IID 04: Pharmacology of Beta Lactams Flashcards

1
Q

What are exotoxins?

A

release or secreted predominantly by gram-positive bacteria

  • causes botulism and tetanus
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2
Q

What are endotoxins?

A

not secreted by bacteria, but are components of gram-negative bacteria cell wall

  • most injurious and fatal components of gram-negative bacteria
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3
Q

What are antibiotics?

A

chemical substance produced by microorganisms that have the capacity to inhibit the growth or destroy bacteria and other microorganisms in dilute solution

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4
Q

What are broad spectrum antibiotics?

A

antibiotics which kill or inhibit a wide range of gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria

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5
Q

What are narrow spectrum antibiotics?

A

antibiotics effective mainly against gram-positive or gram-negative bacteria

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6
Q

What are limited spectrum antibiotics?

A

antibiotics effective against a single organism or disease

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7
Q

What is the concentration-dependent effect of antibiotics on bacteria?

A

rate and extent of bacterial loss is directly related with the increasing concentration of drugs

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8
Q

What is the post-antibiotic effect?

A

persistent suppression of bacterial growth that persists after brief exposure of organisms to antimicrobials

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9
Q

What is the time-dependent effect of antibiotics on bacteria?

A
  • if plasma concentration is greater than minimum bactericidal concentration
    concentration of drugs should be maintained above the MIC
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10
Q

What are bactericidal antibiotics?

A

antibiotics that kill bacteria

  • ie. penicillin
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11
Q

What are bacteriostatic antibiotics?

A

antibiotics that stop the growth of bacteria

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12
Q

Are sulfonamides and tetracyclines bactericidal or bacteriostatic?

A

‘static’ at low doses and ’cidal’ at higher doses

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13
Q

Penicillins

Are penicillins bactericidal or bacteriostatic?

A

bactericidal – inhibit cell wall synthesis

  • except Enterococcus
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14
Q

Penicillins

What are the 4 classifications of penicillins?

A
  • natural penicillins
  • penicillinase-resistant penicillins (antistaphylococcal penicillins)
  • aminopenicillins
  • antipseudomonal penicillins
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15
Q

Penicillins

What are natural penicillins?

A

ie. penicillin G, penicillin V potassium

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16
Q

Penicillins

What are penicillinase-resistant penicillins (antistaphylococcal penicillins)?

A

ie. cloxacillin, dicloxacillin, methicillin, nafcillin, oxacillin

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17
Q

Penicillins

What are aminopenicillins?

A

ie. amoxicillin, ampicillin, bacampicillin

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18
Q

Penicillins

What are antipseudomonal penicillins?

A

ie. piperacillin, ticarcillin, carbenicillin, mezlocillin

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19
Q

Penicillin G

A
  • acid-labile compound with variable bioavailability after oral administration
  • most appropriate for IM or IV therapy
  • mainly effective against gram-positive bacteria and some gram-negative bacteria (N. gonorrhea and N. meningitidis)
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20
Q

Penicillin G

What is benzathine penicillin?

A
  • used for treatment of beta-hemolytic streptococcal pharyngitis (Scarlet Fever) and latent syphilis
  • do not inject IV or mix with other IV solutions
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21
Q

Penicillin G

What is procaine penicillin G?

A
  • used for treatment of syphilis
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22
Q

Penicillin V

A

oral form of penicillin

  • used for streptococcal infections
  • poor bioavailability
  • multiple daily doses needed
  • used for minor infections (replaced by ampicillin)
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23
Q

Compare Penicillin V to Penicillin G.

A
  • more acid stable than penicillin G
  • has the same spectrum of activity as penicillin G
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24
Q

What are some penicillinase-resistant penicillins (antistaphylococcal penicillins)?

A
  • methicillin (no longer in use)
  • nafcillin
  • oxaclillin
  • dicloxacillin
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25
Q

Penicillinase-Resistant Penicillin (Antistaphylococcal Penicillins)

A
  • relatively acid stable and well absorbed
  • absorption impaired by food
  • beta-lactamase-resistant due to bulky residues on their R side chains that prevent binding by the staphylococcal beta-lactamase
  • not as effectives as penicillin G or penicillin V
  • semi-synthetic penicillins with a narrow spectrum – used to treat infections caused by penicillinase-resistant staphylococci
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26
Q

Penicillinase-Resistant Penicillin (Antistaphylococcal Penicillins)

Describe the bacteria that are resistant to these drugs.

