I'm stupid Flashcards

1
Q

What type of hormone does the pituitary gland release?

A

Peptide hormones

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2
Q

Are peptide hormones lipid soluble?

A

Yes peptide hormones are lipid soluble

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3
Q

What type of cell secretes insulin?

A

beta cells

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4
Q

What type of cell secretes glucagon?

A

alpha cells

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5
Q

What is PTH released in response to?

A

Low serum calcium levels

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6
Q

What stimulates calcitonin release?

A

High plasma calcium levels

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7
Q

What is the difference between the endocrine and exocrine system?

A

Endocrine - secrete into the blood, produces hormones

Exocrine - secretes into ductal system, does not produce hormones

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8
Q

Are steroid hormones lipid soluble?

A

Yes steroid hormones are lipid soluble

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9
Q

What type of hormone does the hypothalamus produce?

A

Peptide hormones

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10
Q

What type of cells produce calcitonin?

A

Parafollicular cells - found in the thyroid gland

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11
Q

Are amino acid based hormones lipid soluble?

A

No amino acid based hormones are not lipid soluble

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12
Q

What is the likely relationship between parents of an affected child in autosomal recessive patterns?

A

Consanguineous

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13
Q

Describe the structure of type IV collagen

A

Non-fibrillar

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14
Q

Which part of the GI tract normally absorbs the most fluid?

A

Jejunum

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15
Q

Is glucose freely filtered by the glomerulus?

A

Yes

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16
Q

What embryological structure gives rise to the aortic root?

A

Truncus arteriosus

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17
Q

Is endothelin-1 a vasodilator or vasoconstrictor?

A

Vasoconstriction

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18
Q

What is the purpose of coughing?

A

To move materials from the vocal cords to the pharynx

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19
Q

Are type 1 pneumocytes joined by tight junctions?

A

Yes

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20
Q

What is the main driver to breathing?

A

Central carbon dioxide

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21
Q

What is the main driver of exhalation?

A

Elastic recoil of the lungs

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22
Q

What is the action of pepsin?

A

Hydrolyses bonds between aromatic amino acids

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23
Q

Give an example of a trace metal

A

Manganese

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24
Q

Are neurone plasma membranes excitable?

