I/O Psychology Study Aid

Question 1

What is a Job Analysis? Describe the Job-Oriented Methods and the Worker-Oriented Methods.

Answer 1

A Job Analysis collects all the info for job description requirements. Job-Oriented Methods: Provide info re: the task Worker-Oriented Methods: Provide info re: the knowledge, skills, and abilities needed to perform job successfully.

Question 2

What is the difference between a Job Analysis and a Job Evaluation?

Answer 2

Job Analysis: Conducted to clarify requirements of the job Job Evaluation: To determine the relative worth of jobs in order to set salaries and wages.

Question 3

What is comparable worth?

Answer 3

Comparable worth is conducted to ensure that people who are performing work of comparable value received comparable pay.

Question 4

What is the difference between objective criterion measures and subjective criterion measures? (HINT Actual Criterions = the way that the subject is actually measured Ultimate Criterion = theoretical goal post)

Answer 4

Objective criterion measures are quantitative numbers and/or data. Subjective measures are typically with ratings that reflect the judgment of the Rater

Question 5

Describe the characteristics of criterion measures (relevance, deficiency, contamination): (HINT Actual Criterions = the way that the subject is actually measured Ultimate Criterion = theoretical goal post)

Answer 5

Relevance = the actual criterion’s construct validity. Deficiency = the degree that actual criterion does not meet all the aspects of the ultimate criterion Contamination = the actual criterion assesses factors other than those it was designed to measure

Question 6

Subjective Criterion Measures: Describe what a relative rating technique is and it’s two types/methods.

Answer 6

Relative rating technique allow the Rater to compare performance of two employees to each other. The paired comparison method allows each Ratee’s to rate other Ratees in pairs The forced distribution method involved a grading curve which is assigning ratees to a limited number of categories based on a predefined distribution

Question 7

Subjective Criterion Measures: Describe what an Absolute Rating Technique is and its 3 types/methods

Answer 7

The absolute rating technique provides info on the employees performance without comparison The critical incident method involves making checklists of incidents then using them to rate the employees The forced choice method provides two to four alternatives that are equally desirable The BARS technique chooses one behavior for each dimension that best describes the employee

Question 8

Describe the 3 types of Rater Biases:

Answer 8

Leniency/Strictness: the Rater tends to avoid the middle range only providing high or low responses Central tendency: the Rater only uses the middle range of the scale Halo: Evaluation on one dimension of job performance influences opinions on all the other unrelated ones

Question 9

What is frame of reference training?

Answer 9

Frame of reference training is employed to improve the raters accuracy and provides the raters with common understandings of all the job facets

Question 10

Describe Adverse Impact and the 80% Rule. (Used to evaluate a predictor’s criterion-related validity)

Answer 10

Adverse impact happens when use of a procedure results in a substantially different selection for members of that group. The 80% rule is used to determine adverse impact To figure out the 80% rule, the hiring rate for the majority group is multiplied by 80% to determine the hiring rate for the minority group.

Question 11

Describe the difference between differential validity and unfairness (Used to evaluate a predictor’s criterion-related validity)

Answer 11

Differential validity occurs when there is a significant difference in the validity coefficients for subgroups and the correlation found in one or both groups are significantly different from zero. Unfairness occurs when members of one group consistently obtain lower scores on the predictor than members of other groups

Question 12

What is incremental Validity? (Used to evaluate a predictor’s criterion-related validity)

Answer 12

Incremental validity is an increase in decision-making accuracy an employer will achieve by using the predictor to make selection decisions.

Question 13

Describe a Selection ratio and Base rate (Used to evaluate a predictor’s criterion-related validity)

Answer 13

The Selection ratio = the ratios of job openings to applicants. A low selection ratio means that there are many applicants to few jobs. Base rate is the percentage of employees performing well without the use of the predictor (Ranges from 0 to 1.0, with .05, a moderate base rate, being preferred).

Question 14

What are the Taylor-Russell Tables and what is the optimal formation? (Used to evaluate a predictor’s criterion-related validity)

Answer 14

The Taylor Russell tables are used to estimate the percentage of new hires that will be successful. The optimal formation is when the selection ratio is low and the base rate is moderate

Question 15

When combining predictors, describe the difference between Multiple Regression and Multiple Cutoff.

