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ID Uworld Flashcards

1
Q

what causes bacillary angiomatosis

A

bartonella gram neg bacillus

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2
Q

tx for bacillary angiomatosis in HIV patient

A

oral erythromycin

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3
Q

most common secondary bacterial pneumonia

A

Staph, strep, H flu

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4
Q

blood streaked sputum with multiple midfield lung cavities on CXR

A

acute necrotizing pneumonia with secondary penumatoceles

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5
Q

what pathogen causes post viral URI necrotizing pulmonary bronchopneumonia

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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6
Q

severe watery diarrhea in AIDs patient with CD4

A

cryptosporidium

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7
Q

watery diarrhea in AIDs patient with high fever and CD4

A

MAC

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8
Q

small volume frequent diarrha

with hematochezia and abdominal pain in AIDs patient with CD4

A

CMV

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9
Q

what antibiotics can you use for UTI in pregnancy

A

nitrofurantoin
amoxicillin
augmentin
cephaexin

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10
Q

differene of preseptal and orbital cellulitis

A

preseptal there is no paint with eye movement or vision impairment

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11
Q

+HbsAg
+HbeAg
+antiHbcAg IgG

A

chronic hep B

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12
Q

Tx chronic hep B

A

entecavir and tenofovir

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13
Q

rubella

A

german measles

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14
Q

congenital rubella

A

sensorineural hearing loss
intellectual disability
cardiac anoamlies
cataracts, glaucoma (leukocoria)

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15
Q

congenital CMV

A

unilateral deafness, blindness from chorioretinitis

HSM purpura and jaundice

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16
Q

congenital toxo

A

chorioretinits, hydrocephalus, intracranial calcifications

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17
Q

empiric Tx for meningitis in immunocompromised

A

vanco, ampicillin cefepime

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18
Q

Tx meninigitis 2-50 years old

A

vanco and third generation cephalosporin

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19
Q

14 day old infant with spasms of whole body
poor suckling
no antenatal care
swollen and erythematous umbilical cord

A

tetanus

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20
Q

tx cat bites

A

augmentin

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21
Q

pathogen in cat bites

A

pasteurella multocida

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22
Q

complication meningococcemia

A

waterhouse friederichsens syndrome

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23
Q

what is waterhouse friederichsen syndrome

A

sudden vasomotor collapse and skin rash due to adrenal hemorrhage

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24
Q

most common ventilator associated pneumonias

A

Pseudomonas, E coli, klebsiella, MRSA and strep

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25
Q

pregnant lady with erythema migrans and Hx tick bite

A

amoxicillin

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26
Q

common extrapulmonary findings in coccidiomycosis

A

erythema multiforme and erythema nodosum

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27
Q

hep C in pregnancy, next step

A

hep A and B vaccinations

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28
Q

disseminated histo

A

lymphadenopathy, pancytopenia and HSM

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29
Q

how to Dx Histo

A

urinary antigen testing and careful fungal stains

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30
Q

Tx mucormycosis by rhizopus

A

debridement and IV amphotericin B

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31
Q

ludwig angina

A

rapidly progressive bilateral cellulitis of submandicular and sublingual spaces
arise in molars

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32
Q

pathogen for submanidbular cellulitis

A

strep and anaerobes

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33
Q

next step for HIV stick in healthcare setting

A

blood testing and triple therapy

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34
Q

Bone marrow transplant in AML patient now has abdominal pain, diarrhea and cry cough
CXR shows bilateral diffuse patchy infiltrates

A

cytomegalovirus

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35
Q

CMV infection in post bone marrow transplant patients

A 
upper and lower GI ulcers
bone marrow suppression
arthralgias
myalgias
esophagitis
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36
Q

