ICP Flashcards

1
Q

What organisms causes acute ulcerative gingivitis?

A

Spirochaetes eg treponema

Fusobacterium

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2
Q

Where are oral obligate anaeobic bacteria found?

A

Root canal and pulp chambers infection
Abscess
Advanced periodontitis
Carious dentine

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3
Q

What is the most prevalent type of fungi in the mouth?

A

Candida albicans

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4
Q

Which bacteria are found on oral mucosal surfaces

A

Streptococcus salivarious

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5
Q

Which gram positive cocci are present as commensal flora in high numbers in saliva and on tongue

A

Facultative streptococci

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6
Q

Which bacteria forms black pigmented colonies on blood agar

A

Porphyromonas, prevotella - they are obligate anaerobic bacteria and comprise large prop of microflora in dental plaque. Rarely found in health. Isolated from subgingival sites.

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7
Q

What is caries

A

Loss of tooth substance by metabolically produced acids.

Common in pits, fissures.

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8
Q

What does statherin do

A

Binds to calcium phosphate to prevent it from precipitating out, therefore maintaining levels of calcium for remin of tooth and phosphate for buffering action.

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9
Q

What are the iatrogenic (drug) causes of xerostomia?

A
Aspirin- NSAIDS 
Diuretics eg furosemide 
Antihypertensive eg atenolol, clonidine. 
Antiepileptic eg phenytoin (grandmal) 
Antihistamine eg loratadine
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10
Q

Which autoimmune condition can cause xerostomia

A

Sjogrens syndrom - causes acinar destruction in salivary gland therefore reduced saliva production = higher risk of infections eg candidiasis and caries

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11
Q

What is a fissure sealant

A

Material placed in fissures and pits to PREVENT and ARREST development of caries.
It is a preventive * measure.

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12
Q

What materials are used for fissure sealant

A

Unfilled resin or filled - light/chemically cured.

GIC - when isolation is a problem eg partially erupted teeth in high caries risk child.

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13
Q

SR procedure

A

Clean - rubber cup, rotary brush, air abrasion
La - if multiple teeth need it, or if caries into dentine.
Rubber dam if la was used or other isolatuon.
Caries removal, minimal, use 330 tungsten carbide, make edj caries free.
Primer - hema containing - bonds to collagen via OH bonds, apply 15s n air dry 5s. Rub it in using microbrush.
Bond, sensitive to light, seals dentinal tubules, apply 15s n air3s, light cure 20s.,
Apply comp resin or flowable comp if cavity too small. Light cure. Check for defects using probe n remove excess.
Apply FS to remaining pits n fissures, occlusal palatal n buccal. 1/3 cuspal incline. Use microbrush. Cure 20s.
Check occlusion

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14
Q

Why is isolation needed for fissure sealant

A

Cuz the etched enamel is porous and may get contaminated with debris during procedure which will reduce n prevent resin tag formation of composite bond to the enamel.

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15
Q

When is a SR/PRR indicated

A

When diagnostic methods, visual inspection, and bitewing radiographs have shown that a stained fissure has progressed to a lesion just into dentine. (If has progressed more then will require conventional restoration)

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16
Q

Advantages of air abrasion (aluminium oxide/ sodium bicarbonate particles)

A

1) no vibrations therefore painless n noiseless
2) doesnt result in a smear layer during tooth prep
3) carious tissue removed without affecting healthy teeth
4) no post op sensitivity
5) no burning smell or micro fractures in teeth tht often occurs with drilling.
6) sealants and fillings bond better to tooth

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17
Q

What are the effects of cavity prep on dentine?

A

Produces vibrations which may cause shift in pulpal blood flow
Will cause pain due to presence of nerve endings in dentine tubules.
Will cause fluid shifts eg cut dentine causes outward fluid shift n collagen deposition forming a smear layer
Odontoblasts may get displaced into dentine tubules n will die, but if dentine is sterile then new odontoblasts can differentiate from stem cells in pulp.

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18
Q

What is enamel hypoplasia

A

enamel matrix formation is defective resulting in thinned, grooved, pitted enamel.

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19
Q

Wats hypomineralisation

A

Disturbance of calcification of enamel whereby it is weak n prone to breakdown. seen alongside hypoplasia but one predominates usually.

