I'm stupid Flashcards

1
Q

What type of hormone does the pituitary gland release?

A

Peptide hormones

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2
Q

Are peptide hormones lipid soluble?

A

Yes peptide hormones are lipid soluble

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3
Q

What type of cell secretes insulin?

A

beta cells

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4
Q

What type of cell secretes glucagon?

A

alpha cells

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5
Q

What is PTH released in response to?

A

Low serum calcium levels

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6
Q

What stimulates calcitonin release?

A

High plasma calcium levels

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7
Q

What is the difference between the endocrine and exocrine system?

A

Endocrine - secrete into the blood, produces hormones

Exocrine - secretes into ductal system, does not produce hormones

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8
Q

Are steroid hormones lipid soluble?

A

Yes steroid hormones are lipid soluble

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9
Q

What type of hormone does the hypothalamus produce?

A

Peptide hormones

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10
Q

What type of cells produce calcitonin?

A

Parafollicular cells - found in the thyroid gland

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11
Q

Are amino acid based hormones lipid soluble?

A

No amino acid based hormones are not lipid soluble

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12
Q

What is the likely relationship between parents of an affected child in autosomal recessive patterns?

A

Consanguineous

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13
Q

Describe the structure of type IV collagen

A

Non-fibrillar

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14
Q

Which part of the GI tract normally absorbs the most fluid?

A

Jejunum

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15
Q

Is glucose freely filtered by the glomerulus?

A

Yes

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16
Q

What embryological structure gives rise to the aortic root?

A

Truncus arteriosus

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17
Q

Is endothelin-1 a vasodilator or vasoconstrictor?

A

Vasoconstriction

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18
Q

What is the purpose of coughing?

A

To move materials from the vocal cords to the pharynx

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19
Q

Are type 1 pneumocytes joined by tight junctions?

A

Yes

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20
Q

What is the main driver to breathing?

A

Central carbon dioxide

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21
Q

What is the main driver of exhalation?

A

Elastic recoil of the lungs

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22
Q

What is the action of pepsin?

A

Hydrolyses bonds between aromatic amino acids

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23
Q

Give an example of a trace metal

A

Manganese

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24
Q

Are neurone plasma membranes excitable?

A

Yes

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25
Q

Awareness of pain is associated with activity in which region of the brain?

A

Prefrontal cortex

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26
Q

How is glucose absorbed from the GI tract?

A

It is passively absorbed through a membrane transporter

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27
Q

Which part of the GI tract absorbs the most water?

A

Jejunum

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28
Q

How is uric acid formed?

A

Breakdown of purines

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29
Q

In which part of the mediastinum is the arch of the aorta located?

A

Superior mediastinum

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30
Q

Where is the transverse pericardial sinus located?

A

Posterior to the aorta and pulmonary artery and anterior to the superior vena cava

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31
Q

Which aortic sinus gives rise to no coronary artery?

A

Right posterior

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32
Q

What does the T wave represent on an ECG?

A

Ventricular repolarisation

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33
Q

What are the unpaired cartilages of the larynx?

A

Epiglottis
Thyroid
Cricoid

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34
Q

What are the paired cartilages of the larynx?

A

Cuneiform
Corniculate
Arytenoid

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35
Q

What are the borders of the nasopharynx?

A

Nasal choanae anteriorly and the soft palate inferiorly

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36
Q

What does the frontal sinus drain into?

A

Middle meatus

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37
Q

What are the borders of Calot’s triangle?

A

Inferior surface of the liver
Cystic duct
Common hepatic duct

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38
Q

Where are plicae circulares found?

A

SMALL intestine

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39
Q

What histological change occurs in Barrett’s oesophagus?

A

Stratified squamous -> Columnar

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40
Q

At what vertebral level does the spinal cord normally end to form the conus medullaris?

A

L2

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41
Q

What is the most common position of the uterus?

A

Anteverted (and anteflexed)

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42
Q

What forms the anterior (superior) border of the femoral triangle?

A

Inguinal ligmant

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43
Q

What type of joint is the sternum articulating with the clavicle?

A

Saddle joint

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44
Q

What is the innervation of the pericardium?

A

Phrenic nerve

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45
Q

What is the serous pericardium made up of?

A

Mesothelium

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46
Q

What are the differences between cardiac and skeletal muscle?

A

Cardiac - contains intercalated discs, branched, central nuclei, single nucleus
Skeletal - no intercalated discs, not branching, multinucleated

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47
Q

What is a similarity between skeletal and cardiac muscle?