rash starting on trunk and spreads to whole body including palms and soles

A

syphilis

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37
Q

initial testing for syphilis

A

RPR and VDRL

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38
Q

Tx syphilis

A

IM benzathine penicillin

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39
Q

jarisch herxheimer reaction

A

acute febrile illness with HA and myalgias after IM penicillin for syphillis

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40
Q

immunocompromixed patient with dense consolidation on CXR

CT shows halo signs around pulmonary nodules

A

aspergillosis

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41
Q

aspergillosis pulmonary. cXR finding and CT finding

A

cavitary lesion on CXR

CT- pulm nodules with halo sign or lesions with air crescent

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42
Q

marked eyelid swelling in newborn with produse purulent discharge

A

gonococcal conjunctivitis

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43
Q

Tx for gonococcal conjunctivitis

A

IN or IM ceftriaxone or cefotaxime

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44
Q

when does chlamydial conjunctivitis occur in newborn

A

5-14 days

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45
Q

Signs chlamydial conjunctivits

A

welling, chemosis,

watery or bloody or mucopurulent eye discharge

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46
Q

Tx chlamydial conjunctivitis

A

Oral erythromycin

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47
Q

why is topical eye ointment erythromycin given

A

to prevent gonococcal

has no activity on chlamydial

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48
Q

progression of bordetella pertussis in kids

A 
1-2 weeks mild cough and rhinitis
2-6 weeks coughing with inspiratory whoop
vomiting after coughing spells
apnea and cyanosis in infants
weeks-months: resolve gradually
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49
Q

Tx bordetella pertussis

A

azithromycin, erythromycin, clarithromycin

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50
Q

labs in bordetella pertussis

A

marked lymphocytosis

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51
Q

Tx for PID

A

inpatient cefotetan and doxy

clinda or gentamicin IV

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52
Q

criteria for Dx PID

A 
fever
leukocytosis
inc ESR
purulent cervical discharge
adenexal tenderness, cervical motion tenderness
lower abdominal tenderness
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53
Q

complications untreated PID

A

tubo ovarian abscesses, abscess rupture, pelvic peritonitis, sepsis

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54
Q

when to Tx someone with PId inpatient?

A

when high fever, failure to respond to antibiotics, nausea and vomiting, pregnancy and those at risk for noncompliance

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55
Q

Dx CMV diarrhea in AIDs patient

A

colonoscopy

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56
Q

findings on colonoscopy for CMV in AIDs

A

esosinophilic, intranuclear and basophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions

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57
Q

Tx for disseminated histoplasmosis

A

Itraconazole

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58
Q

What are the HACEK organisms

A 
H aphrophilus
Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomintans
Cardiobacterium hominis
E corrodens
Kingella kingae
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59
Q

when do you see Eikenella corrodens

A

poor dentition and periodontal infection

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60
Q

colonic neoplasia and endocarditis

likely pathogen causeing IE

A

strep gallolyticus

S bovis biotype I

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61
Q

endocarditis caused by enterococci is usually spread how

A

UTI

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62
Q

unilateral acute lymphadenitis in child

A

staph or strep pyogenes

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63
Q

bartonella henselase

A

cat scratch

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64
Q

bilateral acute lymphadenitis

A

adenovirus or EBV

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65
Q

patient with CF and recurrent sinopulmonary infections

most common pathogen

A

staph aureus

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66
Q

what antibiotic is prioritized in CF patient with Hx recurrent hospitalizations

A

IV vanc for MRSA

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67
Q

congenital syphilis

A

intermittent fever
osteitis
osteochondritis
mucocutaneous lesions, lymphadenopathy, hepatomegaly and persistent rhinitis

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68
Q

congenital rubella syndrome

A

microcephaly, microphthalmia and meningoencephalitis

sensorinueral deafness, cardiac anomalies, congenital glaucoma and cataracts

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69
Q

congenital herpes simplex

A

enecephalitis, chorioretinits, disseminated disease

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70
Q

congenital toxo

A

chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus and intracranial calcifications

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71
Q

large painful lymphadenopathy in inguinal area

A

chlamydia trachomatis

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72
Q

frothy green discharge

A

trich vaginalis

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73
Q

worsening croup, next step

A

racemic epinephrine before intubation

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74
Q

pteterm infant neonatal sepsis pathogen

A

E coli > GBS

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75
Q

Tx neonatal sepsis

A

ampicillin and gentamicin

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76
Q

prophylaxis for MAC in AIDs

A

CD4

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77
Q

clinical features blastomycosis

A

lung: acute or chronic pneumonia
skin: wartlike lesions with violaceous hue and skin ulcers
bones: osteomyelitis
GU: prostatitis and epididymo-orchitis
CNS can have meningitis or abscesses