A

methicillin resistant bacteria

  • have altered penicillin binding proteins
  • vancomycin is the drug of choice in such infections
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27
Q

Penicillinase-Resistant Penicillin (Antistaphylococcal Penicillins)

What are these antibiotics most useful against?

A

infections caused by staphylococci, with the exception of MRSA

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28
Q

Aminopenicillins

A

extended-spectrum penicillins – ampicillin and amoxicillin

  • similar activity against organisms targeted by penicillin G
  • greater activity against gram-negative bacteria
  • beta-lactamase sensitive
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29
Q

Aminopenicillins

What are these drugs useful for treating?

A

urinary tract infections, respiratory infections

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30
Q

What is a key consult point of aminopenicillins?

A

should not be taken on an empty stomach – food impairs absorption of drug

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31
Q

Antipseudomonal Penicillins

A
  • similar activity against organisms targeted by ampicillin
  • side chains allow for greater penetration into gram-negative bacteria than aminopenicillins
  • generally, more resistant to cleavage by gram-negative beta-lactamase than aminopenicillins
  • show activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Klebsiella
  • effective against some Staph. Aureus
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32
Q

Antipseudomonal Penicillins

What are these drugs useful for treating?

A

urinary tract infections, respiratory infections

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33
Q

Are penicillins toxic?

A

no – generally non-toxic

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34
Q

What hypersensitivity reactions can occur with penicillin?

A
  • GI upset (large oral doses) – nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain
  • rash
  • fever
  • bronchospasm (abnormal smooth muscle contraction, respiratory obstruction)
  • vasculitis (inflammation of blood vessel)
  • exfoliative dermatitis (severe inflammation of entire skin)
  • anaphylaxis – rare, about 0.5-1 of 10,000 patients
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35
Q

Do cross-allergic reactions occur among beta-lactam antibiotics?

A

yes

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36
Q

Penicillins

Hypersensitivity (3-10%)

A
  • 5% ranging from maculopapular rash (common rash with ampicillin hypersensitivity) to angioedema (marked swelling of the lips, tongue, and periorbital area) and anaphylaxis
  • patients with mononucleosis and treated with ampicillin – incidence of maculopapular rash approaches 100%
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37
Q

Penicillins

Neurotoxicity

A
  • patients with renal failure: high doses → seizures
  • penicillins are irritating to neuronal cells, provoke seizures if injected intrafecal or if very high blood levels are reached
  • epileptic patients are particularly at risk
  • high doses of penicillin causes seizures by inhibiting GABA
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38
Q

Penicillins

Diarrhea

A
  • common problem
  • disruption of the normal balance of intestinal microorganisms with drugs
  • also pseudomembranous colitis with some other antibiotics
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39
Q

Penicillins

Nephritis

A

all penicillins, but particularly methicillin, are potential cause of acute interstitial nephritis

  • note: methicillin is therefore no longer available
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40
Q

Penicillins

Cation Toxicity

A
  • penicillins are generally sodium or potassium salt
  • toxicities due to large quantities of Na or K
  • Na excess may result in hypokalemia (rare)
    -0 this can be avoided by using the most potent antibiotic, which permits lower doses of drug and accompanying cations
  • hyperkalemia (rare) – increased potassium load due to rapid IV doses of penicillin G potassium in patients with renal failure
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41
Q

Penicillin Metabolism

Major Determinant

A

benzyl penicilloyl (95%) formed when the beta-lactam ring is opened

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42
Q

Penicillin Metabolism

Minor Determinant

A

penilloate, penicilloate, and benzyl-n-propylamine formed by drug degradation in GI tract

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43
Q

What plays an important role in allergic reactions to penicillins?

A

major and minor determinants of metabolism

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44
Q

What is a type I penicillin allergy?

A
  • minutes to hours
  • offending drugs – IgE (histamine and other proinflammatory from mast cells and basophils)
  • anaphylaxis, urticaria, angioedema, pruritus, hypotension, respiratory distress/bronchospasm
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45
Q

What is a type II penicillin allergy?

A
  • 72 hours cytotoxic reaction
  • IgG directed against haptenized proteins
  • antibody bind to renal intestinal cells or RBC complement system
  • hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, cytopenia, proteinuria, and/or hematuria
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46
Q

What is a type III penicillin allergy?