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20
Q

Why is calcium hydroxide bacteriostatic?

A

Cuz its alkaline ph11
Cuz it absorbs co2 which is a metabolic requirement of the obligate anaerobic bacteria that are present in dentine caries and pulpitis

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21
Q

Functions of PDLs

A

Sensory info
Dissipates masticatory forces therefore protecting the tooth.
Source of stem cells for new bone, cementum, other CT cell types.

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22
Q

What is a periodontal pocket (its different to gingival pocket)

A

A sulcus that has deepened due to loss of periodontal attachment, the resultant depth will be greater than the normal 3mm.

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23
Q

5 points characterising gingivitis

A

1) gingival oedema (therefore loss of contour)
2) hyperaemia (therefore bleeding and redness) - excess of blood supplying your gingiva
3) increased gcf flow and containing neutrophils
4) increased lymphocytes and plasma cells in the infiltrate indicate increased severity
5) reversible !

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24
Q

5 points characterising periodontitis

A

1) similar inflam infiltrate to chronic gingivitis
2) PDL and alveolar crestal bone is lost which may be follower by gingival recession
3) apical migration of junctional epithelium resulting in deeper pocketing more than 3mm
4) tooth mobility
5) irreversible

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25
Q

What are the periodontal indices

A
  • pocket depths
  • plaque levels
  • attachment loss (cej to base of sulcus)
  • bleeding scores
  • radiographic bone loss
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26
Q

What is probing/pocket depth

A

Distance from gingival margin to base of sulcus.

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27
Q

What is attachment loss

A

Distance (mm) from cej to base of sulcus

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28
Q

What is periodontal disease

A

Inflammatory reaction to plaque at the gingival margin. Can be classed as gingivitis or periodontitis (periodontal tissues involvement)

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29
Q

What are local risk factors for oral conditions

A
Root exposure
Misalignment of teeth
Crowding
Restorative margins
partial dentures
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30
Q

Systemic risk factors

A
Diabetes
Poor oral hygiene
Immunodeficiency
Nutritional deficit
Smoking
Obesity
Stress
Osteoporosis
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31
Q

Describe HA crystallite arrangement in a tooth.

A

Along the sides of the tooth the arrangement is less ordered.
Cuspal areas have greater crystallite alignment and order, the greatest alignment is seen in areas that are likely to contact cusps of opposing arch tooth

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32
Q

Fracture toughness - definition

A

Ability to resist brittle fracture in the presence of a crack.
In enamel the protein films + crystallite alignment contribute to its fracture toughness

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33
Q

What two types of behaviour does the protein sheath around enamel display

A

1) Polymer like - deforms under load
2) elastic - returns to initial form and position after load is removed cuz in that deformed position it is thermodynamically unstable.

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34
Q

Effect of restoration on mechanical properties of tooth

A

Decreased fracture resistance
Risk of crack propagation and fatigue failure occurring at tooth restoration interface due to high stresses from masticatory forces.

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35
Q

Where/how is porcelain used n wats the adv n disadv

A

Post alternative for comp- inlays n onlays (indirect restoration)
Adv = abrasion resistant + more durable + aesthetic
Disadv = wear of opposing tooth + adjustment and polishing is more diff.

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36
Q

What does anisotropic mean

A

When a physical property is different in different directions/locations of the tooth.

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37
Q

Remember:

A

Material = homogenous n isotropic

Enamel n dentine = anisotropic at microscopic level

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38
Q

Where is the stress location for non bonded restorations

A

At internal walls - tooth restoration interface

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39
Q

Where is the stress location for bonded restorations

A

At cusp tips like a normal tooth

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40
Q

Where will cracks occur in bonded n non bonded restoration

A

Bonded - within enamel in contact with opposing tooth

Non bonded - internal line angles and edj

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41
Q

Wats the optimised shape for reduced cusp tips for onlays/inlays

A

Perpendicular to the opposing load but not perpendicular to long axis of tooth.

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42
Q

Ideal restoration of a cavity:

A

No sharp edges or corners
Perfect contact between tooth and restoration
Base of cavity larger for retention
Stress is uniform n minimal at internal line angles.