Answer 15

Multiple Regression: Great performance on one can offset bad on another (Compensatory) Multiple Cutoff: Minimum score must be obtained before a person “passes” (Non-compensatory)

Question 16

Describe the 6 predictors used in organizations to predict employee performance

Answer 16

• General Mental/Cognitive Ability (Highest validity) - Personality (Conscientiousness) - Biodata (Assess history/past behaviour) - Interviews (most common) - Work Samples/Realistic Job Previews (used to decrease unrealistic expectations) - Assessment Centers (evaluate managerial level employees)

Question 17

Describe the 4 elements of a Needs Assessment?

Answer 17

1) Organization analysis to identify goals/training needs 2) Task/Job Analysis 3) Person Analysis 4) Demographic Analysis

Question 18

For Training Principles, describe: Overlearning and Identical Elements

Answer 18

Overlearning: Study/Practice beyond the point of mastery (promotes automaticity) Identical Elements: Similarity between aspects of learning and actual environment of work.

Question 19

Describe a Job Rotation (On-the-job training method)

Answer 19

Trainees perform several jobs over time (especially helpful for managers) Most widely used, allows for active participation and ongoing feedback.

Question 20

Describe two Off-the-Job training methods

Answer 20

Off-the-Job training allows for more opportunity to focus and practice elements. -Vestibule Training: Physical Replication/Simulation of Work Environment (VERY good for costly/dangerous work) -Behaviour Modeling: Person observes a skilled worker perform task and then practices it themselves

Question 21

Describe Kirkpatrick’s 4 Levels of Criteria to Evaluate Training Programs

Answer 21

Reaction Criteria: Participants Reactions to programs Learning Criteria: How much have they learned from the program Behavioural Criteria: See change in performance upon return to work Results Criteria: See value of training program in reference to organization’s goals.

Question 22

Describe a Utility Analysis (Training Program Evaluation Method)

Answer 22

A Mathematical Equation to Estimate Gain/Loss. $ Utility = (yrs) x (ppl) x (Effect size in st.d for trained employees) x (Effect size in st.d for untrained employees) - (N - Cost per person)

Question 23

Describe the difference between Formative and Summative Evaluations

Answer 23

Formative: While training program is being developed so changes can be made prior to implementation. Summative: After implementation to assess outcomes and effectiveness.

Question 24

Describe Super’s Life-Space/Life-Span Theory (i.e., Self-Concept, Career Maturity, Life-Career Rainbow)

Answer 24

Self-Concept: Changes over life, more stable as you age (Matching job to self-concept increases satisfaction and success) Career Maturity (Lifespan): Ability to cope with developmental tasks of life stage Life-Career Rainbow (Life Space): Visual roles throughout life stages and how a career counsellor could help.

Question 25

What are Holland’s 6 Career Types? And describe Differentiation according to Holland.

Answer 25

RIASEC: Realistic Investigative Artistic Social Enterprising Conventional Differentiation = High scores on one career type and low on all the others (Higher levels of differentiation, associated with more success)

Question 26

Describe Tiedman & O’Hara’s Career Decision-Making Model, and it’s 2 phases.

Answer 26

Their Career Decision-Making model is an ongoing process tied to ego identity development - 2 phases: 1) Anticipation Phase (Exploration, Crystallization, Choice, Specification) 2) Implementation & Adjustment Phase (Induction, Reformation, Integration)

Question 27

Describe Krumboltz’s Social-Learning Theory (re: Career devel. & choice)

Answer 27

Based on reinforcement theory and Bandura -Exposure to the widest array of experiences, focus on continual learning/self-development NOT job matching -Career development influenced by: Genetics, environmental conditions, learning and skills

Question 28

Describe the two aspects of Dawis & Lofquist’s Theory of Work Adjustment:

Answer 28

1) Satisfaction: Correlation between job characteristics and individuals needs/values 2) Satisfactoriness: Correlation between worker’s skills and the job skills required *Work Values Assessment used*

Question 29

Describe Lazarus & Folkman’s Coping Strategies for unemployment/downsizing

Answer 29

Problem-Focused Strategies: Managing/Modifying problem causing stress Symptom-Focused Strategies: Regulating one’s emotional response to stressful situation

Question 30

Describe the “survivor syndrome” associated with downsizing

Answer 30

Those who remained employed after downsizing report a decreased level of satisfaction (perceptions of fairness associated with outcome)

Question 31

Organizational Theories: Describe Scientific Management

Answer 31

Used to study job productivity. Found that worker’s are motivated primarily by economic self-interest (Taylor, 1911) - money is the most effective motivator

Question 32

Organizational Theories: Describe the Human Relations Movement/Hawthorne Effect

Answer 32

Improved productivity due to: 1) Novelty of experiment 2) Worker’s interest in experiment 3) Special attention they received as subjects