A
  • 10-21 days hypersensitivity to penicillin
  • delayed immune complex reactions mediated by IgG and IgM
  • circulating immune complexes complement deposited in blood vessels of kidneys, joints, or skin
  • fever, serum sickness, vasculitis, erythema multiform, interstitial nephritis, lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, arthralgias
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47
Q

What is a type IV penicillin allergy?

A
  • 2-4 days or more
  • induction of T cells interacting with an antigen
  • proinflammatory cytokines, tissue inflammation, and clinical manifestations
  • morbilliform eruptions or contact dermatitis
  • Stevens-Johnson syndrome or toxic epidermal necrolysis
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48
Q

How are penicillin allergies managed?

A
  • penicillin allergy testing – skin testing
  • desensitization
  • severe non-IgE-mediated reactions related to penicillin use requires strict avoidance of penicillin
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49
Q

Penicillins

What are the hematologic toxicities?

A
  • decreased coagulation with the antipseudomonal penicillins and, to some extent, with penicillin G
  • in patients who are predisposed to hemorrhage (ie. uremic) or those receiving anticoagulants
  • additional toxicities include eosinophilia
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50
Q

Penicillins

What is the major concern with penicillin allergy?

A

associated with:

  • longer hospital admissions, higher rates of readmission, treatment failure, and intensive care unit admission
  • increased risk of exposure to significantly more antibiotics associated with Clostridium difficile, vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus, and methicillin-resistant S aureus (MRSA)
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51
Q

Penicillins

What are the mechanisms of resistance? (4)

A
  • antibiotic is inactivated by beta-lactamase produced by the bacteria itself (very common)
  • modification of target PBPs
  • impaired penetration of drug to target PBPs
  • efflux pump mechanism to remove drug
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52
Q

Penicillins – Mechanism of Resistance

Antibiotic is inactivated by beta-lactamase produced by the bacteria itself (very common).

A
  • over 300 beta-lactamases (penicillinase) identified
  • specificity can be variable
  • large amounts often secreted by gram-positive bacteria
  • gram-negative bacteria tend to secrete less penicillinase
  • weak correlation between a given antibiotic’s bactericidal action and its susceptibility to beta-lactamase
  • beta-lactamase may also hydrolyze cephalosporin
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53
Q

Penicillins – Mechanism of Resistance

Modification of target PBPs.

A
  • PBPs may have low affinity for binding to beta-lactam antibiotics
  • inhibition of bacterial growth occurs only with high drug concentrations – very rare but common with Staphylococci, Pneumococci, Enterococci, and Neisseria gonorrhoeae
  • clinical usefulness of beta-lactam may be compromised
  • MRSA expresses a new PBP
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54
Q

Penicillins – Mechanism of Resistance

Impaired penetration of drug to target PBPs.

A
  • peptidoglycan layer in (G+) bacteria is near the cell surface
  • small beta-lactam drugs easily penetrate the outer layer of cytoplasmic membrane and bind to PBP
  • outer membrane in gram negative (G-) bacteria forms an impenetrable barrier to certain antibiotics
  • aqueous channels (porins) in (G-) bacteria allow access to certain hydrophilic antibiotics
  • pore size and density can vary among different (G-) bacteria
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55
Q

Penicillins – Mechanism of Resistance

Efflux pump mechanism to remove drug.

A
  • certain gram negative bacteria possess protein components for efflux pumps
  • efflux pumps transport beta-lactam antibiotics back across the outer membrane
  • ie. nafcillin extrusion by Salmonella tyhinurium
56
Q

Cephalosporins

A
  • semi-synthetic derivatives from a fungus
  • structurally and pharmacologically related to penicillins
  • generally, beta-lactamase resistant (not totally)
  • high therapeutic index
57
Q

Are cephalosporins bactericidal or bacteriostatic?

A

bactericidal action – dose-related

  • inhibit cell wall synthesis and bind to the same proteins as penicillin
58
Q

Why are cephalosporins needed?

A

wider/broad spectrum that may work against penicillin-resistant bacteria

59
Q

In what ways are cephalosporins generally the same as penicillin?

A
  • mechanism of action
  • mechanisms of resistance
  • absorption and excretion
  • toxicity
60
Q

What are cephalosporins effective against?