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43
Q

Internal outline features:

A

90 degrees cavosurface angle
Lateral wall undercuts
Rounded pulpal line angles
0.5 mm into dentine (deciduous tooth restoration)

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44
Q

How wide shod the cavity isthmus be

A

1/3rd of width of occlusal table

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45
Q

Wat are the indications for SSC - 7

A

Special needs patient with reduced OH
2 or more carious surfaces
Extensive one surface caries
Developmental problems eg hypoplasia, AI,DI.
Fractured primary molar
Extensive tooth surface loss - erosion, attrition, abrasion
High caries risk patient

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46
Q

2 contraindications to ssc

A

If primary molar is close to exfoliation with more than half of root resorbed - seen on radiograph
Nickel allergy/sensitivity

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47
Q

Whats the Hall Technique

A

Method of managing carious molars in which decay is sealed under preformed metal crown (PMC) without any LA, caries removal or tooth prep.

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48
Q

What is primary prevention + examples

A

Stopping disease starting in the first place by keeping teeth healthy

  • fissure sealant
  • f toothpaste
  • brush twice daily 2mins n dont rinse
  • 4 sugar attacks - limit intake n freq
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49
Q

Whats secondary prevention n examples

A

Detection n Limiting impact of disease at an early stage
Bitewing radiographs
Occlusal caries - restore/SR
Aproximal/smooth surface - if only in enamel then increase fluoride, reduce sugar, increase brushing

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50
Q

Whats tertiary prevention

A

Restoring the function of the tooth n preventing further development of disease

  • all of secondary
  • restore decayed tooth
  • extract teeth with poor prognosis
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51
Q

What are the stages in periodontal disease progression

A
Health 
Initial lesion
Early lesion - early G
Established lesion - chronic G 
Advanced lesion - chronic P
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52
Q

What is MMP n give an example n where are they found in periodontitis

A

Matrix metalloproteinases
Eg collaginase
Found in high numbers in gcf in periodontitis

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53
Q

Explain function of RANKL and OPG in periodontitis

A

Cytokines plus bacterial factors increase expression of RANKL which then allows osteoclast formation and activity + decreased expression of OPG in osteoblasts resulting in decreased inhibition of osteoclast activity = imbalance in bone remodelling resulting in increased bone resorption

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54
Q

Describe periodontal probing

A

Holding the probe in gingival sulcus, parallel to tooth surface and keep in contact as you walk it around the circumference of tooth

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55
Q

Whats BPE for

A

Simple rapid screening for those at risk of periodontal disease.

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56
Q

Disadv of bpe

A

No distinction between true/false pockets
No detail about recession
Lack of detail within sextant
No detail abt furcation involvement

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57
Q

How much pressure is used when probing

A

20g

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58
Q

Define horizontal bone loss

A

When the bone level lost is equal interdentally

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59
Q

Define vertical/angular bone loss

A

One tooth has lost more bone than the adjacent tooth, hence alveolar crest is more apical to CEJ for one tooth than the other.

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60
Q

State the order or cariogenicity of sucrose, glucose, lactose, fructose

A

Sucrose> glucose> fructose> lactose

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61
Q

How can we compensate for xerostomia

A

Chlorhexidine gel - antibacterial

Topical F

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62
Q

Contraindications of fluoride varnish

A

Ulcerative gingivitis

Stomatitis

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63
Q

Contraindications of fissure sealant

A

Partially erupted
Caries present
No risk
Unable to isolate (?)

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64
Q

Whats the criteria for a moderate risk caries patient

A

1-2 lesions per year

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65
Q

Criteria for high risk caries patient

A

3+ lesions per year
Medically compromised
Social risk factors
Ortho treatment

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66
Q

What is parafunction

A

Use of a body part eg tongue/teeth in a way that isnt commonly used eg bruxisn

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67
Q

What is diagnosis

A

Identification of an illness based on signs and examination

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68
Q

Prognosis?

A

Prediction of most likely outcome of a disease

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69
Q

What enzyme breaks down ester LAs in blood.

A

Pseudocholinesterase

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70
Q

Name constituents of LA cartridge

A
LA 
Vasoconstrictor - adrenaline/felypressin
Preservatives - uncommon in recent LAs
Isotonic solution 
Reducing agent- prevents adrenaline from oxidising
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71
Q

Adv of adrenaline as vasoconstrictor

A

Vasoconstrictor
Reduces and controls blood flow, less bleeding, therefore increased visibility
Less systemic absorption, lower toxicity, can use higher doses
Prolonged duration of action

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72
Q

Disadv of adrenaline in LA

A

Increases cardiac output - increased HR and Stroke vol- can lead to arrhythmia
Decreases plasma potassium = arrythmia
Heat and light sensitivite - breaks down
Dont giv to unstable angina and uncontrolled arrythmia patients.