Question 33

Organizational Theories: Describe McGregor’s Theory X and Theory Y

Answer 33

Theory X Managers: Believe that workers dislike work and must be controlled/directed. Theory Y Managers: Belief that work is natural to employees and they are able to self-control/self-regulate (Best outcome with this type**)

Question 34

Describe Maslow’s Need-Hierarchy Theory

Answer 34

Needs based on: Physiological, Safety, Social, Esteem, Self-Actualization A need is a motivator until it’s been satisfied

Question 35

Describe McClelland’s Need for Achievement Theory

Answer 35

Uses the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) to find underlying needs of job motivation (achievement, power, affiliation). People with a high need for achievement (nACH) are goal and task oriented and choose moderate difficulty/risk tasks and want frequent/concrete feedback.

Question 36

Describe Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory

Answer 36

Theory is based on satisfaction and motivation Lower-level needs: Little effect on satisfaction or motivation, but will produce lowered satisfaction if unfulfilled (hygiene factors boost these needs; pay, benefits, co-worker relationships) Higher-level needs: Increase satisfaction and motivation when fulfilled, but do not cause dissatisfaction when they are unfulfilled. Motivator factors that boost this need are: opportunities for responsibility, advancement, etc.

Question 37

Describe the difference between job enrichment and job enlargement

Answer 37

Job enrichment: Combining several jobs into a larger job so that the employee performs a meaningful unit of work and is given greater responsibility and autonomy (more higher level tasks). Job enlargement: increasing the number and variety of tasks of the job (helps with boredom, but not satisfaction).

Question 38

Describe Goal-Setting Theory

Answer 38

Employees are motivated to achieve goals they have consciously accepted and are committed to (participation in goal setting is helpful). High levels of productivity associated with moderately difficult goals.

Question 39

Describe Equity Theory

Answer 39

Employees compare the ratio of their own inputs (skills, experience, education) to outcomes (financial/non-financial rewards) of others performing similar jobs. Ratios perceived to be equal = workers are comfortable/satisfied if not, they try to alter situation to reflect balance/equity

Question 40

Describe Expectancy Theory

Answer 40

An employee will work hard if they believe: a) a high effort will lead to successful task performance (high expectancy) b) believes that successful performance will lead to rewards (high instrumentality) c) views the rewards as desirable (positive valence)

Question 41

Describe the 2 worker characteristics (disposition, age) and the one job factor (pay) most associated with job satisfaction:

Answer 41

Disposition: Job satisfaction is an enduring disposition over time Age: Inconsistent. Some report a positive linear relationship, others report a “U” shape (with high levels at the beginning and end of career) Pay: Inconclusive results. Some say it’s a priority for blue-and-white-collar workers, some say it’s more about the perception of being treated fairly.

Question 42

What is turnover most associated with?

Answer 42

negative correlation with satisfaction (-.40) - this correlation is lower when unemployment rates are high.

Question 43

Describe the 3 types of organizational commitment:

Answer 43

Affective Commitment: Worker’s identification/emotional attachment/involvement in the organization (associated with the most variety of job factors; turnover, absenteeism, etc.) Continuance Commitment: Worker’s perceptions of the social/monetary costs of leaving an organization. Normative Commitment: Worker’s sense of obligation to remain with the organization because “it’s the right thing to do”

Question 44

Describe the two dimensions of leadership discovered by the Ohio Leadership Studies:

Answer 44

1) Consideration: amount of warmth, concern, rapport and support displayed by the leader (high in this = person-oriented leaders) 2) Initiating Structure: extent that leader defines, directs and structures their role/roles of subordinates (high in this = task-oriented leaders).

Question 45

Describe the gender differences in leadership:

Answer 45

Only a few differences have been found: -No differences between consideration/initiating structure - Females more likely to rely on democratic/participative decision-making styles.

Question 46

Describe Fiedler’s Contingency Theory and the two interacting qualities.

Answer 46

Leadership effectiveness based on the interaction between leader’s style and favorableness of the situation. Leader’s style: - High LPC (one who describes the least preferred coworker in a favourable way) is relationship-oriented and focused on maintaining support/trust. -Low LPC is task-oriented and is interested in goal-achievement Situational Favorableness = amount of influence/power leader has -positive relationships with employees = greater influence - more highly structured tasks = greater influence - more rewards used = greater influence Low LPC leaders performing best in very unfavourable and very favourable situations. High LPC leaders performing best in moderate situations.