A
  • gram positive bacteria
  • E. coli
  • Klebsiella
  • Proteus
61
Q

What are cephalosporins inactive against?

A
  • enterococci
  • methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
62
Q

What are some 1st generation cephalosporins?

A
  • cephalexin
  • cefazolin
  • cefadroxil
63
Q

1st Generation Cephalosporins

A
  • stronger antimicrobial action against G+ bacteria than G- bacteria
  • nephrotoxic (to a certain degree)
  • not effective against pseudomonas
  • stable against beta-lactamase (penicillinase)
  • cefazolin does not penetrate CNS and cannot be used to treat meningitis
64
Q

What are some 2nd generation cephalosporins?

A
  • cefoxitin
  • cefotetan
  • cefaclor
  • cefuroxime
  • cefprozil
65
Q

2nd Generation Cephalosporins

A
  • less effective against G+ bacteria than 1st generation with enhanced antimicrobial action against G- bacteria
  • stable against beta lactamases and exert less nephrotoxicity than 1st generation
  • cefuroxime has ability to cross the blood-brain barrier and suitable for the treatment of meningitis, especially H. influenzae meningitis, and sepsis
66
Q

What are some 3rd generation cephalosporins?

A
  • cefixime
  • cefotaxime
  • ceftriazone
  • ceftazidime
67
Q

3rd Generation Cephalosporins

A

broadest spectrums of all cephalosporins

  • highest activities against G- bacteria
  • lowest activities against G+ bacteria
  • highest resistance to beta-lactamase
  • best penetration into the CSF – almost no nephrotoxicity
68
Q

3rd Generation Cephalosporins

What is unique about ceftriaxone?

A

has longest half-life (8 hr) of any cephalosporin

69
Q

3rd Generation Cephalosporins

What is unique about cefixime?

A

oral preparation

70
Q

3rd Generation Cephalosporins

What is unique about ceftazidime?

A

best anti-pseudomonal cephalosporin

71
Q

3rd Generation Cephalosporins

What is unique about cefoperazone?

A

eliminated (70%) in the bile – therefore very useful in patients with renal failure

72
Q

What are some 4th generation cephalosporins?

73
Q

4th Generation Cephalosporins

A
  • greater stability against beta-lactamases
  • extended spectrum of activity against gram-positive organisms – similar to ceftriaxone
  • effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  • very good activity against penicillin resistant strain of streptococci and it may be useful in the treatment of Enterobacter infections
  • otherwise, clinical role is similar to third generation cephalosporins
74
Q

Cephalosporins

Describe the kinetics of 1st and 2nd generation cephalosporins.

A

first and second generation cephalosporins are used with aminoglycosides to treat serious gm(-) infections

75
Q

Cephalosporins

Describe the kinetics of 3rd generation cephalosporins.

A

third generation cephalosporins are effective against gm(-) meningitis and in multi-resistant gm(-) infections – pneumonias, UTI, osteomyelitis, pelvic and intra-abdominal infections

76
Q

Cephalosporins

What are the side effects?

A

similar to penicillins

  • hypersensitivity
  • diarrhea
  • nephritis
  • neurotoxicity
  • hematologic toxicities
  • cation toxicity

third generation cephalosporins may decrease thrombin → increase bleeding

77
Q

Cephalosporins

Hypersensitivity Reactions (1-7%)

A
  • anaphylaxis (rare)
  • rash (maculopapular, urticarial) (1-3%)
  • serum sickness-like reaction (especially with cefaclor)
  • some cross-sensitivity with penicillin (5-10% – perhaps as low as 1%)
  • if a patient develops urticaria, anaphylaxis, or angioedema with penicillin or a cephalosporin, avoid using any of the other cephalosporin
78
Q

Cephalosporins – Side Effects

Hypoprothrombinemia

A
  • associated with methylthiotetrazole ring
  • common with cefoperazone, cefamandole, and cefotetan – occurs in 20-60% of patients
  • give Vitamin K (menadione) as preventative measure – less bleeding problems with cefotetan
  • cephalosporins may also cause bleeding due to reduction of gut flora
79
Q

Cephalosporins – Side Effects

Disulfiram-like Reaction

A
  • flushing, sweating, headache, tachycardia associated with alcohol ingestion
  • associated with methylthiotetrazole-containing cephalosporin only (cefoperazone, cefamandole, cefotetan)
80
Q

Cephalosporins – Side Effects

GI Complaints

A

diarrhea more common with cefixime, cefdinir, and cefoperazon

81
Q

Cephalosporins – Side Effects

Elevation of Liver Enzymes (5-10%)

82
Q

Cephalosporins – Side Effects

Cholecystitis-like syndrome with ceftriaxone (~20% with chronic dosing).