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73
Q

Contraindication of felypressin

A

Pregnancy - can induce labour.

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74
Q

Factors affecting infiltration anaesthesia duration

A

Use of vasoC
Volume
Concentration

75
Q

What info is recorded after patient LA

A
Type of LA procedure
Type of LA, voluMe, concentration
Vasoc and conc 
Batch number 
Patient reaction
76
Q

Reasons for nerve block use

A

Cortical bone too thick
Avoiding an area of infection
Wider area of anaesthesia needed

77
Q

3 landmarks of dental block

A

Coronoid notch - ant border of ramus
Internal oblique ridge
Pterygomandibular raphe

78
Q

What will not be anaesthetised by your ID block

A

Posterior molars gingiva- hence buccal nerve will b needed too potentially

79
Q

Precautions for reducing risk of complications in LA

A
Use self aspirating syringe 
Use lowest effective volume of LA 
Inject slowly - 1ml over 30s, 2ml over 60s
Medical/drug history
Past dental experience
Allergies 
Limit use of regional block eg IANB
80
Q

What is syngenite formed from

A

Potassium sulphate reacting with water/hemihydrate in gymsum products.

81
Q

Wat does potassium sulphate do in gypsum

A

Decreases setting time
Faster crystallisation
Decreases expansion
2% reduces reaction from 10mins to mins

82
Q

Function of unreacted dihydrate in gypsum

A

Accelerator - additional nucleation sites for crystal growth = decreased setting time n working

83
Q

Wats the difference in effect of NACL less than 20% and more than 20%.

A
<20 = accelerator. Provides additional crystallisation sites = decreases setting time. 
>20 = retarder, increases setting time by depositing crystals which prevent growth.
84
Q

Describe setting reaction of gypsum hemihydrate (alpha/beta)

A

Add water to hemi, dissolves (has low solubility) and reacts to form dihydrate plus releases heat (exothermic). Dihydrate has even lower solubility and is unstable therefore precipitates out to form stable crystals. Unchanged dihydrate in the original powder acts as crystallisation nuclei for growth. When the crystals interlock they expand and leads to setting of stone/plaster.

85
Q

What is the effect of providing crystallisation nuclei for dihydrate crystal growth on the setting time

A

Faster/shorter setting time

86
Q

Effect of spatulation on expansion and setting time

A

Provides more crystallisation nuclei = more crystal growth and interlocking = faster setting time but also more expansion

87
Q

Agar and alginate setting reactions - which one is chemical and which one is physical

A
Alginate = chemical 
Agar = physical hence reversible
88
Q

State components of alginate powder

A

Sodium/potassium alginate
Diataceous earth = filler (strength) - 70% of powder
Calcium sulphate cross linking Agent
Sodium phosphate or sodium carbonate as retarder
Ph controllers: sodium silicofluoride, magnesium oxide, sodium fluorotitinate.

89
Q

Adv of alginate

A

Cheap
Reliable
Good setting behaviour - once setting reaction begins it is completely quickly so minimising impression taking time
Sodium phosphate inhibits set initially so enough time to mix n seat tray in mouth

90
Q

Disadv of alginate

A

Dimensional stability poor
Water loss (air) = shrinkage
Has to be covered in damp cloth n sealed in a air tight bag - maintain relative humidity
Immersion in water = swells at first, then shrinks as water soluble salts are eluted
Disinfection for prolonged period of time causes dimensional changes
Poor tear strength
Doesnt adhere well to tray hence need adhesive/mechanical locking features in tray

91
Q

Components of agar

A
Agar 
Borates - strengthens gel
Potassium sulphate - accelerator 
Thixotropic material - filler
Water
92
Q

Disadv of agar

A

Cast up immediately cuz loses water by syneresis (swells). Also absorbs water (imbibition) so swells.
Poor tear strength
Viscoelastic

93
Q

Adv of agar

A

Once set up easy to use
Cheap
Good surface detail due to setting property
Records finer details

94
Q

What does the liquid component of gic contain

A

Phosphoric acid 50%

Tartaric acid 10%

95
Q

Function of tartaric acid in gic

A

Increases working time by forming complexes with calcium and aluminium ions and only releases them once the acid is partially neutralised, leading to a rapid set.