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78
Q

Tx blasto

A

ampho B

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79
Q

tularemia

A

acute unilateral cervical lymphadenopathy with fever chills, HA and mailaise
zoonosis- after contact with rabbits, hamsters or blocc sucking arthropods

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80
Q

Tx for H flu type B meningitis

A

dexamethasone

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81
Q

on CT see a cyst with invaginated sclex

A

neurocysticcercosis

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82
Q

when do you give meningitis booster

A

age 16-21

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83
Q

what are the live attenuated vaccines

A

MMR
varicella
yellow fever
intranasal influenza

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84
Q

clinical presentatoin of rash in german measles (rubella)

A

spreads head down rapidly
maculopapular blanching
arthritis

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85
Q

rash in measles

A

higher fever with head to toe rash that spreads gradually

no arthritis

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86
Q

rocky mountain spotted fever rash

A

over wrists and ankles involving palms and oles

spreads centrally

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87
Q

what helps with measles

A

Vit A

T cell cytopenia and thrombocytopenia

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88
Q

herpes viral esophagitis

A

herpetic lesions wit round ovoid ulcers

have concurrent oral HSC

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89
Q

CMV esophagitis

A

deep linear ulcers

distal esophagus

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90
Q

which pills cause pill esophagitis

A

K Cl
tetracyclines
bisphosphonates
NSAIDs

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91
Q

Echinococcus granulosus

A

hyatid cyst causer

from close contact wiht dogs and from tapeworm

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92
Q

CT liver shows what for hyatdid cysts

A

eggshell calcification

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93
Q

Tx of hyatid cyst

A

surgical resection with albendazole

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94
Q

risk of aspirating hyatid cyst

A

anaphylactic shock

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95
Q

Febrile neutropenia

A

medical EM

start empitic abitibiotic with pseudomonas coverage like pip taz, cefepime or meropenem

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96
Q

what causes scarlet fever

A

GAS that produce erythrogenic exotoxins

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97
Q

rash of scarlet fever

A

sand paper like

punctate or finely papular

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98
Q

Tx scarlet fever

A

Penicillin V

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99
Q

Dx amebic liver abscess

A

trophozoites in stool
serology
liver imaging

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100
Q

Tx for amebic liver abscess

A

metonidazole

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101
Q

if aspirate amebicliver abscess

A

usually sterile

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102
Q

atypical lymphocytes

A

large basophilic cells with vacuolated appearance

CMV

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103
Q

Triad disseminated gonorrhea

A

tenosynovitis
dermatitis
migratory asymmetric polyarthalgia without purulent arthritis

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104
Q

Tx disseminated gonorrhea

A

IV ceftriaxone for 1-2 weeks
then PO cefixime when clinically imporved
Tx azithro or doxy for chlamydia

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105
Q

Dx disseminated gonorrhea

A

2 sets blood cultures
synovial fluid
urethral cervical cultures

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106
Q

recurrent disseminated gonorrhea

A

check terminal complement activity

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107
Q

Prevent toxo in HIV

A

TMP SMX

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108
Q

inflammation of superficial dermaitis, raised well demarcated red rash

A

erysipelas- cellulitis

Group A beta hemolytic strep (pyogenes)

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109
Q

Tx for PCP pnuemonia

A

TMP SMX IV for acutely ill

can do pentamidine Iv
atovaquone oral
TMP SMX and dapsone
clinda and primaquine

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110
Q

presentation trichenellosis

A 
intestinal is within 1 week ingestion: ASx or abdominal pain, n/v/d
muscle stage (up to 4 weeks):
myositis, fevere, subungal splinter hemorrhages, periorbital edema, eosinophilia
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111
Q

areas of trichenella

A

Mexico, China, Thailand, Central Europe and argentina

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112
Q

what type of food has trichenella

A

undercooked or raw meat. usually pork

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113
Q

presentation dengue

A

fever, HA, retro orbital pain, rash and myalgia and arthralgias

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114
Q

typhoid fever

A

fever in first week then abdominal pain and salmon colored rash in 2nd week
HSM and abdominal complications like bleeding in 3rd week