A
  • precipitation of ceftriaxone in bile leads to biliary sludge
  • may require surgery
83
Q

Cephalosporins – Side Effects

Displacement of bilirubin from albumin binding sites.

A
  • major concern in neonates
  • occurs with ceftriaxone and cefoperazone
84
Q

Cephalosporins – Side Effects

Phlebitis, pain at IM injection site.

A
  • most common with cephalothin and cephapirin
  • may also occur with cefotaxime
85
Q

Cephalosporins

Interactions

A
  • some produce disulfiram-like reactions with alcohol (symptoms include flushing of the skin, accelerated heart rate, SOB, nausea, vomiting)
  • H2 antagonists and antacids decrease absorption
  • probenecid increases/prolongs cephalosporin’s effect
  • false-positive glucosuria testing with a copper reduction test (clinitest) may occur with many cephalosporins
  • depletion of gut flora resulting in decreased vitamin K synthesis (problem with 2nd and 3rd generation cephalosporins)
86
Q

Cephalosporins

What drugs do cephalosporins interact with?

A
  • aminoglycosides
  • anticoagulant
87
Q

Cephalosporins

Drug Interaction with Aminoglycosides

A

aminoglycoside nephrotoxicity may be potentiated with the use of certain cephalosporins – especially cephalothin

88
Q

Cephalosporins

Cephalosporin (with Methylthiotetrazole Group) Drug Interaction with Anticoagulant

A
  • hypoprothrombinemic effects of anticoagulants are increased
  • bleeding complications may occur
89
Q

What is responsible for the cross-reactivity between penicillins and cephalosporins?

A

structural similarities

  • originally theorized that the common beta-lactam ring was the cause of cross sensitivity, but further research suggests the cause to be similar side-chains
  • penicillins contain a single side-chain at the 6-position, while cephalosporins have two side-chains at the 7- and 3-position
  • when the penicillin side-chain is similar to either of the cephalosporin side-chains, the likelihood of cross-sensitivity increases
  • many first- and second-generation cephalosporins have similar side-chains to penicillin antibiotics, thus increasing the chance of cross-sensitivity
  • the other generation agents have structurally different side-chains, and therefore patients have a lower likelihood of experiencing cross-sensitivity
90
Q

What are some 5th generation cephalosporins?

A
  • ceftaroline
  • ceftobiprole
91
Q

5th Generation (Advanced) Cephalosporins

A
  • active against a wide range of both gram-positive and gram-negative organisms including methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA), penicillin-resistant Streptococcus pneumoniae, pseudomonas aeruginosa
92
Q

5th Generation (Advanced) Cephalosporins

What is ceftaroline?

A
  • prodrug form of a new semi-synthetic cephalosporin
  • effective against MRSA and multidrug-resistant Streptococcus pneumonia, as well as some gram-negative organisms
93
Q

5th Generation (Advanced) Cephalosporins

Why is ceftaroline special?

A
  • binds to the penicillin-binding protein (PBP)2a, an MRSA-specific protein, which makes it unique among the cephalosporins
  • efficacy against endocarditis, pneumonia, myositis, and osteomyelitis has been demonstrated in animal models
  • efficacy in the treatment of complicated skin and soft tissue infections and community-acquired pneumonia has been confirmed in humans
94
Q

5th Generation (Advanced) Cephalosporins

Describe the antibacterial spectrum of ceftaroline.

A

broad spectrum with bactericidal activity

  • effective against many resistant gram-positive bacteria as well as gram-negative bacteria
  • retains activity against isolates with reduced susceptibility to vancomycin or linezolid
  • inactive against ESBL-producing or AmpC-over-expressing Enterobacteriaceae
  • limited activity against non-fermenting gram-negative bacilli such as Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Acinetobacter baumannii
95
Q

5th Generation (Advanced) Cephalosporins

What is the mechanism of action of ceftaroline?

