Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

IFR renewal > IFR > Flashcards

IFR Flashcards

1
Q

What does conditional indicate on the chart?

A

Conditional = condition placed on MDA/DA i.e.100 ft reduced on accurate QNH. 50 ft increased on area QNH.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What should be adjusted to compensate for wind?

A

Wind effect, timing and heading should be adjusted to compensate. 1sec/knot.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the limits for rate one turns?

A

Bank angle, max 25 deg or rate 1, the lesser of the two.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the maximum speed for a star below A100?

A

Max speed for a STAR below 10000 is 250 kts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the max speed, AoB, and minimum climb gradient in a SID?

A

Max speed for a SID is 290 IAS and 15 DEG average AoB. 2.5 + 0.8% = 3.3 standard or greater.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Can a SID be flown at an uncontrolled aerodrome?

A

SID can be flown at an uncontrolled aerodrome where a SID is valid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Can a STAR be flown at an uncontrolled aerodrome?

A

Yes a STAR can be flown provided that ATC are aware of your intentions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Under what conditions may you descend below the LSALT MSA?

A 
Descent below MSA/LSALT	-  
ASL/ALT (ATC)
DME/GPS arrival - INST APP - HLD,
Climb after departure provided terrain and obstical clearance can be assured,
VMC day.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the standard vertical calculations for LSALT?

A

LSALT OBST - >360 ft = min 360 + 1000

<500 ft = 1500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Outline PANOPS chart criteria?

A

PANOPS- Circle area = 3 Nm ARP
(RW > 1800m) = 3 Nm THLD
OBST = 400
IAS = 175

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which aircraft are allowed in class A airspace?

A

IFR AC only in class A airspace

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Is the highest obstacle always shown on instrument approach charts?

A

OBST - Chart does not show highest terrain/obst within the circling area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When visual during an instrument approach what does visual contact mean?

A

VIS contact - RWY/THLD, PAPI/TVASI, other markings identifiable withe the RW.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When can you descend below the MDA/DA, and what is the criteria?

A

Within circling area, VIS > MIN, VIS contact, intercepts normal approach path on DW/BSE/FNL.

DAY, Whilst complying with the above, not below the min obstical clearance for the category of aircraft.
A, 300 1.68. B, 300, 2.66. C, 400, 4.2. D, 400, 5.28, E, 500, 6.94.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When is visual circling permitted in no circling areas?

A

Visual circling by day is permitted inside no circling areas on chart in VMC only.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Visual approach by day?

A

DAY not below LSALT/MSA
“ “ DME/GPS STEP
“ “ MDA
within 30 Nm

		clear of cloud
		sight of ground or water
		VMC
		min terrain clearance
		(must maintain track until 5 Nm of AD)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Visual approach by night?

A 
not below LSALT/MSA
“       “    DME/GPS STEP
 “       “    MDA
clear of cloud
sight of ground or water
VMC
min terrain clearance
(must maintain track until 5 Nm of AD)

within the circling area
“ 5/7 Nm (ILS) TVASI/PAPI
“ 10/14 Nm (ILS < full deflectoin)

Note, 14 Nm is referenced to SYD 34L 16L as there is an approach fix here and it has been surveyed.
Also if in CTA the PIC must maintain at least 500ft above CTA steps.
In CTA must maintain track until 5NM by day, or within the circling area by night unless above.
OCTA must be established by 3NM for straight in approaches.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Under what conditions must you conduct a missed approach?

A

NAV tolerance,
AID suspect,
NOT VISUAL at MDA/DA, it must be commenced when the DA is reached,
track to the MAP first then the published missed approach,
from circling area, a turn towards the RWY ,
establish the AC on track from the MAP,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What obstical clearance is provided during a missed approach?

A

100 ft OBST clearance at 2.5, 3.3, 5.0%,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the criteria for position fixing?

A

NDB/VOR/DME/GPS
Intersecting tracks >45 deg NDB/VOR/LOC
NDB < 30 Nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the rated coverage of an ILS?

A

2000 ft AGL + or - 10 deg LOC 25 Nm

5000 ft AGL 50 Nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the rated coverage of DME/VOR?

A

20000 180 Nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the requirements when conducting a DME arrival?