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115
Q

rash in rubella

A

german measles
very fast spread of rash head to toe
also will ahve forscheimer spots with is patchy erythema on soft palate

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116
Q

rash in measles

A

more severe disease
rash is head to toe but very gradual and darker
and have high fever

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117
Q

Tx enterobiu vermicularis

A

pinworm
albendazole or pyrantel pamoate
Tx all household contacts

118
Q

ivermectin used for

A

strongyloidiasis

119
Q

presentaiton stronglyoides

A

urticaria, abdominal pain and respiratory problems

can have river blindness (ocular lesions)

120
Q

Tx trichmoniasis

A

metro for patient and partner

121
Q

Tx for cerebral toxo

A

sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine

122
Q

Tx actinomycosis

A

penicillin

123
Q

risk factors actinomycosis

A

dental caries, extractions
gingivitis
DM
malnutrition

124
Q

presentation actinomycosis

A

chronic slowly progressive non tender indurated mass
extends through tissue planes and makes fistulas and sinus tracts
mandible is most common spot

125
Q

yellow granular puss in infected tissue of mandible

A

actinomycosis

sulfur granules make color and consistency

126
Q

Dx actinomycosis

A

gram stain showing Gram + branching bacilli

127
Q

prosthetic joint infection within 3 months or surgery

A

staph aureus

gram - rods

128
Q

prosthetic joint infection after 3 months since surgery

A

staph epidermidis
propionibacterium
enterococci

129
Q

bacterial vaginosis

A

thin off white discharge with fishy odor
gardnerella
pH>4.5
clue cells

130
Q

Tx bacterial vaginosis

A

metro or clinda

131
Q

chlamydial cervicitis

A

mucopurulent discharge

erythematous friable cervix

132
Q

Tx chlamydial cervicitis

133
Q

thing green grey discharge, malorodours

strawberry cervix

A

trichomonas

134
Q

Dx chlamydial cervicitis

A

nuclein acid amplicficaiton testing

135
Q

Tx impetigo

A

topical mupirocin

136
Q

Tx extensive impetigo

A

oral antibiotics like cephalexin and clindamycin

137
Q

common causes of AIDs diarrhea

A

cryptosporidium, MAC, microsporidia, giardia and isospora belli

138
Q

HIV patient with profuse non bloody diarrhea, next step

A

stool sample to check for ova and parasites

139
Q

diarrhea from CMV

140
Q

how to Dx pertussis

141
Q

mumps

A

parotitis, otchitis

142
Q

congenial syphilis

A 
cutaneous lesions on palsm and soles
HSM
jaundice
anemia
rhinorrhea
143
Q

what to do for child non vaccinated exposued to chicken pox

A

administer vaccine

144
Q

Pertussis post exposure prophlyaxis

A

azithromycin for all close contacts

145
Q

what causes herpangina

A

coxsackie A

146
Q

herpetic gingivostomatitis

A

herpes simplex 1

clusters of small vesicles on the anterior oropharynx

147
Q

what to give infant born to mom with active Hep B

A

Hep B Ig and vaccine

148
Q

common pathogen for spinal pyogenic osteomyelitis

A

staph aureus

149
Q

best image for spinal osteomyelitis

150
Q

what causes acute rheumatic fever

A

strep pyogenes

151
Q

syndenham chorea

A

acute rheumatic fever by strep pyogenes

152
Q

which diarrheal illnesses last longer than 2 weeks

A 
cryptosporidium
cystoisopora
microsporidia
cyclospora
giardia
153
Q

diarrhea from entamoeba histolytica

A

abdominal pain and bloody

154
Q

cavitary inflammatory upper lung lesion

A

reactivation TB

155
Q

man from SE asia has lesion on left forearm that is hypopigmented and no pinprick sensation

