, vulvovaginal candidiasis, fungemia
71
Q

Pathogenic Fungi

What is the cryptococcus species?

A
  • yeast
  • possible pathogen in: immunocompromised patients
72
Q

Pathogenic Fungi

What is the aspergillus species?

A
  • commonly found in soil
  • possible pathogen in: immunocompromised patients
73
Q

Pathogenic Fungi

What is the pneumocystis species?

A
  • possible pathogen in: immunocompromised patients (pneumonia)
74
Q

What are some examples of pathogenic protozoa? (4)

A
  • giardia duodenalis
  • plasmodium species
  • trichomonas vaginalis
  • toxoplasma gondii
75
Q

Pathogenic Protozoa

What is giardia duodenalis?

A
  • cause of giardiasis (beaver fever) – diarrhea, abdominal pain, weight loss
  • source: water contamination
76
Q

Pathogenic Protozoa

What is plasmodium species?

A
  • cause of malaria – fever, fatigue, vomiting, yellow skin, seizure
  • source: mosquito
77
Q

Pathogenic Protozoa

What is trichomonas vaginalis?

A
  • cause of trichomoniasis – genital itching, burning
  • source: sexual contact
78
Q

Pathogenic Protozoa

What is toxoplasma gondii?

A
  • cause of toxoplasmosis – flu-like symptoms (severe if immunocomprpmised), congenital toxoplasmosis
  • source: undercooked meat, cate feces