A
  • ability to bind to PBP2a, demonstrating superior affinity as compared with cefozopran and other beta-lactams
  • high affinity for S. aureus PBPs correlates well with its low minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) for MRSA or methicillin-susceptible S. aureus (MSSA) strains
96
Q

5th Generation (Advanced) Cephalosporins

Describe the pharmacokinetics of ceftaroline.

A
  • following IV infusion, ceftaroline prodrug is rapidly converted to its bioactive metabolite, ceftaroline, by plasma phosphatases
  • no drug accumulation at therapeutic doses upon IV administration in healthy volunteer
  • comparable bioavailability when administered IM or IV – IV more expensive
  • upon conversion of ceftaroline fosamil in the plasma to the active metabolite, ceftaroline, a small fraction is converted to an inactive metabolite, ceftaroline-M-1
  • half-life of active ceftaroline is 2.6 h and that of the ceftaroline-M-1 metabolite is 4.5 h in healthy volunteers
  • ceftaroline and ceftaroline-M-1 are eliminated primarily through the kidney and half of the dose is excreted in the urine as an active drug, with a small amount excreted in the urine as ceftaroline-M-1
  • dosage adjustment may be needed in patients with moderate but not mild renal impairment
97
Q

5th Generation (Advanced) Cephalosporins

What are the adverse effects of ceftaroline?

A
  • generally mild
  • nausea, headache, pruritus, and rash (which infrequently require discontinuation of therapy)
  • occurrence of Clostridium difficile-induced diarrhea is rare with this novel cephalosporin
  • no evidence of hepatic, renal, or cardiac toxicity or any infection/fatalities
  • ceftaroline should not be used in cephalosporin sensitive patients
98
Q

5th Generation (Advanced) Cephalosporins

Ceftaroline Interactions

A
  • no clinical drug-drug interaction studies have been conducted with ceftaroline fosamil
  • neither ceftaroline fosamil nor ceftaroline inhibits the major cytochrome P450 isoenzymes
  • neither ceftaroline fosamil nor ceftaroline inhibits or induces the clearance of drugs that are metabolized by the cytochrome P450 isoenzymes
99
Q

5th Generation (Advanced) Cephalosporins

What are the warnings and precautions of ceftaroline?

A
  • hypersensitivity reactions
  • Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea
  • development of drug-resistant bacteria
100
Q

5th Generation (Advanced) Cephalosporins

What are the contraindications of ceftaroline?

A
  • known serious hypersensitivity to ceftaroline or other members of the cephalosporin class
  • anaphylaxis and anaphylactoid reactions (resemble generalized anaphylaxis but not IgE-mediated)
101
Q

5th Generation (Advanced) Cephalosporins

What is the mechanism of resistance of ceftaroline?

A
  • production of beta-lactamase enzymes
  • modification of target PBPs
  • impaired penetration of drug to target PBPs
  • shortage of autolytic enzyme
  • presence of an efflux pump
  • passage of the cephalosporins through Porin
102
Q

What are the 4 carbapenems?

A
  • imipenem
  • meropenem
  • doripenem
  • ertapenem
103
Q

Carbapenems

A
  • meropenem, imipenem/cilastatin, doripenem, and ertapenem are parenteral synthetic beta-lactams
  • derived from thienamycin, an antibiotic produced from Streptomyces cattleya
  • have beta-lactam ring, like penicillins and cephalosporins, but also have a methylene moiety in the ring
104
Q

Carbapenems

What are carbapenems the most reliable class of antibiotics against?

A

ESBL organisms and the SPICE A organisms (Serratia, Pseudomonas/Providencia, Indole-positive Proteus, Citrobacter, Enterobacter, and Acinetobacter)

  • possess the broadest spectrum of activity of all antimicrobials
  • active against gram-positive and gram negative organisms – broad spectrum
  • resistant to most beta-lactamases
105
Q

Carbapenems

What is the mechanism of action?

A

similar to other beta-lactams

106
Q

Carbapenems

What are some common characteristics?

A
  • all administered IV
  • half life = 1 hr (except ertapenem = 4 hrs; once daily)
  • bactericidal against: B. fragilis, Enterobacteriaceae, Pseudomonas, and gram-positive organisms
  • bacteriostatic against: Listeria and E. faecalis
107
Q

Carbapenems

Which carbapenems have CSF penetration?