A

do a skin Bx for leprosy

acid fast bacilli

156
Q

post influenza pneumonia pathogen

A

staph aureus

157
Q

Tx for cryptococcal meningoencephalitis

A

amphotericin plus flucytosine

then fluconazole PO

158
Q

what is grisefulvin used for

A

dermatophytosis and onychomycosis

159
Q

chemoproph for chloroquine resistant malaria

A

mefloquine

160
Q

what areas have chloroquine Resistant P falciparum

A

sub saharan africa

souther and southeast asia

161
Q

areas without P falciparum malaria

A

south america
mexico
korean peninsula

162
Q

what to use for chemoproph malaria without P falciparum

A

primaquine

163
Q

common cause nail pncture osteomyeltiis in adults

A

pseudmonase

164
Q

rubeola

165
Q

koplik spots

166
Q

Tx measles

A

vit A and supportive care

167
Q

how to Dx measles

A

PCR

acute and convalescent serology for anti measles IgM and IgG

168
Q

acute HIV

A

mono like syndrome with generalized macular rash and GI symptoms

169
Q

crystal induced nephopathy is a side effect of what HIV Rx

A

indinavir a protease inhibitor

170
Q

side effect didanosine

A

pancreatitis

171
Q

side effect abacavir

A

related HS syndrome

172
Q

which HIV med causes lactic acidosis

173
Q

which HIV meds cause steven johnsons syndrome

174
Q

nevirapine side effect

A

liver failure

175
Q

bit by dog w/o rabies vaccination but dog seems healthy

A

confine dog for 10 days and observe

no post exposure prophylaxis

176
Q

most common pneumonia in HIV patient

A

strep pneumo

177
Q

liver shows smooth round big cyst with daughter cysts in it

A

Echinococcus- tapeworm
usually from sheep
Hyatid cyst

178
Q

HIV patient with 6 mm PPD induration

A

Isoniazid and pyridoxine for 9 months

179
Q

when are live vaccines CI in HIV patients

180
Q

drug used for aspiration pneumonia

181
Q

nocardia gram stain

A

gram + rod branching
partially acid fast
aerobic

182
Q

lcinical features nocardia

A

systemic Sx
pneumonia like TB
CNS abscess
cutaneous

183
Q

Tx nocardia

184
Q

keys for legionella pneumonia

A

recent travel on cruise or hotel

185
Q

how does legionella p spread

186
Q

signs legionella

A 
high fever
bradycardia for high fever
neuro Sx of confusion
diarrhea
does not respond to beta lactam or aminoglycoside
187
Q

labs in legionella

A

hyponatremia
hepatic dysfunction
hematuria and proteinura

188
Q

hwo to Dx legionella

A

urinary Ag

189
Q

give what with isoniazid

A

pyridoxine to prevent neuropathy

190
Q

pregnant woman + syphilis.
allergic to penicillin
Tx?

A

first do skin testing to confirm tru allergy

penicillin desensitization

191
Q

CSF analysis in herpes encephalitis

A

inc WBC (lymphocytes
normal glucose
increased protein

192
Q

Tx herpes encephalitis

A

IV acyclovir

193
Q

findings in CSF for viral meningitis

A

WBC 100-1000
glucose 40-70
protein

194
Q

CSF in TB meningitis

A

WBC 5-1000

250 protein

195
Q

what viruses cause meningitis

A

non polio enteroviruses

echo and coxsackie

196
Q

most common pathogen for acute bacterial parotitis

A

staph aureus

197
Q

most common pathogen causing croup

A

parainfluenza

198
Q

Tx for bacterial vaginosis

A

metronidazole

199
Q

clue cells

A

bacterial vaginosis

200
Q

best screening for HIV

A

p24 Ag and HIV Ab

201
Q

causes of impetigo

A

staph aureus
GAS
s pyogenes

202
Q

complications of impetigo

A

post strep glomerulonephritis

203
Q

step to confirm IE

A

bacterial blood cultures

204
Q

Tx nocardia

205
Q

Tx to prevent HIV transmission in pregnany

A

triple therapy

206
Q

widened prevertebral space in little kid drooling in resp distress

A

retropharyngeal abscess

207
Q

cutaneous larva migrans

A

hookworm
sandboxes and beaches
severely pruritic elevated serpinginous reddish brown lesions on the skin

208
Q

vaccines for post splenectomy

A

Meningo, H flu and PCV13 in 2 weeks

209
Q

Tx candidal esophagitis

A

oral fluconazole

210
Q

patient with PID from gonorrhea. should test for

A

syphilis. Tx for chlamydia

211
Q

what are the strep viridans group

A

mitis, oralis, mutans and sobrinus and milleri and saguinis

212
Q

patient confirmed with syphilis, do what other screening?