A

They are both striated

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48
Q

What cell type makes up the majority of the surface area of the alveoli?

A

Type 1 pneumocytes

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49
Q

Where is cholesterol produced?

A

Liver

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50
Q

What are the branches of the internal carotid?

A

Anterior cerebral
Middle cerebral
Posterior communicating cerebral
Ophthalmic

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51
Q

What is perimysium?

A

Sheath of connective tissue surrounding a bundle of muscle fibres

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52
Q

What is epimysium?

A

Sheath of fibrous elastic tissue surrounding an entire muscle

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53
Q

What is biliverdin converted into? What enzyme catalyses this reaction?

A

Unconjugated bilirubin

Biliverdin reductase

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54
Q

What is unconjugated bilirubin converted into? Where does this occur? What enzyme catalyses this reaction? What is the purpose of this reaction?

A

Conjugated bilirubin
Liver
UGT
To increase water solubility

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55
Q

What is conjugated bilirubin converted into? Where does this occur? Under what does this reaction occur?

A

Urobilinogen
Large intestine
Intestinal bacteria

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56
Q

What is urobilinogen converted into?

A

Stercobilin (faeces)

Taken to the liver to be converted into urobilin -> urine OR recycled into bile

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57
Q

Order the different molecules involved in bilirubin metabolism.

A
Haem
Biliverdin
Unconjugated bilirubin
Conjugated bilirubin
Urobilinogen
Stercobilin/Urobilin
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58
Q

What is the BMI range for:

a) underweight
b) normal
c) overweight

A

a) <18.5
b) 18.5 - 25
c) 25 - 30

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59
Q

What is a stroma?

A

Connective tissue at the base of an organ or tumour

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60
Q

What is another term for parietal cells?

A

Oxyntic cells

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61
Q

Where is the pacemaker of the stomach located?

A

Greater curvature

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62
Q

What stimulates bile secretion from the liver?

A

Vagus stimulation, secretin, presence of bile salts

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63
Q

What cartilage is responsible for altering the tension on the vocal cords

A

Arytenoid

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64
Q

What is the costodiaphragmatic recess?

A

Part of the pleural cavity not occupied by the lungs

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65
Q

What type of molecule is the blood brain barrier permeable to?

A

Non-ionised molecules

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66
Q

How is CO2 transported in the blood?

A

Dissolved in plasma
HCO3-
Carboaminohaemoglobin

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67
Q

What is the chloride shift?

A

As CO2 enters a RBC it is converted into HCO3- and diffuses out the cell leaving H+, Cl- diffuses in to keep it neutral

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68
Q

What is the dermatome for the:

a) thumb
b) nipple
c) umbilicus
d) knee

A

a) C6
b) T4
c) T10
d) L3

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69
Q

What is the normal blood pH range?

A

7.35 - 7.45

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70
Q

What is the last rib to directly link to the sternum?

A

7th

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71
Q

What level is the sternal angle (Angle of Louis)?

A

T4

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72
Q

What level is the xiphoid process located?

A

T10

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73
Q

What is the surface marking for the upper oesophageal sphincter?

A

C6

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74
Q

What is the surface marking for the coeliac axis?

A

T12

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75
Q

What is the surface marking for the superior mesenteric artery?

A

L1

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76
Q

What is the surface marking for the inferior mesenteric artery?

A

L3

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77
Q

What level are the thyroid and cricoid cartilages?

A

C4 and C6 respectively

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78
Q

Between which muscles are the intercostal neurovascular bundles located?

A

Internal and innermost intercostal

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79
Q

What are the effects of stimulating arterial baroreceptors?

A

Decreased sympathetic stimulation
Decreased arteriolar vasoconstriction
Decreased blood pressure

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80
Q

Define ischaemia

A

Reversible damage to tissues as a result of impairment to perfusion

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81
Q

Define infarction

A

Irreversible death of tissue due to ischaemia

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82
Q

State features of the structure and components of an atheromatous fibrolipid plaque

A
Smooth muscle cells
Macrophages
Lymphocytes
Cholesterol crystals
Lipid core
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83
Q

Define carcinoma

A

Malignant neoplasm of epithelial cells

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84
Q

What structures lie anterior to the oesophagus in the thoracic cage

A

Trachea
Heart
Left main bronchus

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85
Q

What cells myelinate axons in the brain (CNS)?

A

Oligodendrocytes

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86
Q

What cells myelinate axons in the rest of the body (PNS)?

A

Schwann cells

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87
Q

What is the function of keratinising squamous epithelium?