96
Q

Which ions are released in dissolution of ion leachable glass in gic

A

Ca
Al
Na
F

97
Q

Wat are the three stages of gic setting reaction

A

Dissolution
Gelation
Maturation

98
Q

Effect of water on gic

A

Early water exposure causes dissolution of the reactive ions
Dehydration causes loss of water needed for setting reaction
Protect gic, polish after 24hours

99
Q

Describe adhesion n the chemical bonds between GIC and tooth surface

A

Chelation between calcium in hydroxapatite and COO- group in PAA.
Hydrogen bond between collagen amino groups and COOH
Ion exchange occurs resulting in an ion rich interfacial layer

100
Q

Effect of titanium dioxide in cermet

A

Added for colour

101
Q

State components of Compomer

A
Acidic monomer - functional groups from composite and gic
Hydrophilic monomer
CMQ- photoinitiator 
Filler - strontium glass - source of F 
Ion leachable glass
Stabilisers increase shelf life
102
Q

Benefits of bonding agent

A

Reduced marginal leakage
Reduced pulp sensitivity
Reinforces weak tooth structure
Conservation of tooth since you dont need mechanical retention
Aesthetics
Required to retain the restorative in the cavity cuz tooth is hydrophilic and restoration is hydrophobic

103
Q

Effects of acid etch technique

A

Increases surface area and roughness for bonding
Opens inner prismatic area for miromechanical bonding via resin tags
Increases surface energy as removes enamel pellicle and surface enamel for improved wetting

104
Q

Wats the smear layer

A

When dentine is cut, it causes an outward fluid shift, resulting in a layer of collagen and broken HAP crystals, and debris and may contain bacteria from caries.
May form smear plugs within tubules

105
Q

True or false: dentine tubules contain tissue fluid

A

True :)

106
Q

What type of reaction removes the smear layer/ enamel pellicle

A

Acid/base between the acid n tooth

107
Q

Wat is the depth of demin in enamel n dentine with acid etch

A

30micrometres for E

4 micrometres for D

108
Q

What is the coupling agent/primer in dentine composed of

A

HEMA - bi functional moleule, dissolved in a solvent ethanol/acetone which displace water

109
Q

Why is microfilled resin added on top of unfilled resin which has forned resin tags in enamel

A

Cuz, if we are bonding to enamel, it means the lesion must be very superficial eg abrasion lesions, hence youll need microfilled composites on top since they have good surface finish and dont need to have mechanical strength etc

110
Q

What are the layers in the hybrid zone

A

Dentine - coupling agent/primer - bond - composite filling

111
Q

How far does hybrid layer go into dentine tubules

A

100 micrometee

112
Q

True/false: hybrid layer involves strong micromechanical bonds - tag formation

A

True

113
Q

Wat are the two types of bonding in dentine

A

Micromechanical

Entanglement

114
Q

What is the effect of tryglycerides in base paste of polyether/impregum

A

Increases intrinsic viscosity

When pressure applied the material viscosity decreases, when pressure removed viscosity increases again

115
Q

What is modification that occured to produce impregum penta soft

A

Reduced filler and ratio of high n low viscosity plasticiser
= easier removal, improved taste, better handling

116
Q

What is the effect of unreacted Si-H bonds in addition silicones

A

They react with water in plaster to release H2 = porosity

117
Q

Importance of pain

A

Warns of impending danage/actual damage
Escape motivation n preventive action - motivates ppl to make a change
Alarms others abt the threat n danger
Care and empathy induced for others

118
Q

Wats allodynia

A

pain due to a stimulus that doesnt normally cause pain

119
Q

Hyperalgesia

A

Increased response to a stimulus whivh normally causes pain

120
Q

Dysaesthesia

A

Unpleasant sensation - evoked/spontaneous

121
Q

Paraesthesia

A

Abnormal sensation - not unpleasant though- spont/evoked

122
Q

Analgesia

A

Absence of pain in response to stimulus which would’ve normally caused pain

123
Q

Hypoalgesia

A

Reduced pain in response to a normally painful stimulus

124
Q

Neuralgia

A

Pain in distrib of nerves

125
Q

Neuropathic pain

A

Pain caused by primary lesion/dysfunction in NS

126
Q

Wats pain

A

Unpleasant sensory n emotional experience due to actual or potential tissue damage

127
Q

Which teeth do we normally fissure seal in high risk patients

A

Permanent molars

128
Q

Contraindications of fluoride

A

Stomatitis
Ulcerative gingivitis
Allergy

129
Q

3 main methods of caries prevention

A

Diet analysis
Appropriate flourides
Fissure sealant
OH regimen - brushing etc

130
Q

Wats the criteria for high risk patients

A

New carious lesiobs - 3/4 a yr, illness, physically compromised,

Salivary flow
Plaque control
High sugar diet
Social factors?

131
Q

Wat is the name of dust free alginate

A

Triethanolamine alginate

132
Q

Why does comp shrink during setting

A

Cuz the dimethacrylstes have two double bonds which open up to form the polymers, leading to shrinkage

133
Q

Filler advantages in comp

A
Reduces polym shrinkage n thermal expansion 
Increased comp strength
Radiopacity
Aesthetics
Increased youngs modulus
134
Q

Adv of hybrid comp

A

Better surface finish than conventional but less than microfilled.
Better wear resistance
Higher packing density whilst having smaller particle size

135
Q

Disadv of hybrid comp

A

Surface roughness over time- probs why u get discolouration cuz debris n stains can attach

136
Q

What are the two functional groups on the silane coupling agent

A

-OCH3 (methoxy group) bonds to OH on filler (hydrophillic) = condensation reaction.
Methacrylate group C double bond to C bonds to methacrylate in organic resin (hydrophobic)

137
Q

Wat functional group swap occurs wen silane coupling agent is acid treated

A

Methoxy och3 group to OH

Hence water released in condensation reaction with filler

138
Q

Wats degree of conversion

A

% ofmonomer converted to polymer

Double bonds to single

139
Q

Wats dresslers syndrome

A

A type of pericarditis due to an immune system respobse after damage to heart tissue/pericardium

140
Q

Wat is the benefit of resistance form n retention form

A

Prevent displacement of restoration and frscture of R plus tooth structure under occlusal forces

141
Q

Factors contributing to resistance form

A

Unsupported enamel (not supported by underlying dentine hence fractures)
Cavity wall angles - parallel to long axis of tooth
Internal line angles need to be rounded
Depth of pulpal n axial wall sufficient ti support restoration
Type of material being used - isit brittle

142
Q

Wats the cavosurface angle

A

Angle between wall of cavity and surface of tooth

143
Q

Factors affecting amalgam resistance to fracture

A

Thickness (>2mm)
90 degree cavosurface angle
Box like preparation form - uniform amalgam thickness
Rounded axiopulpal line angles in class2 prep

144
Q

Retention form

Resistance form

A
Retention = retention in cavity therefore prevents dislodgement due to forces in the long axis of tooth 
Resistance = resisting fracture (tooth n restoration)
145
Q

A restoration has failed if…

A
Secondary caries in dentine
Residual caries 
Pulpal nevrosis
Appearance unacceptable to patient - marginal staining, discolouration, contracts to normal darknening of tooth, desire for white fillings
Microleakage causing sensitivity n pain
Fracture of R or T 
Dislodgement of restoration
146
Q

Symptoms of secondary caries

A

Usually none or might be similar to pulpitis

Discolouration

147
Q

Signs of secondary/recirrent caries

A

Loss of vitality on sensibility test - hot/cold/electrical

May or may not see periradicular change (space in between roots i think

148
Q

4 factors affecting failure of restoration

A

Patient - diet,plaque,saliva/xerostomia,poor oral hygiene
Operator- didnt promote prevention, check occlusion, inappropriate restoration/liner/ base, left infected dentine, pulp exposure, failure to seal all dentinal tubules, heat/pressure
Material factors - fracture/corossion/wear/staining

149
Q

3 types of auxiliary retention

A

Vertical grooves
Angled coves (like a curved slot)
Horizontal slots

Make using rosehead bur/330

150
Q

5 ways of improving comp restoration

A

Ensure tooth is clean - pumice
Acid etch only area u need to n wash thoroughly
Dry thoroughly
Rub in the primer n bond to improve penetration
Small increments
Centre of light beam on area needing to be cured

151
Q

Wats tribology

A

Study of wear

152
Q

3 reasons for intervening in toothwear cases

A

Loss of function
Altered appearance
Sensitivity/pain

153
Q

6 types of non carious tooth surface loss

A
Attrition 
Abrasion 
Abfraction 
Erosion 
Trauma 
Iatrogenic
154
Q

Define abrasion

A

Wear of tooth due to friction if exogenous material forced over tooth surface

155
Q

Attrition

A

Wear caused by endogenous material eg microfine enamel prisms caught between two opposing tooth surfaces
Tooth to tooth
Tooth to dental material
Parafunction makes it worse like grinding

156
Q

Erosion

A

Acid dissolution

157
Q

Wat does erosion lesions look like

A

Cusps might be cupped in enamel edge/cusp tips

Smooth n round polished lesions

158
Q

Wats abfraction

A

Forces that are transmitted from cusp tip to thin cervical enamel causing it to fracture n wear away

159
Q

Wat are iatrogenic causing of tooth wear

A

Bur effects on a tooth

Or polishing tooth

160
Q

Wat would you ask your patient in medical history if u see erosion

A

Heart burn
GIT disease - hiatus hernia, peptic ulcer
Eating disorders - bulimea
Pregnancy - morning sickness

Diet:
Carbonated drinks
Bare fruit or juice
Herbal/fruit tea

161
Q

Wat advice would you give to patient after they vomit/regurgitate

A

Dont brush you teeth
Use fluorie mouth rinse
Since acid plus abrasive in tooth pase = more tooth surface loss

162
Q

Who is most likelt to have attrition

A

Ppl suffering from high stress

  • bruxism/clenching
  • pain over masseter n temporalis muscles of mastication
163
Q

Appearance of attrition

A

Loss of cusp tips in molars n underlying dentine may be exposed
Incisal upper n lower edges thin n may chip

164
Q

Wats perimolysis

A

A rim of enamel left on tooth after erosiob

165
Q

Appearance of abrasion lesion

A

Cervical margin where enamel is thin n less regular prisms

166
Q

Wats pica

A

Compulsive eating of non foods

167
Q

4 ways of monitoring wearc

A

Study casts - taken anually to see speed of wear
Wear indices - scoring level of wear
Photographs
Direct measurement - williams probe to measure height of teeth n record in notes

168
Q

Describe Cognitive Behavioural Therapy

A

Targets psycological aspect of pain
relaxation techniques
Most effective for deppression n highly stressed ppl

169
Q

Wat method do u use to diagnose approximal caries in posterior teeth

A

Fibre optic transillumination

170
Q

How does transillumination help us identify carious lesion

A

Caries lesions have lower index of transmitted light therefore appear as a dark shadow which follows the outline of decay in dentine

171
Q

Wat colour is active uncavitated lesion

A

White with maybe matt surface

172
Q

Colour of inactive caries lesion

A

Brown, shiny/glossy surface

173
Q

Can you see uncavitated lesions on a radiograph

A

No

174
Q

Why does the tooth surfafe need to be clean n dry

A

To detect micro cavities

175
Q

Wats the significance of age and pulpal repair mechanism

A

Ageing leads to compromised reparative dentinogenesis - depleted progenitor cell recruitment

176
Q

Wat does a positive tooth sensibility test mean

A

Pulp is vital

177
Q

What can u use to control bleeding of pulp during direct pulp capping

A

Saline water or sodium hypochlorite

178
Q

Wat is the condensation pressire for amalgam fillings

A

3-5kg

179
Q

Wat is simple amalgam

A

Without pins/auxiliary retention

180
Q

Wat is complex amalgam

A

Augmented by pins/auxiliary retention.

181
Q

Wats the reason for making smooth flat cavity floor and rounded internal line angles

A

Provides better surface to condense amalgam into and minimuses internal stress points

182
Q

Whats galvanic shock

A

Aluminium in oral cavity contacts amalgam causing small electric currents felt as shocks

183
Q

Does calculus cause periodontal disease

A

No, it Acts as a surface for plaque to bind to