A

HIV with ELISA

213
Q

patients with mono are at risk for what complication

A

autoimmune hemolytic anemia

214
Q

how to confirm autoimmune hemolytic anemia from mono

A

IgM col agglutinin Ab “anti-i Ab”

coombs +

215
Q

HIv patient with fevers, HA and signs of ICP (papilledema)

A

cryptococcal meningitis

216
Q

most predisposing factor for acute bacterial sinusitis

217
Q

bacillary angiomatosis

A

bartonella

218
Q

risk of Bc bacillary angiomatosis

219
Q

Tx pinwrom

A

mebendazole

220
Q

Tx for human bite

221
Q

Tx for dog bite

222
Q

best testing for HIV in infant under 18 mo old

A

PCR because passage of maternal Ab will confound Ab test

223
Q

CSF meningitis

A

inc WB
inc protein
dec glucose

can have peteichiae and purpura

224
Q

fever, fatigue, pharyngitis, polymorphous rash after taking amoxicillin or amplicillin

225
Q

most common cause meningitis in 18 month old

A

N meningitis

226
Q

pneumonia vaccines

A

immunocompromised or special population receive PPSV23 once

then PCV13 followed by PPSV23 at age 65

227
Q

rash in mycoplasma pneumonia

A

erythema multiforme

228
Q

IV drug use, pulmonary symptoms and cavitary lesions in lung on CT

A

septic emboli from IE

229
Q

common pathogen of septic emboli from IE

A

Staph aureus

lesions usually in lung periphery

230
Q

Tx for healthy young male except he has syphliis and is allergic to penicillin

231
Q

Tx to person with tertiary syphilis allergic to penicillin

A

ceftriaxone

232
Q

what can cause subcutneous empysema

A

severe coughing paroxysms
pneumothorax
ruptured esophagus

order CXR to rule out pneumo

233
Q

which patienets are at higher risk IE

A

drug IV users

those with MVP and regurg

234
Q

septic arthritis pathogens in

A

staph
GBS
gram - bacilli

235
Q

septic arthritis if child > 3 mo

A

staph
GAS
strep pneumo

236
Q

first step after determining septic arthritis

A

arthrocentesis

237
Q

doxycycline is contraindicated in

A

pregnant women and children

238
Q

lymes Tx for 7 year old

A

amoxicillin or cefuroxamine

239
Q

pathogens of cellulitis

A

beta hemolytic strep and staph aureus

240
Q

Tx for cellulitis with systemic Sx of fever, rigors, chills, fatigue, confusion

A

nafcillin or cefazolin

241
Q

Disseminated MAC infection

A

fever, cough,a bdominal pain, diarrhea, night sweats, weight loss
splenomegaly
elevated alk phos
CD4

242
Q

first line Tx for disseminated MAC

A

azithromycin or clarithromycin

243
Q

trypanosomiasis

A

East africa

acute febrile illness with chancre, myocarditis and progression to CNS involvement

244
Q

babesiosis

A

endemic area with tick bite
ixodes tick
NE USu
causes hemolysis of RBC

245
Q

Sx babesiosis

A

jaundice, hemoglobinuria, renal failure and death

246
Q

babesiosis usually in what paptients

A

without a spleen or immunocomprmoised

247
Q

how to Dx babesiosis

A

giemsa stained thick and thin blood smear

248
Q

Tx babesiosis

A

quinine-clindamycin

atovaquone-azithromycin

249
Q

erlichiosis

A

spotless rocky mountian spotted fever
fever, maliase, HA, n/v
leukopenia and thrombocytopenia