A
  • meropenem
  • imipenem
108
Q

Carbapenems

Describe metabolism.

A

only meropenem is rapidly metabolized by kidneys

109
Q

Carbapenems

Describe excretion.

A

excreted by kidneys

110
Q

Carbapenems

What are the common side effects?

A
  • nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, seizures, eosinophilia, and neutropenia
  • cause seizures in patients with renal dysfunction
111
Q

Carbapenems

Describe the distribution of imipenem.

A
  • distributes to most tissues including the CNS
  • inactivated by the renal enzyme dehydropeptidase which lowers imipenem concentration and renders it ineffective
  • co-administered with cilastatin – cilastatin inhibits dehydropeptidase → increases drug concentration
112
Q

Carbapenems

What is meropenem?

A
  • another thienamycin derivative
  • has a 1-beta-methyl substitution in its side chain
  • this accounts for its differences in pharmacologic properties from imipenem
  • co-administration with a DHP-I inhibitor is NOT required
113
Q

Carbapenems

What is doripenem?

A
  • broad spectrum carbapenem antibiotic
  • structural analog of imipenem
  • unlike imipenem, doripenem is resistant to cleavage by renal dehydropeptidase I
  • co-administration with cilastatin is NOT required
114
Q

Carbapenems

Pharmacokinetics of (?)

A
  • similar to imipenem
  • IV administration – dose adjustment is required in patients with renal insufficiency, generally safe and well tolerated, lower adverse event rate than imipenem
  • excretion – excreted unchanged into the urine by glomerular filtration and tubular secretion
115
Q

Carbapenems

Safety of Meropenem

A
  • even at higher doses, it still has a low risk of seizures and its gastrointestinal effects are not dose-dependent
    = as a result, meropenem doses can be elevated to improve efficacy and potentially reduce the emergence of resistant organisms
  • its safety at higher doses and lower CNS toxicity permit it to be used to treat bacterial meningitis
116
Q

Carbapenems

Describe the development of resistance to meropenem.

A
  • mechanisms by which P. aeruginosa resistance to meropenem is acquired are similar to those for imipenem
  • unlike imipenem, resistance to meropenem requires two independent mutations: mutation that reduces porin channels, and
    mutation that up-regulates efflux mechanisms (one of these mutations alone only reduces sensitivity to meropenem and does not confer resistance)
117
Q

Carbapenems

What is the mechanism of action of doripenem?

A
  • doripenem derives its bactericidal action from inhibition of PBPs and blocking cell wall synthesis
  • doripenem binds to several high MW PBPs including (PBPs 1, 2, 3 & 4)
  • binding intensity of doripenem is species specific – ie. PBP3 in P.aeruginosa, PBPs 1, 2 and 4 in S.aureus, and PBP2 in E.coli
  • results in defective cell walls, cell lysis and bacterial death
118
Q

Carbapenems

What is ertapenem?

A
  • unique member of the carbapenem group
  • was and remains the least prescribed of the carbapenems
  • pharmacologic properties and spectrum of activity are different from imipenem and meropenem
  • belongs to its own separate class within the carbapenem group
119
Q

Carbapenems

Describe the pharmacokinetics of ertapenem.

A
  • safe and well tolerated
  • intramuscular or intravenous administration
  • high protein-binding percentage and long half-life
  • once daily administration/low risk of seizure
  • less susceptible to renal insufficiency
  • IM administration is irritating → drug is formulated with 1% lidocaine
120
Q

Carbapenems

Describe the efficacy of ertapenem.

A
  • limited activity against gram-negative, non-fermenting bacteria such a P. aeruginosa, B. cepacia, and Acinetobacter spp
  • clinically used to treat infections with ESBL-producing pathogens, but ertapenem activity is lower against these bacteria than other carbapenems
  • use is limited to treating serious community-acquired infections
  • should not be routinely used empirically to treat nosocomial infections
121
Q

Carbapenems

What are the adverse effects of ertapenem?

A
  • signs of an allergic reaction include: hives, difficulty breathing, swelling of face, tongue, or throat
  • loss of balance or coordination, trouble walking
  • tremors, twitching, or rigid (very stiff) muscles
  • seizures (black-out or convulsions) or
  • diarrhea that is watery or bloody
122
Q

Carbapenems

How do carbapenems induce neurotoxicity (seizure)?