Question 47

Describe Path-Goal Theory

Answer 47

An effective leader is one who can help identify a path for the subordinates to fulfill their own personal goals (through the achievement of the organization’s goals)

Question 48

Describe the 4 leadership styles in the Situational Leadership model (Hersey & Blanchard)

Answer 48

**appropriate style depends on the subordinate’s job maturity** - Telling Leader: high task, low relationship style - Selling Leader: high task, high relationship style - Participating Leader: low task, high relationship style - Delegating Leader: low task, low relationship style

Question 49

Describe the 5 levels of decision-making in the Normative (decision-making) model (Vroom)

Answer 49

-AI (Autocratic): Leader makes decision -AII (Autocratic): Leader seeks input, but makes final decision -CI (Consultative): Leader meets 1-1 and explains problem, but makes final decision. -CII (Consultative): Leader meets as a group and explains problem, but makes final decision. -GI (Group): Explains as a group, group makes final decision.

Question 50

Define the difference between: Transformational and Transactional Leaders

Answer 50

Transformational Leader: Ability to recognize the need for change, creates guiding vision, accomplishes change effectively (seeks to empower/inspire/create meaning for employees). Transactional Leader: Focus on stability over change, emphasizes normal-work-related activities (relies on rewards/punishments and appealing to the self-interest of employees to motivate them)

Question 51

What are idiosyncrasy credits?

Answer 51

A person who is able to occasionally violate the norms, as they have gained prestige, status and respect by functioning competently in a group, serving as group leader or consistently conforming to group norms in the past.

Question 52

Describe the 5 types of group tasks

Answer 52

• Additive task (individual work added together to form group product) - Compensatory task (Inputs are averaged together to create a single project) - Disjunctive task (picking the best of all the group members to present) - Conjunctive task (Overall performance limited to worst-performing member) - Discretionary Task (Group decides how to combine all the contributions) **Group work is superior to individual work for additive and compensatory tasks**

Question 53

In terms of group performance, what is Social Loafing

Answer 53

When one individual exerts less effort as a group member than they would have exerted working alone. **This increases as group size increases

Question 54

Describe the difference between Social Facilitation and Social Inhibition

Answer 54

Social Facilitation: The mere presence of others increases task performance (esp. when tasks are simple or well-learned) Social Inhibition: The presence of others decreases performance (esp. when tasks are complex/new)

Question 55

Describe Tuckman & Jensen’s 5 stages of group development

Answer 55

-Forming Stage: Group becomes acquainted and attempt to establish ‘ground rules’ -Storming Stage: Conflict as group resists control of the group leader -Norming Stage: Acceptance of group, establish rules and roles, develop close relationships, work together -Performing Stage: Acceptance of each others strengths and weaknesses, clear understanding of their role, focused on goal -Adjourning Stage: Group disbands b/c goal met or people have left.

Question 56

Centralized vs. Decentralized Networks

Answer 56

Centralized Networks: All communication must pass through central person/position (Efficient for simple tasks) Decentralized Networks: Information flows freely without going through centralized person (better for complex tasks and overall satisfaction)

Question 57

Describe Simon’s Models of Individual Decision-Making:

Answer 57

-Rational-Economic Model: Benefits are maximized by searching/considering all alternative options before selecting one. -Bounded Rationality (Administrative) Model: Limited capabilities/time/resources force less than rational decisions. They ‘satisfice’ rather than optimize, choosing the first option that meets minimum criteria.

Question 58

Describe Groupthink vs. Group Polarization

Answer 58

Groupthink: Suspension of critical thinking that can occur in highly cohesive groups, especially when leader is highly directive or group is working under high stress. Group Polarization: Tendency for groups to make decisions that are more extreme/conservative/risky in the direction of the views held by group members.

Question 59

Describe Brainstorming, in a group decision making setting

Answer 59

• Improves the quality of group decisions (when people are comfortable, heterogeneous in skills, and are trained in brainstorming) - Doing it alone produces more/better ideas than in a group

Question 60

Describe Mediation vs. Arbitration

Answer 60

Mediation: A neutral 3rd party uses tactics to facilitate voluntary agreement between ppl (NO formal power to impose changes, goal is to open communication lines) Arbitration: More authority and controls both the process and outcome of the conflict resolution.

Question 61

Describe Lewin’s Force-Field Analysis of Planned Change

Answer 61

Organizational change process involves 3 stages: 1) Unfreezing - need for change is recognized 2) Changing - moving organization into new direction 3) Refreezing - stabilize organization in new norm

Question 62

What are quality circles

Answer 62

Small voluntary groups of employees who work together on a particular job & meet regularly to discuss job-related problems/solutions.

Question 63

Describe Self-Managed Work Teams

Answer 63

Autonomous work groups, trained in necessary skills, working together as a unit (make hiring, budget and other decisions typically made by managers) **Trained in ‘teamthink’ to foster open, diverse conversation**

Question 64

Describe process consultation

Answer 64

Activities designed to assist members help themselves by improving their ability to perceive, understand and alter the processes that are undermining their interactions with each other.

Question 65

What is Total Quality Management (TQM)?

Answer 65

-Focus on customer satisfaction, employee involvement/empowerment, continuous improvement in goods/services, and ongoing measurement of performance to identify problems.

Question 66

Define Internal vs. External Change Agents

Answer 66

Internal Change Agent: member of organization with personal interest in the change effort External Change Agent: Typically a consultant that provides a more objective view.

Question 67

Define the 3 types of Organizational Justice

Answer 67

1) Procedural Justice: Fairness in implementation of policy/procedure 2) Distributive Justice: Fairness in outcomes of policy/procedure 3) Interactional Justice: How people feel about the quality/content of the 1-1 interactions

Question 68

What are the 5 Dimensions of Hofstede’s National Culture?

Answer 68

• Power Distance: extent of acceptance with unequal distribution of power -Uncertainty Avoidance: Willingness/ability to tolerate uncertainty -Individualism: individuals or social structures being the basis of social system -Masculinity: Value on assertiveness, independence and competitiveness -Long-term Orientation: extent of focus on future vs. past/present

Question 69

Describe Schein’s 3 Levels of Organizational Culture

Answer 69

1) Observable Artifacts (dress code, rituals, reports) 2) Espoused Values and Beliefs (Norms, goals) 3) Basic Underlying Assumptions (unconscious beliefs, thoughts, emotions) **A strong organizational culture can prevent/hinder cultural and other types of change**

Question 70

Describe Person-Organization Fit (P-O fit)

Answer 70

The extent to which the values held by a specific individuals match those of the organization’s culture -Good P-O fit has small impact on employee productivity - Associated with other positive things (job satisfaction, lower turnover and stress, etc)

Question 71

Define the Yerkes-Dodson Law

Answer 71

Rel. between level of arousal and performance is described by an inverted “U” shape. -Moderate levels of arousal associated with best performance - Moderated by task difficulty: Easy task - higher level of arousal is optimal; Hard task - lower levels of arousal optimal

Question 72

Describe Karasek’s Demand-Control Model

Answer 72

Job demands (workload, time pressures, responsibility) and Job control (autonomy, discretion for using different skills) are the primary contributors to job stress. - High job demands, low job control = most stressful AND associated with dissatisfaction, emotional exhaustion, depression and health probs.

Question 73

Define Job Burnout, it’s primary symptoms and it’s early ‘warning signs’

Answer 73

Caused by accumulated stress associated with overwork. Primary Sx: feelings of low personal accomplishment, depersonalization, emotional exhaustion. Early signs: Sudden increase in work effort and hours, without a corresponding increase in productivity.

Question 74

Describe Work-Family Conflicts and it’s associated effects

Answer 74

When role demands of career and family are incompatible because work interferes with the family and/or family activities/responsibilities interfere with work. Negative effects: reduced job/marital/life satisfaction, job burnout, job turnover, decreased productivity, mental/physical health problems. - more stressful for women -men experience more work conflicts and women experience more family conflicts

Question 75

Describe person-machine fit (work design)

Answer 75

Performance is the result of an interaction between people and machines. Any failure in performance is due to person-machine mismatch. - Want to ensure that the person fits the job and the job fits the person

Question 76

Compare Compressed workweeks to Flextime

Answer 76

Compressed Workweek: Decreases the # of days worked in a given cycle, by increasing the hours worked per day. -Positive effects for supervisor ratings, satisfaction, attitudes -NO big impact on job performance or absenteeism Flextime: Gives employees choice of when to begin and end their work day, while providing a core time to be present. - Positive effects for productivity, satisfaction, absenteeism, lower stress, less family conflicts -NO big impact on self-rated performance

Question 77

Compare different work shifts and their benefits/costs

Answer 77

Regular shift: 7-3 Swing Shift: 3-11 (Neg. Effects on family roles and social activities) Graveyard Shift: 11-7 (More social, health and work-related problems)