A

Yes

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25
Awareness of pain is associated with activity in which region of the brain?
Prefrontal cortex
26
How is glucose absorbed from the GI tract?
It is passively absorbed through a membrane transporter
27
Which part of the GI tract absorbs the most water?
Jejunum
28
How is uric acid formed?
Breakdown of purines
29
In which part of the mediastinum is the arch of the aorta located?
Superior mediastinum
30
Where is the transverse pericardial sinus located?
Posterior to the aorta and pulmonary artery and anterior to the superior vena cava
31
Which aortic sinus gives rise to no coronary artery?
Right posterior
32
What does the T wave represent on an ECG?
Ventricular repolarisation
33
What are the unpaired cartilages of the larynx?
Epiglottis Thyroid Cricoid
34
What are the paired cartilages of the larynx?
Cuneiform Corniculate Arytenoid
35
What are the borders of the nasopharynx?
Nasal choanae anteriorly and the soft palate inferiorly
36
What does the frontal sinus drain into?
Middle meatus
37
What are the borders of Calot's triangle?
Inferior surface of the liver Cystic duct Common hepatic duct
38
Where are plicae circulares found?
SMALL intestine
39
What histological change occurs in Barrett's oesophagus?
Stratified squamous -> Columnar
40
At what vertebral level does the spinal cord normally end to form the conus medullaris?
L2
41
What is the most common position of the uterus?
Anteverted (and anteflexed)
42
What forms the anterior (superior) border of the femoral triangle?
Inguinal ligmant
43
What type of joint is the sternum articulating with the clavicle?
Saddle joint
44
What is the innervation of the pericardium?
Phrenic nerve
45
What is the serous pericardium made up of?
Mesothelium
46
What are the differences between cardiac and skeletal muscle?
Cardiac - contains intercalated discs, branched, central nuclei, single nucleus Skeletal - no intercalated discs, not branching, multinucleated
47
What is a similarity between skeletal and cardiac muscle?
They are both striated
48
What cell type makes up the majority of the surface area of the alveoli?
Type 1 pneumocytes
49
Where is cholesterol produced?
Liver
50
What are the branches of the internal carotid?
Anterior cerebral Middle cerebral Posterior communicating cerebral Ophthalmic
51
What is perimysium?
Sheath of connective tissue surrounding a bundle of muscle fibres
52
What is epimysium?
Sheath of fibrous elastic tissue surrounding an entire muscle
53
What is biliverdin converted into? What enzyme catalyses this reaction?
Unconjugated bilirubin | Biliverdin reductase
54
What is unconjugated bilirubin converted into? Where does this occur? What enzyme catalyses this reaction? What is the purpose of this reaction?
Conjugated bilirubin Liver UGT To increase water solubility
55
What is conjugated bilirubin converted into? Where does this occur? Under what does this reaction occur?
Urobilinogen Large intestine Intestinal bacteria
56
What is urobilinogen converted into?
Stercobilin (faeces) | Taken to the liver to be converted into urobilin -> urine OR recycled into bile
57
Order the different molecules involved in bilirubin metabolism.
``` Haem Biliverdin Unconjugated bilirubin Conjugated bilirubin Urobilinogen Stercobilin/Urobilin ```
58
What is the BMI range for: a) underweight b) normal c) overweight
a) <18.5 b) 18.5 - 25 c) 25 - 30
59
What is a stroma?
Connective tissue at the base of an organ or tumour
60
What is another term for parietal cells?
Oxyntic cells
61
Where is the pacemaker of the stomach located?
Greater curvature
62
What stimulates bile secretion from the liver?
Vagus stimulation, secretin, presence of bile salts
63
What cartilage is responsible for altering the tension on the vocal cords
Arytenoid
64
What is the costodiaphragmatic recess?
Part of the pleural cavity not occupied by the lungs
65
What type of molecule is the blood brain barrier permeable to?
Non-ionised molecules
66
How is CO2 transported in the blood?
Dissolved in plasma HCO3- Carboaminohaemoglobin
67
What is the chloride shift?
As CO2 enters a RBC it is converted into HCO3- and diffuses out the cell leaving H+, Cl- diffuses in to keep it neutral
68
What is the dermatome for the: a) thumb b) nipple c) umbilicus d) knee
a) C6 b) T4 c) T10 d) L3
69
What is the normal blood pH range?
7.35 - 7.45
70
What is the last rib to directly link to the sternum?
7th
71
What level is the sternal angle (Angle of Louis)?
T4
72
What level is the xiphoid process located?
T10
73
What is the surface marking for the upper oesophageal sphincter?
C6
74
What is the surface marking for the coeliac axis?
T12
75
What is the surface marking for the superior mesenteric artery?
L1
76
What is the surface marking for the inferior mesenteric artery?
L3
77
What level are the thyroid and cricoid cartilages?
C4 and C6 respectively
78
Between which muscles are the intercostal neurovascular bundles located?
Internal and innermost intercostal
79
What are the effects of stimulating arterial baroreceptors?
Decreased sympathetic stimulation Decreased arteriolar vasoconstriction Decreased blood pressure
80
Define ischaemia
Reversible damage to tissues as a result of impairment to perfusion
81
Define infarction
Irreversible death of tissue due to ischaemia
82
State features of the structure and components of an atheromatous fibrolipid plaque
``` Smooth muscle cells Macrophages Lymphocytes Cholesterol crystals Lipid core ```
83
Define carcinoma
Malignant neoplasm of epithelial cells
84
What structures lie anterior to the oesophagus in the thoracic cage
Trachea Heart Left main bronchus
85
What cells myelinate axons in the brain (CNS)?
Oligodendrocytes
86
What cells myelinate axons in the rest of the body (PNS)?
Schwann cells
87
What is the function of keratinising squamous epithelium?
Waterproofing Protection from mechanical stress Protection from chemical damage
88
Name 3 types of cell junctions
Occluding junction Gap junction Desmosomes
89
What is PEF?
Peak expiratory flow | Single measurement of highest flow during expiration
90
What does the eustachian tube connect and what is its function?
Connects middle ear to the throat | Prevent pressure from building up in the middle ear
91
What cells produce melanin?
Melanocytes
92
Where in the oesophagus is pseudostratified columnar epithelium found?
Gastric end - below the thoracic diaphragm
93
Where in the abdomen would you find pseudostratified epithelium?
Cardiac region of the stomach
94
Define compliance
How easily a chamber of the heart expands when its filled with blood (C = ^V/^P)
95
Define diastolic distensibility
Pressure required to fill the ventricles to the same diastolic volume
96
What is the equation for blood pressure (mean arterial pressure)?
BP (MAP) = CO x TPR
97
What is the innervation of the liver?
``` Celiac plexus (sympathetic and parasympathetic) Anterior vagal trunk ```
98
Where is HDL produced?
Liver
99
Where is LDL produced?
Plasma
100
Where is VLDL produced?
Hepatocytes
101
Where are microsomal enzymes found?
SER
102
Where are non microsomal enzymes found? What are some examples?
Cytoplasm and mitochondria | Oxidases, esterases, conjugases
103
A patient with jaundice has dark urine. What compound is present in increased levels?
Conjugated bilirubin
104
What does one turn of the urea cycle consume?
3 ATP and 4 high energy nucleotides
105
What is the mechanism for HCO3- secretion?
HCO3- exchanged for Cl- at the luminal membrane through CTFR channels H+ secreted into blood
106
What enzyme stimulates the enzyme rich phase of pancreatic secretion?
CCK
107
What enzyme stimulates the buffer phase of pancreatic secretion?
Secretin
108
Describe the structure of collagen
3 individual polypeptide chains each coiled in left hand helix
109
What is blood serum?
Blood without: - formed elements (cells) - clotting factors
110
What is blood plasma?
Blood without: | - formed elements (cells)
111
Would you find plasma proteins in the interstitial fluid?
No
112
What is a thrombocyte?
A platelet
113
What is the least common WBC?
Basophil
114
What forms the insoluble blood clot?
Fibrin
115
What causes a negative reaction from blood transfusions?
When the recipient antibodies attack the donated RBCs
116
What are the 3 phases of haemostasis?
Vascular Platelet Coagulation
117
What do the extrinsic and intrinsic coagulation cascades form?
Prothrombinase
118
What is the sympathetic neurotransmitter?
Noradrenaline
119
What is the parasympathetic neruotransmitter?
Acetylcholine
120
What is the epicardium
Visceral (innermost) layer of the pericardium
121
Where is the majority of the blood volume found?
In the veins (approx. 60%)
122
What is the involvement of muscle in venous return?
The veins can be squashed by contracting skeletal muscle
123
Describe sinusoid capillaries
Have gaps between adjacent endothelial cells | Thin or absent basement membrane
124
What is the tunica intima?
Single layer of capillary wall and the innermost layer of arteries and veins
125
What are the 3 layers of arteries and veins?
Tunica intima Tunica media Tunica adventitia
126
Describe the structure of fenestrated capillary
Have pores to allow the rapid movement of solutes and water
127
What are the least to most permeable capillaries?
Blood brain barrier Continuous Fenestrated Sinusoid
128
What are the 7 layers for gas exchange?
``` Alveolar epithelium Interstitial fluid Capillary endothelium Plasma RBC membrane RBC cytoplasm Hb binding site ```
129
What is the alveolar gas equation?
PAO2 = PiO2 - (PaCO2/R)
130
What is Dalton's law?
In a mixture of non reacting gases: Ptotal = Pa + Pb
131
What is Boyle's law?
Pressure and volume are inversely proportional
132
What is Henry's law?
Solubility of a gas is proportional to partial pressure (S1/P1 = S2/P2)
133
Do bronchioles have cartilage?
No bronchioles do not have cartilage
134
What is the composition of mucus?
Water Carbohydrates Lipid Protein
135
What is the function of mucus?
Protects epithelium from foreign material and fluid loss
136
Give an example of obstructive lung disease
Emphysema
137
Give and example of restrictive lung disease
Pulmonary fibrosis
138
Where are baroreceptors located?
Carotid sinus | Aortic arch
139
Where are peripheral chemoreceptors located (resp)?
Carotid and aortic bodies
140
What do peripheral chemoreceptors (resp) detect?
Partial pressure of oxygen
141
Where are central chemoreceptors (resp) located?
Medulla
142
What do central chemoreceptors (resp) detect?
Arterial partial pressure of CO2 | CO2 is inversely proportional to H+ in the CSF
143
What are 4 causes of hypoxia?
Hypoventilation Diffusion abnormality Reduced PiO2 V/Q mismatch
144
What are 4 causes of hypercapnia?
Increased dead space Increased CO2 production Reduced minute ventilation V/Q mismatch
145
Type 1 respiratory failure and causes
Hypoxemia | Causes: V/Q mismatch due to alveolar hypoventilation, high altitude, shunt, diffusion problems
146
Type 2 respiratory failure and causes
Hypoxemia and hypercapnia | Causes: inadequate alveolar ventilation due to reduced breathing effort, decreased SA, neuromuscular problems
147
What is the difference between primary and secondary active transport?
Primary AT - the carrier protein uses energy directly from ATP through hydrolysis Secondary AT - uses energy stored in the concentration gradient of ions
148
What does a diamond represent on a genetic pedigree chart?
Undetermined gender
149
What is polyploidy?
The state in which an organism/cell has more than 2 paired sets of chromosomes
150
What is the function of topoisomerase?
Unwinds the supercoiling of DNA
151
In what type of cell would you find a perinuclear huff?
Plasma cell
152
What type of cell has a reniform nucleus?
Monocyte
153
What is the main blood supply to the AVN?
Posterior interventricular
154
Describe the epithelium of the bronchioles
NOT RESPIRATORY EPITHELIUM | Ciliated columnar epithelium with a few goblet cells
155
What is the function of periciliary fluid?
It keeps the mucous at an optimum distance from the epithelia
156
What percentage of the SA of an alveoli do type 1 pneumocytes make up?
90%
157
What percentage of fluid is absorbed in the small intestine?
80%
158
Define penetrance
Proportion of people with a gene/genotype who show the expected phenotype
159
Where does haematopoiesis occur in an adult and in a foetus?
Adult - axial bone marrow | Foetus - yolk sac/liver/spleen
160
What is the difference between adult and foetal haemoglobin?
Adult - 2 alpha and 2 beta chains | Foetal - 2 alpha and 2 gamma chains
161
Where in the stomach would you most likely find G cells (enteroendocrine cells)?
Antrum
162
Define sensitivity with regards to screening programmes
Probability of a person with the disease testing positive | True positive/total number of people screened
163
Define specificity with regards to screening programmes
Probability of a person without the disease testing negative | True negative/total number of people screened
164
What is the rate limiting enzyme of glycolysis?
Phosphofructokinase - 1
165
What do platelet dense granules contain?
ADP and thromboxane A2
166
What are the pace-maker cells in the intestines?
Interstitial cells of Cajal
167
What level is the diaphragmatic hiatus for the: a) IVC b) oesophagus c) descending aorta
a) T8 b) T10 c) T12
168
Where in the stomach are chief cells and parietal cells found?
Fundus and body
169
What are the differences between the right and left main bronchus?
Right is more vertically disposed Right is shorter Right is wider
170
What are the 5 stages of quitting?
``` Precontemplation Contemplation Planning/preparation Action Maintenance ```
171
What two cells in the ovary secrete oestrogen?
Granulosa cells | Theca cells
172
What is the function of thyroidperoxidase?
Liberates iodine for addition onto tyrosine residues on thyroglobulin
173
How do thyroid hormones act on cells?
They are lipophilic so the hormone receptors if found intracellularly
174
Where is the primary visual cortex (Brodmann's area 17) located?
Occipital lobe | Medial surface above and below calcarine sulcus
175
What muscles of the hand does the median nerve supply?
``` LLOAF 2 lateral lumbricals Opponens pollicis Abductor pollicis brevis Flexor pollicis brevis ```
176
What makes up the carpal tunnel?
Carpal bones | Flexor retinaculum
177
What nerve runs through the carpal tunnel?
Median nerve
178
What muscles stabilise the knee?
Quadriceps
179
What part of the brain detects pain sensation?
Somatosensory cortex
180
What part of the brain detects an emotional response?
Amygdala
181
How does the myelin sheath increase the propagation rates of action potentials?
It prevents the movement of ions through the nerve cell membrane
182
From what layer of the embryo is bone derived from?
Mesoderm
183
Compare compact and trabeculated bone
Compact - dense, solid, only space is for blood vessels and cells Trabeculated - network of bony struts, many holes for bone marrow, cells reside in trabeculae and blood vessels in holes MACROSCOPIC BONE STRUCTURE
184
Compare woven (primary) and lamellae (secondary) bone
Woven - disorganised, no clear structure Lamellae - organised, layered structure MICROSCOPIC STRUCTURE
185
What is the composition of bone
``` 50-70% mineral- (Hydroxyapatite) 20-40% organic matrix Collagen (type 1) – 90% of all protein Non-collagenous proteins -10% of all protein 5-10% water ```
186
What cells secrete PTH and calcitonin?
PTH - chief cells | Calcitonin - parafollicular cells (C cells)
187
Where does the conversion of 7-dehydrocholesterol to cholecalciferol occur?
Skin
188
Where is FGF-23 produced?
Produced by osteocytes
189
What are the two types of fibrous joint?
Sutures - only between bones of skull | Gomphoses - only found in tooth articulation
190
What are the two types of cartilaginous joint?
Synchondroses - bones are directly connected by hyaline cartilage Symphyses - connecting cartilage is a pad or plate of fibrocartilage (eg. vertebrae)
191
What is the grey and white matter composed of?
Grey matter - cell bodies of neurones | White matter - myelinated axons
192
Does the dorsal root contain sensory or motor neurones?
Sensory
193
What is the major neurotransmitter of the peripheral nervous system?
Acetylcholine
194
What is the major neurotransmitter of the central nervous system?
Noradrenaline
195
What are the 2 general types of cholinergic receptor?
Nicotinic | Muscarinic (coupled with G protein)
196
What is the effect of Ach binding to a nicotinic receptor?
Always stimulatory
197
What is the effect of Ach binding to a muscarinic receptor?
Can be stimulatory or inhibitory
198
What neurotransmitter do all motor neurones release?
Acetylcholine
199
What is the tunica vaginalis?
A serous membrane that surrounds the testes
200
What is the role of the seminiferous tubules?
They produce sperm
201
What do adherens junctions do?
Join an actin bundle in one cells to a similar bundle in the adjacent cell
202
What do gap junctions do?
Allow the passage of small, water soluble ions and molecules
203
What do hemidesmosomes do?
Anchor intermediate filaments in one cell to the basal lamina
204
What do desmosomes do?
Connects intermediate filaments in one cell to the intermediate filaments of another
205
What do tight junctions do (zonula occludens)?
Seal neighbouring cells together in an epithelial sheet to prevent leakage of molecules
206
What point on an ECG corresponds to the plateau phase?
ST segment
207
What type of blood cell is raised in parasitic infection?
Eosinophil
208
What are basophils involved in?
Inflammatory reactions especially allergic reactions
209
What are neutrophils involved in?
Bacterial infections and acute inflammation
210
What is the function of somatostatin?
It is a GI hormone which has inhibitory effect on secretion of EVERY hormone
211
What is the path of sperm?
``` SREEVEN UP Seminiferous tubules Rete testis Efferent ducts Epididymis Vas deferens Ejaculatory duct Urethra Penile urethra ```
212
What level does the renal artery come off the abdominal aorta?
L2
213
What level does the oesophagus pass through the abdomen?
T10
214
What level does the aorta pass through the abdomen?
T12
215
What are the steps of catecholamine synthesis?
Tyrosine -> L-dopa -> dopamine -> noradrenaline -> adrenaline
216
What are the histological layers of the epidermis from exterior to interior?
``` Corneum Lucidum Granulosum Spinosum Basale ```
217
What is the role of intercalated cells in the kidney tubule?
Controlling acid base balance Type A controls H+ Type B controls HCO3-
218
When does the kidney become functional during development?
Week 12
219
What causes pelvic drop?
Weakness of the ipsilateral gluteus maximus and medius
220
What is the actions of DNA ligase?
Makes the DNA continuous by using the template strand to fill complementary bases
221
Where is somatostatin produced?
D cells in the islets of Langerhans
222
What cells make up the Islets of Langerhans?
Alpha (glucagon) Beta (insulin) Delta (somatostatin) Gamma (pancreatic polypeptide)
223
What do the pancreatic acini secrete?
Functional unit of exocrine pancreas | Secretes digestive enzymes and HCO3-
224
What is the function of lipoprotein lipase?
Hydrolyses triglycerides to produce 2 free fatty acids and glycerol
225
What is the function of hepatic lipase?
Converts intermediate density lipoprotein into low density lipoprotein (IDL -> LDL)
226
What is the function of triglyceride lipase?
Breaks down dietary fats into fatty acids and glycerol
227
What are monocytes derived from?
Hematopoietic stem cells
228
What are myocytes derived from?
Mesenchymal stem cells
229
Which type of receptor causes bronchoconstriction when acted on by Ach?
M3 muscarinic receptor
230
What is the principle cell involve in acute inflammation?
Neutrophil
231
What are the roles of lymphatics in acute inflammation?
Drain fluid exudate | Carry antigens to lymph nodes
232
What is the pattern of inheritance for Huntington's?
Autosomal dominant
233
What are 2 reasons someone may fail to quit smoking?
Nicotine addiction | Inability to cope with stresses in life
234
What 3 structures comprise a respiratory acinus?
Respiratory bronchiole Alveolar duct Alveoli
235
What are the 3 histological layers of the oesophagus?
Mucosa Sub mucosa Muscularis externa
236
What muscles makes up the upper oesophageal sphincter?
Cricopharyngeus
237
What symptom would present from fat malabsorption?
Pale smelly stools
238
What symptom would present from protein malabsorption?
Swollen ankles
239
What symptom would present from vitamin K malabsorption?
Bruising skin
240
Where are stem cells that replace the epithelium of the duodenum located?
Base of crypts
241
How much absolute alcohol is in one unit?
8g/10ml
242
Where is Wernicke's area and what is its function?
Left temporal lobe (Brodmann's area 22) | Speech comprehension
243
Where is Broca's area and what is its function?
Left frontal lobe | Speech production
244
Which part of the brain is responsible for recollective memory?
Amygdala
245
Which cranial nerve arises from the dorsal aspect of the brainstem?
Cn.4 trochlea
246
What nerve innervates the muscles for facial expression?
Cn. 7 Facial
247
What are the symptoms of cerebellar dysfunction?
``` Cerebellar signs : DANISH Dysdiadokinesia Ataxia Nystamus Intention tremor Slurred speech Hypotonia (NOT HYPER) ```
248
What part of the brain has a function in long term memory?
Hippocampus
249
Which cranial nerves carry parasympathetic fibres?
``` 1(0) - Vagus 9 - Glossopharyngeal 7 - Facial 3 - Occulomotor 1973 ```
250
What makes up the lentiform nucleus?
Putamen | Globus pallidus