A

AC must be established within the sector.
Manoeuvring within the sector is permitted before the FAF.
The use of other DME etc not specified on the the chart is not allowed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the requirements prior and when conducting a GPS arrival?

A

Database must be current and accurate, not able to be changed, and RAIM available and checked before descent. For a GPS arrival the navaid must be used for track guidance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

For IFR navigation, what is the maximum time interval between fixes?

A

NAV 120min, VMC 30min.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the order of precision?

A

LOC, GNSS, VOR, NDB.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the minimum NAV equipment for RPT operations?

A

2 ADF or VOR or TSO145 or 146 GNSS, and one DME, or GPS.

Or, 2 145 or 146 GNSS or equivalent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Can an aircraft depart without a serviceable WX radar?

A

2 pilot RPT = radar, can depart as long as there are no TS or cloud associated with severe turbulence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Can a aircraft depart without a serviceable GPWS?

A

> 15000kg can depart in accordance with the MEL as long as it cannot be repaired at departure aerodrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Can an aircraft depart without a serviceable TCAS?

A

> 15000KG and 30 passengers are required to have TCAS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the standard phraseology used when RAIM is un available?

A

ATC must be informed if RAIM is unavailable “NEGATIVE RAIM”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Describe the standard lighting requirements for alternates?

A

Refer to notes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

With regards to lighting what are the SBY power requirements at the alternate?

A

Notes; No alternate is required if fuel for first light + 10 min is carried. The alternate for RPT OPS must be one which is a non PAL system, or PAL with responsible. No need for SBY PWR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the responsible person requirements for lighting?

A

Departure -10 min before ETD, 30 min after TOFF.
Arrival - 30 min before ETA, until after taxi complete.
They must be competent. (someone who has received training)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the requirements for a partial lighting failure?

A

Partial RWY LGT failure, controlled AD in VMC there are no requirements, IMC the VIS must be the published min multiplied by a factor of 1.5.

37
Q

What is the minimum lighting at a RPT operated aerodrome?

A

RWY, wind sock, obstical, and apron lighting.

38
Q

Disregarding weather when must an alternate be provided?

A

Must be suitable and not require an alternate.
>SCT below ALT min
VIS < ALT min
PROB FG, DU, mist, or any other phenonomen reducing the VIS
TS, could be TSRASN i.e. thunderstorm with RA, SN, PL, GR, GS
PROV or not available, unless safe return within 60 min, or forecast is obtained 30 min after departure.
XWIND > ACFT

39
Q

What are the weather forecast buffer and holding periods?

A

FM + BECMG for the duration stated
INTER 30 + TEMPO 60 min
note: when associated with TAF a buffer of 30 min each side is required. Fuel carried in this regard should only be sufficient to provide holding until the end of this 30min period.
TTF for 3 h, there are no buffers required for anything within this forecast.
note; TAF must be valid 30 min before, and 60 min after ETA.

40
Q

What are the TOFF separation minima in CTA and CTAF?

A

Must not TOFF until the departing aircraft has, crossed the upwind end of the RWY, or
commenced a turn, or
RWY >1800M the preceding aircraft is 1800M ahead, or
preceding aircraft has landed and has vacated the runway, or
where a preceding aircraft has landed on another runway and stopped or crossed the RWY.

Note: ATC can use anticipation when issuing clearances.

41
Q

Describe visual spear true and pilot responsability?

A

Will only be issued when the pilot can maintain VMC below the MVA/LSALT/MSA. It is the pilots responsibility to be >500ft above the CTA steps.

42
Q

On departure when must an aircraft be established on track?

A

Within 5NM of departure aerodrome.

43
Q

What are the LND separation requirements for CTA and CTAF?

A

Must not LND until the preceding arriving aircraft has departed the RWY, or
has landed and passed a point at least, 1000m from the threshold of the the RWY (CTA only), and will not backtrack.

44
Q

What is the go around procedure to be followed in CTA and CTAF?

A

GO AROUND, during a visual approach the PIC must maintain RWY track and climb until advised by ATC. The missed approach procedure should be followed if conducting and instrument approach in VMC.

45
Q

What are the boundaries of a CTAF and what procedures should be followed when overflying?