250
Q

Q fever

A 
zoonosis
coxiella burnetti
cattle, goat sheep
meat processing or vets
flu like syndrome and hepatitis or pneumonia like
251
Q

condyloma acuminata

A

anogenital warts from HPV

252
Q

leukocytoclastic vasculitis

A

can be from meds, infections, malignancy or inflammation

non blanching 1-3 mm violaceous papules in cluster or plaques

253
Q

NF2

A

acoustic neuromas

254
Q

most common cause pneumonia in nursing homes

A

strep pneumo

255
Q

msot common cause CAP in adults

256
Q

which UTI pathogen causes increased urine pH

A

proteus mirabilis from urease that increases ammonia to decrease free H+

257
Q

struvite stones

258
Q

urease producing bacteria

A

klebsiella, morganella morganii, pseudomonas, providencia, staph, ureaplasma urealyticum

259
Q

Tx amebic abscess

260
Q

Tx for strep viridans IE native valve

A

aqueous penicillin G

261
Q

pathogen of acute epididymitis in older patient

A

E coli because likely from UTI

262
Q

pathoegn of acute epididiymitis in someone sexuallya ctive

A

C tach

N gonorrhea

263
Q

when do you use amantadine and rimantadine

A

Influenza A

264
Q

when to Tx influenza

A

within 48 hours onset with oseltamivir

265
Q

signs Sx TSS

A

fever, diffus emyalgias, vomiting, profuse diarrhea hypotension, diffuse macular erythroderma like sunburn

266
Q

management TSS

A

supportive

broad spect anti staph antibiotics

267
Q

progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

A

no mass effect
in cortical white matter
gradual onset
hemiparesis and distrubances in speech vision and gait

268
Q

confirm PML encephalopathy

A

MRI- non enhancing lesions with no mass effects

269
Q

when to screen for hep C

A

high risk needle stick exposure
IV drug use
received transfusions before 1992!!!

270
Q

no Sx chalmydia but test is +
nuclemic amplification test gonorrhea is negative
Tx?

A

single dose azithromycin or 7 days doxy

271
Q

labs in erlichiosis

A

leukopenia and thrombocytopenia

elevated LFTs and LDH

272
Q

Dx erlichiosis

A

intracytoplasmic morulae in monocytes

PCR for E chaggeensis and E ewingii

273
Q

where is erlichiosis

A

southwastern and south central US

274
Q

is there a rash in erlichiosis

A

not usually

275
Q

erythromycin kills what pneumonia-pathogens

A

legionella and mycoplasma

276
Q

where is chikungunya

A

centra and south america, tropical africa

south asia

277
Q

mosquito carryin chikungunya and dengue

278
Q

clinical manifestations chikungunya

A

3-7 day incubation
high fevers, polyarthralgias
HA, myalgias, conjunctivitis, maculopapular rash
lymphopenia, thrombocytopenia, inc LFTs

279
Q

Tx chikungunya

A

supportive

280
Q

reactive arthritis

A

1-4 weeks most GI or GU infection with asymmetric oligoarthritis, conjunctivitis, and oral lesions

281
Q

Tx legionella pneumo

A

fluoros or macrolides

282
Q

when to Tx PPD >10 mm induration

A 
recent immigrants
IV drug users
healthcare workers
lab personnel in mycobacterium lab
DM, immunsuppressed with corticosteroids, ESRD
children
283
Q
A

penicillin to precent S penumonia until age 5

284
Q

most common cause osteomyelitis in adults and children

A

staph aureus

285
Q

patients with splenic abscess present

A

fevers, chills, LUQ pain and splenic effusion

fever, leukocytosis splenomgealy

286
Q

risk factors for splenic abscess

A

infective endocarditis, immunosuppression
IV drug use, trauma
hemoglobinopathies

287
Q

pathogens causing splenic abscess

A

staph, strep and salmonella

288
Q

Tx splenic abscess

A

splenectomy

289
Q

gram - coccobacilli

A

H flue nontypeable

290
Q

most common pathogens for pneumonia in CF

A

staph- most common
pseudomonas
H flue
strep pneumo

Step2CK (26 decks)

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