A

carbapenems bind to GABA receptors

  • decreased valproic acid levels and absorption
  • antibiotics inhibition of intestinal transporters
  • decrease enterohepatic circulation of valproic acid
  • decreased gut bacterial beta glucuronidase
  • increased valproic acid in erythrocytes
123
Q

Carbapenems

What are the contraindications to ertapenem?

A
  • patients who have demonstrated anaphylactic reactions to beta-lactams
  • probenecid increases the risk of ertapenem’s side effects
  • effectiveness of divalproex sodium or valproic acid may be decreased by ertapenem
124
Q

Carbapenems

What is the spectrum of activity of ertapenem?

A
  • ertapenem has been designed to be effective against gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria – also effective against anaerobic bacteria
  • not effective against MRSA, ampicillin-resistant enterococci, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, or Acinetobacter species
  • does NOT cover Pseudomonas, but does still cover ESBL (main advantage is convenient once daily dosing – great outpatient IV drug)
125
Q

Carbapenems

What is the mechanism of resistance for all 4 carbapenems?

A
  • bacterial specific beta-lactamase
  • mutation: loss of the outer membrane porin → transport of the drug into the cell is blocked
  • cross-resistance may occur between the carbapenems
  • efflux pump more active – not for imipenem, but for meropenem and doripenem
126
Q

Monobactams

What is aztreonam?

A
  • relatively resistant to beta-lactamases
  • active against gram negative organisms
  • inactive against gram positive organisms or anaerobic strains
  • well tolerated, little or no allergic reactions in patients who are sensitive to penicillins or cephalosporins
  • may be useful as a replacement for aminoglycoside antibiotic
127
Q

Monobactams

Describe the spectrum.

A

narrow spectrum

  • active only against aerobic gram-negative bacteria (Enterobacteriaceae, pseudomonas)
  • no gram-positive or anaerobic activity
  • aztreonam IV or IM (no oral admiration)
  • therapeutic concentrations in CSF if meninges inflamed
128
Q

Monobactams

What are the adverse effects?

A
  • side effects include phlebitis, skin rash, inflammation abnormal liver function
  • little cross reactivity with penicillin
129
Q

Fosfomycin

What is fosfomycin?

A
  • derivative of phosphonic acid
  • isolated from a Streptomyces fradiae strain
  • broad spectrum antibiotic – effective against both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria, including ESBL-producer strains
  • bactericidal
130
Q

Fosfomycin

Describe the absorption.

A
  • fosfomycin trometamol is more soluble and stable in the gastric acidic environment.
  • oral administration – rapidly absorbed and converted to the free acid
  • bioavailability (37-44%)
131
Q

Fosfomycin

Describe the distribution.

A
  • fosfomycin is distributed to the kidneys, bladder wall, prostate, and seminal vesicles
  • fosfomycin is not protein bound
132
Q

Fosfomycin

Describe the elimination.

A
  • fosfomycin is excreted unchanged in urine via glomerular filtration (38%) and feces (18%)
  • mean half-life elimination is 5.7 hours
  • CrCl 7-54 mL/min is 50 hours
  • urinary excretion decreases to 11% in patients with CrCl 7-54 mL/min
  • urinary concentrations remain >100 mg/L for at least 30-40 h post-dose
133
Q

Fosfomycin

Mechanism of Action

134
Q

Fosfomycin

Describe resistance to fosfomycin.

A

mainly chromosomal:

  • due to mutations that interfere with transport systems required for fosfomycin uptake resulting in reduced intracellular concentrations of the drug
  • plasmid mediated resistance:
  • however, these mutations are uncommon
135
Q

Fosfomycin

What is fosfomycin effective against?

A
  • all ESBL positive E. coli, P. mirabilis
  • methicillin-resistant S. saprophyticus strains isolated from urine
  • KPC-producing K. pneumoniae isolates (82%)
136
Q

Fosfomycin

Describe fosfomycin and renal failure.

A
  • half-life of fosfomycin is increased in patients with chronic severe renal failure, significantly (up to 50 h), with low recovery in urine
  • in case of creatinine clearance is >10 mL/min: reduce the dose
137
Q

Fosfomycin

What are the side effects of fosfomycin?

A
  • well tolerated, very low incidence of side effects
  • diarrhea and nausea are most common but mild