A

CTAF = 10NM at an altitude where conflict could occur.

Overfly at 2000 ft when joining the circuit for safety, joining base is legal but not recommended by CASA!!!!!

46
Q

What are the alternate NAVAID requirements?

A

1 NDB/VOR = 2 ADF/VOR

1 NDB, 1 VOR = 1 ADF, 1 VOR

47
Q

What are the no AID aerodrome requirements?

A

Can be navigated via the IFR, and
Cloud not >SCT below the LSALT + 500 ft, and
VIS not <8000 meters.
note; for AC above 5700 kg no aid AD CANNOT be planned to by night! (the reason for this is because of the circling area size)

48
Q

What are the altimeter tolerance rules?

A

+ or - 60 ft, >75 ft US
60 ft - 75 ft ok to first point of landing
note; where the first check is indicating US then the AC is able to position to another location on the AD to re check.

49
Q

What are the sources of local QNH?

A

ATS, AWS, TAF, or setting QFE.

50
Q

What are the sources for actual QNH?

A

ATC, ATIS, AWIS, CASA APP OBSERVER. It is valid for 15 min.

51
Q

What are the rules for setting QNH?

A

QNH set before IAF - actual, forecast terminal, or forecast area.
note; actual reduces minima by 100 ft, area increases forecast minima by 50 ft.

52
Q

What are the CAT I lighting requirements?

A

HIALS OUT 1.5 km
HIRLS ON 1.2 km,
note: AC manually flown using FD or HUDLS, or AP coupled to the GS and LOC to the DA. And AC is equipped with a failure warning system on the INST.

0.8 km, if instrumented RVR in THLD zone unavailable.

53
Q

What is the standard TOFF minima?

A 
ME Airplane,
2 pilot operated,
single pilot operated jet plane,
single pilot operated propellor with auto feather,
meets OBST clearance CAO 20.7.1B.

Ceiling 0 ft,

Visibility 550 ft if 60 m spaced illuminated RWY edge lights, CL marking or LGTS,
non controlled or no ATC AD must be day only and AFRU.

or 800 m.

54
Q

Special alternate minima requirements?

A

DUAL ILS/VOR with LOC/GP, marker beacons (MB), or MB DME,
DUAL NDB if required for the ILS.

note; not available when METAR/SPECI, forecasting services, or control service, not available.
If there is a predicted unservicability of one VHF aid, or the facilities for use of the special alternate minima are unservicable. Then Air services will notify by NOTAM the status of the AID or adjustmet to the minima.

55
Q

What are the standard holding pattern sector entries, and speeds /time?

A

Direct, parallel, and offset.

FL140 and below, 230 kt, 1 min,
FL140 - FL200, 240 kt, 1.5 min,
>FL200, 265 kt, 1.5 min,
Standard holding pattern direction is right hand.

56
Q

What’re the standard holding pattern sector entries?

A

1, parallel
2, offset
3, direct
note; based on HDG of + or - 5 deg, or half scale. Max 1.5 min outbound.
The start of the hold is the WP/DME distance where the outbound turn is commenced.

57
Q

Where is the FAF on all instrument approaches?

A

On completion of reversal procedure and within tolerance, unless specified otherwise.

58
Q

What are the different transponder codes?

A

Unlawful interference 7500
Emergency change of levels 7700
Radio failure 7600

59
Q

What is the procedure followed when GP or locator NDB has failed for a ILS?

A

NDB failure you must join outside of the OM or as directed by ATC,
GP failure only LOC is available,
MB alternate fixes on chart must be used for ALT checks.

59
Q

Define NOSIG?

A

no sig weather within the period of the TTF

60
Q

Define SPECI?

A

> BKN 30 deg var or 20kt, or gust 10kt. TS, HA, FZRA, FG etc. Temp variation of 5 deg, QNH 2.

61
Q

Define SIGMET?

A

TS, GR, SVR TURB or ICING, MOUNT WVS, SS, DU, and VA. Notify ATC (AIREP SPECIAL) if encountered.

62
Q

Define CAVOK?

A

vis >10km NSC <5000ft.

63
Q

Define RMK?

A

When BKN or more is above 5000.

64
Q

Define NCD?