A

Waterproofing
Protection from mechanical stress
Protection from chemical damage

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88
Q

Name 3 types of cell junctions

A

Occluding junction
Gap junction
Desmosomes

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89
Q

What is PEF?

A

Peak expiratory flow

Single measurement of highest flow during expiration

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90
Q

What does the eustachian tube connect and what is its function?

A

Connects middle ear to the throat

Prevent pressure from building up in the middle ear

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91
Q

What cells produce melanin?

A

Melanocytes

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92
Q

Where in the oesophagus is pseudostratified columnar epithelium found?

A

Gastric end - below the thoracic diaphragm

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93
Q

Where in the abdomen would you find pseudostratified epithelium?

A

Cardiac region of the stomach

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94
Q

Define compliance

A

How easily a chamber of the heart expands when its filled with blood (C = ^V/^P)

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95
Q

Define diastolic distensibility

A

Pressure required to fill the ventricles to the same diastolic volume

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96
Q

What is the equation for blood pressure (mean arterial pressure)?

A

BP (MAP) = CO x TPR

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97
Q

What is the innervation of the liver?

A
Celiac plexus (sympathetic and parasympathetic)
Anterior vagal trunk
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98
Q

Where is HDL produced?

A

Liver

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99
Q

Where is LDL produced?

A

Plasma

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100
Q

Where is VLDL produced?

A

Hepatocytes

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101
Q

Where are microsomal enzymes found?

A

SER

102
Q

Where are non microsomal enzymes found? What are some examples?

A

Cytoplasm and mitochondria

Oxidases, esterases, conjugases

103
Q

A patient with jaundice has dark urine. What compound is present in increased levels?

A

Conjugated bilirubin

104
Q

What does one turn of the urea cycle consume?

A

3 ATP and 4 high energy nucleotides

105
Q

What is the mechanism for HCO3- secretion?

A

HCO3- exchanged for Cl- at the luminal membrane through CTFR channels
H+ secreted into blood

106
Q

What enzyme stimulates the enzyme rich phase of pancreatic secretion?

A

CCK

107
Q

What enzyme stimulates the buffer phase of pancreatic secretion?

A

Secretin

108
Q

Describe the structure of collagen

A

3 individual polypeptide chains each coiled in left hand helix

109
Q

What is blood serum?

A

Blood without:

  • formed elements (cells)
  • clotting factors
110
Q

What is blood plasma?

A

Blood without:

- formed elements (cells)

111
Q

Would you find plasma proteins in the interstitial fluid?

A

No

112
Q

What is a thrombocyte?

A

A platelet

113
Q

What is the least common WBC?

A

Basophil

114
Q

What forms the insoluble blood clot?

A

Fibrin

115
Q

What causes a negative reaction from blood transfusions?

A

When the recipient antibodies attack the donated RBCs

116
Q

What are the 3 phases of haemostasis?

A

Vascular
Platelet
Coagulation

117
Q

What do the extrinsic and intrinsic coagulation cascades form?

A

Prothrombinase

118
Q

What is the sympathetic neurotransmitter?

A

Noradrenaline

119
Q

What is the parasympathetic neruotransmitter?

A

Acetylcholine

120
Q

What is the epicardium

A

Visceral (innermost) layer of the pericardium

121
Q

Where is the majority of the blood volume found?

A

In the veins (approx. 60%)

122
Q

What is the involvement of muscle in venous return?

A

The veins can be squashed by contracting skeletal muscle

123
Q

Describe sinusoid capillaries

A

Have gaps between adjacent endothelial cells

Thin or absent basement membrane

124
Q

What is the tunica intima?

A

Single layer of capillary wall and the innermost layer of arteries and veins

125
Q

What are the 3 layers of arteries and veins?

A

Tunica intima
Tunica media
Tunica adventitia

126
Q

Describe the structure of fenestrated capillary

A

Have pores to allow the rapid movement of solutes and water

127
Q

What are the least to most permeable capillaries?

A

Blood brain barrier
Continuous
Fenestrated
Sinusoid

128
Q

What are the 7 layers for gas exchange?

A
Alveolar epithelium
Interstitial fluid
Capillary endothelium
Plasma 
RBC membrane
RBC cytoplasm
Hb binding site
129
Q

What is the alveolar gas equation?

A

PAO2 = PiO2 - (PaCO2/R)

130
Q

What is Dalton’s law?

A

In a mixture of non reacting gases: Ptotal = Pa + Pb

131
Q

What is Boyle’s law?

A

Pressure and volume are inversely proportional

132
Q

What is Henry’s law?

A

Solubility of a gas is proportional to partial pressure (S1/P1 = S2/P2)

133
Q

Do bronchioles have cartilage?

A

No bronchioles do not have cartilage

134
Q

What is the composition of mucus?

A

Water
Carbohydrates
Lipid
Protein

135
Q

What is the function of mucus?

A

Protects epithelium from foreign material and fluid loss

136
Q

Give an example of obstructive lung disease

A

Emphysema

137
Q

Give and example of restrictive lung disease

A

Pulmonary fibrosis

138
Q

Where are baroreceptors located?

A

Carotid sinus

Aortic arch

139
Q

Where are peripheral chemoreceptors located (resp)?

A

Carotid and aortic bodies

140
Q

What do peripheral chemoreceptors (resp) detect?

A

Partial pressure of oxygen

141
Q

Where are central chemoreceptors (resp) located?

A

Medulla

142
Q

What do central chemoreceptors (resp) detect?

A

Arterial partial pressure of CO2

CO2 is inversely proportional to H+ in the CSF

143
Q

What are 4 causes of hypoxia?

A

Hypoventilation
Diffusion abnormality
Reduced PiO2
V/Q mismatch

144
Q

What are 4 causes of hypercapnia?

A

Increased dead space
Increased CO2 production
Reduced minute ventilation
V/Q mismatch

145
Q

Type 1 respiratory failure and causes

A

Hypoxemia

Causes: V/Q mismatch due to alveolar hypoventilation, high altitude, shunt, diffusion problems

146
Q

Type 2 respiratory failure and causes

A

Hypoxemia and hypercapnia

Causes: inadequate alveolar ventilation due to reduced breathing effort, decreased SA, neuromuscular problems

147
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary active transport?

A

Primary AT - the carrier protein uses energy directly from ATP through hydrolysis
Secondary AT - uses energy stored in the concentration gradient of ions

148
Q

What does a diamond represent on a genetic pedigree chart?

A

Undetermined gender

149
Q

What is polyploidy?

A

The state in which an organism/cell has more than 2 paired sets of chromosomes

150
Q

What is the function of topoisomerase?

A

Unwinds the supercoiling of DNA

151
Q

In what type of cell would you find a perinuclear huff?

A

Plasma cell

152
Q

What type of cell has a reniform nucleus?

A

Monocyte

153
Q

What is the main blood supply to the AVN?

A

Posterior interventricular

154
Q

Describe the epithelium of the bronchioles

A

NOT RESPIRATORY EPITHELIUM

Ciliated columnar epithelium with a few goblet cells

155
Q

What is the function of periciliary fluid?

A

It keeps the mucous at an optimum distance from the epithelia

156
Q

What percentage of the SA of an alveoli do type 1 pneumocytes make up?

A

90%

157
Q

What percentage of fluid is absorbed in the small intestine?

A

80%

158
Q

Define penetrance

A

Proportion of people with a gene/genotype who show the expected phenotype

159
Q

Where does haematopoiesis occur in an adult and in a foetus?

A

Adult - axial bone marrow

Foetus - yolk sac/liver/spleen

160
Q

What is the difference between adult and foetal haemoglobin?

A

Adult - 2 alpha and 2 beta chains

Foetal - 2 alpha and 2 gamma chains

161
Q

Where in the stomach would you most likely find G cells (enteroendocrine cells)?

A

Antrum

162
Q

Define sensitivity with regards to screening programmes

A

Probability of a person with the disease testing positive

True positive/total number of people screened

163
Q

Define specificity with regards to screening programmes

A

Probability of a person without the disease testing negative

True negative/total number of people screened

164
Q

What is the rate limiting enzyme of glycolysis?

A

Phosphofructokinase - 1

165
Q

What do platelet dense granules contain?

A

ADP and thromboxane A2

166
Q

What are the pace-maker cells in the intestines?

A

Interstitial cells of Cajal

167
Q

What level is the diaphragmatic hiatus for the:

a) IVC
b) oesophagus
c) descending aorta

A

a) T8
b) T10
c) T12

168
Q

Where in the stomach are chief cells and parietal cells found?

A

Fundus and body

169
Q

What are the differences between the right and left main bronchus?

A

Right is more vertically disposed
Right is shorter
Right is wider

170
Q

What are the 5 stages of quitting?

A
Precontemplation
Contemplation
Planning/preparation
Action
Maintenance
171
Q

What two cells in the ovary secrete oestrogen?

A

Granulosa cells

Theca cells

172
Q

What is the function of thyroidperoxidase?

A

Liberates iodine for addition onto tyrosine residues on thyroglobulin

173
Q

How do thyroid hormones act on cells?

A

They are lipophilic so the hormone receptors if found intracellularly

174
Q

Where is the primary visual cortex (Brodmann’s area 17) located?

A

Occipital lobe

Medial surface above and below calcarine sulcus

175
Q

What muscles of the hand does the median nerve supply?

A
LLOAF
2 lateral lumbricals
Opponens pollicis
Abductor pollicis brevis
Flexor pollicis brevis
176
Q

What makes up the carpal tunnel?

A

Carpal bones

Flexor retinaculum

177
Q

What nerve runs through the carpal tunnel?

A

Median nerve

178
Q

What muscles stabilise the knee?

A

Quadriceps

179
Q

What part of the brain detects pain sensation?

A

Somatosensory cortex

180
Q

What part of the brain detects an emotional response?

A

Amygdala

181
Q

How does the myelin sheath increase the propagation rates of action potentials?

A

It prevents the movement of ions through the nerve cell membrane

182
Q

From what layer of the embryo is bone derived from?

A

Mesoderm

183
Q

Compare compact and trabeculated bone

A

Compact - dense, solid, only space is for blood vessels and cells
Trabeculated - network of bony struts, many holes for bone marrow, cells reside in trabeculae and blood vessels in holes
MACROSCOPIC BONE STRUCTURE

184
Q

Compare woven (primary) and lamellae (secondary) bone

A

Woven - disorganised, no clear structure
Lamellae - organised, layered structure
MICROSCOPIC STRUCTURE

185
Q

What is the composition of bone

A
50-70% mineral- (Hydroxyapatite)
20-40% organic matrix 
Collagen (type 1) – 90% of all protein
Non-collagenous proteins -10% of all protein
5-10% water
186
Q

What cells secrete PTH and calcitonin?

A

PTH - chief cells

Calcitonin - parafollicular cells (C cells)

187
Q

Where does the conversion of 7-dehydrocholesterol to cholecalciferol occur?

A

Skin

188
Q

Where is FGF-23 produced?

A

Produced by osteocytes

189
Q

What are the two types of fibrous joint?

A

Sutures - only between bones of skull

Gomphoses - only found in tooth articulation

190
Q

What are the two types of cartilaginous joint?

A

Synchondroses - bones are directly connected by hyaline cartilage
Symphyses - connecting cartilage is a pad or plate of fibrocartilage (eg. vertebrae)

191
Q

What is the grey and white matter composed of?

A

Grey matter - cell bodies of neurones

White matter - myelinated axons

192
Q

Does the dorsal root contain sensory or motor neurones?

A

Sensory

193
Q

What is the major neurotransmitter of the peripheral nervous system?

A

Acetylcholine

194
Q

What is the major neurotransmitter of the central nervous system?

A

Noradrenaline

195
Q

What are the 2 general types of cholinergic receptor?

A

Nicotinic

Muscarinic (coupled with G protein)

196
Q

What is the effect of Ach binding to a nicotinic receptor?

A

Always stimulatory

197
Q

What is the effect of Ach binding to a muscarinic receptor?

A

Can be stimulatory or inhibitory

198
Q

What neurotransmitter do all motor neurones release?

A

Acetylcholine

199
Q

What is the tunica vaginalis?

A

A serous membrane that surrounds the testes

200
Q

What is the role of the seminiferous tubules?

A

They produce sperm

201
Q

What do adherens junctions do?

A

Join an actin bundle in one cells to a similar bundle in the adjacent cell

202
Q

What do gap junctions do?

A

Allow the passage of small, water soluble ions and molecules

203
Q

What do hemidesmosomes do?

A

Anchor intermediate filaments in one cell to the basal lamina

204
Q

What do desmosomes do?

A

Connects intermediate filaments in one cell to the intermediate filaments of another

205
Q

What do tight junctions do (zonula occludens)?

A

Seal neighbouring cells together in an epithelial sheet to prevent leakage of molecules

206
Q

What point on an ECG corresponds to the plateau phase?

A

ST segment

207
Q

What type of blood cell is raised in parasitic infection?

A

Eosinophil

208
Q

What are basophils involved in?

A

Inflammatory reactions especially allergic reactions

209
Q

What are neutrophils involved in?

A

Bacterial infections and acute inflammation

210
Q

What is the function of somatostatin?

A

It is a GI hormone which has inhibitory effect on secretion of EVERY hormone

211
Q

What is the path of sperm?

A
SREEVEN UP
Seminiferous tubules
Rete testis
Efferent ducts
Epididymis
Vas deferens
Ejaculatory duct
Urethra
Penile urethra
212
Q

What level does the renal artery come off the abdominal aorta?

A

L2

213
Q

What level does the oesophagus pass through the abdomen?

A

T10

214
Q

What level does the aorta pass through the abdomen?

A

T12

215
Q

What are the steps of catecholamine synthesis?

A

Tyrosine -> L-dopa -> dopamine -> noradrenaline -> adrenaline

216
Q

What are the histological layers of the epidermis from exterior to interior?

A
Corneum
Lucidum
Granulosum
Spinosum
Basale
217
Q

What is the role of intercalated cells in the kidney tubule?

A

Controlling acid base balance
Type A controls H+
Type B controls HCO3-

218
Q

When does the kidney become functional during development?

A

Week 12

219
Q

What causes pelvic drop?

A

Weakness of the ipsilateral gluteus maximus and medius

220
Q

What is the actions of DNA ligase?

A

Makes the DNA continuous by using the template strand to fill complementary bases

221
Q

Where is somatostatin produced?

A

D cells in the islets of Langerhans

222
Q

What cells make up the Islets of Langerhans?

A

Alpha (glucagon)
Beta (insulin)
Delta (somatostatin)
Gamma (pancreatic polypeptide)

223
Q

What do the pancreatic acini secrete?

A

Functional unit of exocrine pancreas

Secretes digestive enzymes and HCO3-

224
Q

What is the function of lipoprotein lipase?

A

Hydrolyses triglycerides to produce 2 free fatty acids and glycerol

225
Q

What is the function of hepatic lipase?

A

Converts intermediate density lipoprotein into low density lipoprotein (IDL -> LDL)

226
Q

What is the function of triglyceride lipase?

A

Breaks down dietary fats into fatty acids and glycerol

227
Q

What are monocytes derived from?

A

Hematopoietic stem cells

228
Q

What are myocytes derived from?

A

Mesenchymal stem cells

229
Q

Which type of receptor causes bronchoconstriction when acted on by Ach?

A

M3 muscarinic receptor

230
Q

What is the principle cell involve in acute inflammation?

A

Neutrophil

231
Q

What are the roles of lymphatics in acute inflammation?

A

Drain fluid exudate

Carry antigens to lymph nodes

232
Q

What is the pattern of inheritance for Huntington’s?

A

Autosomal dominant

233
Q

What are 2 reasons someone may fail to quit smoking?

A

Nicotine addiction

Inability to cope with stresses in life

234
Q

What 3 structures comprise a respiratory acinus?

A

Respiratory bronchiole
Alveolar duct
Alveoli

235
Q

What are the 3 histological layers of the oesophagus?

A

Mucosa
Sub mucosa
Muscularis externa

236
Q

What muscles makes up the upper oesophageal sphincter?

A

Cricopharyngeus

237
Q

What symptom would present from fat malabsorption?

A

Pale smelly stools

238
Q

What symptom would present from protein malabsorption?

A

Swollen ankles

239
Q

What symptom would present from vitamin K malabsorption?

A

Bruising skin

240
Q

Where are stem cells that replace the epithelium of the duodenum located?

A

Base of crypts

241
Q

How much absolute alcohol is in one unit?

A

8g/10ml

242
Q

Where is Wernicke’s area and what is its function?

A

Left temporal lobe (Brodmann’s area 22)

Speech comprehension

243
Q

Where is Broca’s area and what is its function?

A

Left frontal lobe

Speech production

244
Q

Which part of the brain is responsible for recollective memory?

A

Amygdala

245
Q

Which cranial nerve arises from the dorsal aspect of the brainstem?

A

Cn.4 trochlea

246
Q

What nerve innervates the muscles for facial expression?

A

Cn. 7 Facial

247
Q

What are the symptoms of cerebellar dysfunction?

A
Cerebellar signs : DANISH
Dysdiadokinesia
Ataxia
Nystamus
Intention tremor
Slurred speech
Hypotonia (NOT HYPER)
248
Q

What part of the brain has a function in long term memory?

A

Hippocampus

249
Q

Which cranial nerves carry parasympathetic fibres?

A
1(0) - Vagus
9 - Glossopharyngeal
7 - Facial
3 - Occulomotor
1973
250
Q

What makes up the lentiform nucleus?

A

Putamen

Globus pallidus