A

no cloud detected (30min average, 2*weighting given to last 10 min)

65
Q

Define PROB30/40?

A

If TS then greater than 50% probability.

66
Q

Define XW?

A

on the ATIS if >12kts for multi engined aircraft

67
Q

Define and decode RVR?

A

R19L/900U (runway 19 left / vis 900m up tendency) 10 minutes.
R19/900UV1000U ( as above but V is visibilty, all is at 1min intervals).
R19L/M0050 (as above and M when vis is less than 50 meters).

68
Q

Define RF##.#/##.## ?

A

first 3 is last 10 min, second 4 is since 0900 local

69
Q

Define //, ////, ////// ?

A

// = weather, //// = visibility, ////// = cloud.

70
Q

With regards to aim points, how do you determine the RWY length?

A

Aim Point = 150m intervals from the RW end. LDA > 2400m = 6, 1500 - 2400 = 5, 1200 - 1500 = 4, 900 - 1200 = 3, <900 = 2.

71
Q

Define stopway markings on the RWY?

A

Stop way markings are 60m from end of strip.

72
Q

Describe taxi lines and parking bay lines?

A

Continuous yellow line for taxi position lines, may be broken yellow and or white for alternate.
o = wingspan >15m triangle = <15m, | = normal (AC type).

73
Q

Describe RWY centreline lights?

A

RWY CL marking = white until 900m then alternating red/white, then red for the last 300m.

74
Q

Describe RWY exit lights?

A

RWY exit marking are alternating green and yellow until clear then green.

75
Q

Describe CAT I lighting bars?

A

CAT I lighting bars are at 150m intervals extending 900m from RWY end.

76
Q

Describe PAL limitations ?

A

PAL 30 - 60 min, flash for last 10 min, must be activated within 15NM and or above LSALT.

77
Q

Describe runway conditions?

A

Dry!
Damp = surface shows change in color,
Wet = soaked but there is no standing water,
Water patches = patches of standing water are visible,
Flooded = extensive standing water is visible.

78
Q

Define the three different levels of braking efficiency?

A 
Good = full control as per normal,
Medium = full control providing that correct technic has been used,
Poor = there may be significant deterioration.
79
Q

Vat speed?

A

121 - 140

80
Q

Final speed?

A

115 - 160

81
Q

Initial and intermediate speed?

A

160 - 240

82
Q

Visual circle speed?

A

180

83
Q

Missed approach speed?

A

240

84
Q

Describe TIBA procedures?

A 
>= FL200 128.95
<   FL200  126.35 or if in class G airspace the appropriate FIA frequency.

Listening watch as soon as practicable after take off, or 10 minutes, (either side of entering and exiting the TIBA airspace, or crossing a reporting point), or 20 minute intervals between distant reporting points, or 2 - 5 minutes before a level change and at the time of the change of level, or whenever necessary.
No need to acknowledge calls unless required.
Do not change levels unless operationally required. If so then turn all available lights on.
The pilot must make a broadcast within 15 minutes on the next FIA frequency when leaving a TIBA airspace to obtain a clearance.

85
Q

What are the standard radio failure procedures?

A

Try COM 2, then, State TRANSMITTING BLIND with all calls,

Remain in VMC, land at most suitable AD report to ATS,

NO LIMIT, Proceed with last ATC rout clearance and clime to planned level, or
LIMIT, Maintain ALT for 3 min, or 1 HLD pattern, for 3 min, then proceed with rout clearance, or

VECTOR, Maintain VECTOR, or MSA, for 2 min, then proceed with rout clearance, or

HLD, Complete 1 HLD pattern, then proceed with latest ATC clearance.

DESTINATION= 25, Track to destination FPL, as amended by ATC, Descend, standard OPS, or FPL, ALT for approach, Carry out approach assigned by ATC if directed, to circling MDA, Track to aid once within 25 Nm.

86
Q

Outline the carrage of radio requirements for RPT/IFR?

A

VHF, radios are to be carried on board a RPT aircraft, although where the continuous contact is not able with VHF, the supplementary carriage of HF is not required providing continuous radio contact can be maintained with a suitably trained person on the ground.

87
Q

At what distance must you be established for a straight in approach?

A

3Nm

IFR renewal (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions