HY 4/ Flashcards

1
Q

If seeing pt in ED and onset of behavioral changes suggests intoxication, withdrawal, or delirium related to substance use urine toxicology needs to be included in the first series of tests. It would also be reasonable to assess for depression as it is often co-morbid with substance use however completing a urine toxicology screen would be prudent to complete ___.

A

first

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A ___ assessment is the first step when evaluating any type of communication disorder. The ___ assessment precedes formal assessment in all language, speech, and communication disorders.

A

hearing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The most common inherited cause of intellectual disability is ___, from a mutation on the X chromosome, occurring in 1 of 1,000 males and 1 of 2,000 females. ___ is caused by a CGG trinucleotide expansion of the FMR gene on the X chromosome. ___ is characterized by developmental delay, seizures, hyperactivity, and characteristic facies, including a long face, prominent jaw, and flat feet. This is an X linked dominantly inherited syndrome.

Down syndrome (trisomy 21) is the most common cause of genetic intellectual disability, occurring in 1 of every 700 births in the United States.

A

fragile X syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

___ is calculated using True Positives / (True Positives + False Positive)

A

Positive predictive value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

___ is associated with deletions of genetic material located on the long arm of chromosome 7 (7q11.23) Children have typical elfin like facies with post-natal growth failure and hypercalcemia. The most common cardiac defect in these patients is supravalvular aortic stenosis. Familial cases have been reported and it is thought that, in these cases, the syndrome is inherited as an autosomal dominant trait.

A

Williams Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

___ parents are responsive and warm but are strong and disciplined. The parents provide constant supervision and have rules to implement discipline in the children. ___ parents are demanding and firm but positively influence the child’s competencies and academic achievements later in life.

A

Authoritative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The additional effect of CBT added to SSRI antidepressants is modest, but occurs despite reduced SSRI use in teens that are initially on both. Teens on the combination utilize ___ health services despite having the same symptom level as teens on SSRIs alone. There is no clear evidence that CBT reduces SSRI-associated suicidality.

A

fewer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In accordance with the nonmaleficence principle (first, do no harm) physicians are obligated to decline a patient’s demand if the risks of harm ___ benefits and patient preference.

A

outweigh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

___ is considered to play a role in the development of depression. This is found through increased levels of interleukin-6 and C-reactive protein. Increased levels of pro-inflammatory cytokine IFN-γ, has also been found in depressed adolescents as well as in adolescents with a history of childhood trauma. High levels of basal and urinary cortisol are found in youth likely to experience recurrences of depression. Cortisol levels among depressed adolescents in response to a social stressor have been found to be elevated and slower to return to baseline compared to non-depressed adolescents. Studies including subjects in mid- to late adolescence generally have found significant associations between cortisol levels and depression typically yield significant associations. However, these associations were not found in studies with pre-adolescent aged subject.

A

Inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Psychosis due to Wilson’s disease is indicated by low levels of cellular plasma and copper in blood, and high levels of copper in ___. Hypodense basal ganglia is the typical finding on MRI brain scan of patients experiencing psychosis due to Wilson’s disease.

A

urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

___ refers to a cognitive error where a person takes responsibility for undesirable or unhealthy external events that are out of their control.

A

Personalization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

___ refers to a belief that one specific outcome can be generalized to all other circumstances even though there is no sound basis for that generalization. For example, a person who fails at one test starts believing they are going to fail every test in their life.

A

Overgeneralization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

___, also known as black and white thinking, refers to the belief that all events are either totally good or totally bad and that no other outcome is possible. Individuals with this distortion find it hard to accept outcomes that are less than ideal and often use words such as “never” and “always.” For example, a person who gets one question wrong on a test believes they are a failure and that they will never succeed in life.

A

Absolutism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In the ___ cognitive distortion, people view things out of context while focusing on only the negatives of a situation.

A

selective abstraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

___ involves placing undue importance on the outcome of one event. Individuals with this cognitive distortion expect the most terrible outcomes on the basis of a single negative event.

A

Catastrophizing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

ASD is one of the most strongly ___ of neuropsychiatric conditions, as attested by the high concordance rates of monozygotic twins (schizophrenia is only 50%). The risk of 3% to 15% in dizygotic twins still suggests a significant risk, as suggested by observed familial clustering of ASD. The vast majority of cases of ASD are not due to causal genetic defects or mutations and instead are due to the weak contribution of multiple risk genes.

A

genetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The milestones can count up to 10, can write name, and can use future tense are seen in children who are ___ years old

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The 3-word sentences milestone is seen in children who are ___ years old.

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

At ___ years old, the expected milestones include climbing the stairs with alternating feet without support, skipping on one foot, drawing a person with at least 3 body parts, or a simple cross, use 4-word sentences, and use words that are 100% intelligible to patients.

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Substantial loss of memory for extended time periods, usually in the setting of stress or trauma, is the hallmark of ___. It is not diagnosed during the course of dissociative identity disorder, PTSD, acute stress disorder, or somatic symptom disorder, and is not due to substance ingestion or a neurological condition. The symptoms cause clinically significant distress or impairment in function.

A

dissociative amnesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Autism spectrum disorder is associated with decreased DNA methylation of several genes leading to dysregulated ___ of gene products involved in the glial-cell dependent synaptic pruning.

Examples of ___ of gene products involved in the glial-cell dependent synaptic pruning include the complement opsonin C1q, CR3, TNF, IRF8.

A

overexpression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Second generation antipsychotic-induced metabolic syndrome includes obesity, diabetes, hyperlipidemia, and ___.

A

hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Asthma medications of several classes have high rates of ___ symptoms as adverse effects of the medications. For example, beta 2 adrenergic agonists, such as albuterol, increase are associated with anxiety symptoms. Theophylline, another bronchodilator, is chemically related to caffeine and often triggers anxiety symptoms. Even the anticholinergics, such as ipratropium, can in some cases lead to anxiety.

A

anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

An epidemiological study of a representative sample of children born in the US found that the prevalence of DEVELOPMENTAL DISABILITIES in children 3-17 was ___ in the years 2015-2017.

A

17.8%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Epicanthal folds, microcephaly, low nasal bridge, thin upper lip, flat philtrum are physical anomalies characteristic of one possessing ___.

A

fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Past case reports have shown variable courses and prognoses for patients who have received diagnoses of autism spectrum disorder, without accompanying intellectual or language impairment. The factors associated with a good prognosis are a ___ IQ and high-level social skills.

A

normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

___ is a tic consisting of involuntarily performing obscene or forbidden gestures (eg, flipping the bird), or inappropriate touching. ___ comes from the Greek κόπρος (kópros), meaning “feces”, and πρᾶξις (prâxis), meaning “action”. ___ is a rare characteristic of Tourette syndrome.

A

Copropraxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Clinical course of Tourette’s Syndrome involves facial tics, head and neck tics, body tics, and vocal tics with gradual ___ (typically rostrocaudal) and complexity which dissipates at 20 years of age in two-thirds of patients

A

progression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

IDEA formerly defined a specific learning disorder using the discrepancy model. A child, especially, was required to demonstrate normal IQ and poor performance on psychoeducational tests (such as reading and math) therefore, a discrepancy between the 2 tests. The DSM-5 continues to define a learning disorder this way. However, according to the latest revision of the IDEA in October 2006, the new definition of a learning disability is the response to ___ model (i.e., the situation where a child does not learn as expected with standard quality academic instruction).

A

intervention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Parent management training and child ___ skills training have the best evidence base for the treatment of oppositional defiant disorder. In parent management training, parents are taught how to provide appropriate reinforcement of positive behaviors and how not to reinforce negative behaviors. In addition, education is given regarding behaviors and behavior management. Child ___ skills training involves teaching the child alternative means of solving problems, so that the child does not engage in oppositional and ineffective behaviors.

A

problem-solving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The following are true of ___:

1) Parents attend group meetings where they learn to apply behavioral management techniques during the meetings and apply it between sessions, as well as share their experiences in the following sessions.

2) Typically lasts between 9 and 20 sessions, including didactic presentations in clinics

3) Parent-child interaction therapy (PCIT) has evidence for support in control of ADHD symptoms with children with conduct disorder

A

parent management training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Topiramate is cleared by the kidney markedly ___.

A

unchanged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

___ or egocentric speech used by children aged 3 to 7. It is directed to self rather than others and its main function is to guide and aid young children in the process of thinking and acting on different tasks.

According to Vygotsky, there are 3 forms of language, one of them is the inner speech which usually develops after the age of 7 years and is the hidden or covert speech. It is connected with thoughts and not as expressive as private speech.

Social speech is the language used by children around age 2 for social interaction and to communicate their needs to their caregivers. It is used to simply express thoughts of hunger, pleasure or pain so that their immediate concerns are resolved. Social or external speech is the most primitive language used by toddlers to communicate their needs.

A

Private

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

According to a randomized double-blind placebo-controlled clinical trial, ___ showed significant reductions in substance use disorder and also clinical symptom ratings after 6 weeks of treatment in adolescents with bipolar disorder and co-morbid substance use disorder.

A

lithium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Abnormal social ___ is amongst one of the hallmarks of autism spectrum disorder, in addition to communication, motor, and behavioral abnormalities.

A

reciprocity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Irritability, pallor, vomiting, constipation, and weight loss are common prodromal symptoms of elevated ___ levels, whereas convulsions, lethargy, sixth nerve palsy, and ataxia are characteristic of overt ___ poisoning.

A

lead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Bedwetting is normal before age ___. Actually, enuresis cannot be diagnosed before age ___.

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Evidence shows that in 98.5% of ordinary children, maturation of bladder has occurred by 5 years of age. There is a high rate of spontaneous resolution; approximately 15% per year. Enuresis may occur due to anxiety, often transient, during the third year of life, which is apparently not only a “sensitive” period for the emergence of nocturnal bladder control but also a “vulnerable” period in which stresses often interfere with emergence of this behavior. Diagnosis of primary nocturnal enuresis occurs once a child is old enough to stay dry but still occurs, on average, at least ___ nights per week for three consecutive months. There must be no long periods of dryness. Primary nocturnal enuresis is the most common form of bedwetting. Secondary nocturnal enuresis is diagnosed when a patient has gone through a period of dryness at night of roughly 6 months or more and then returns to wetting the bed.

A

two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The p-value measures the probability of an observed difference occurring due to a random ___. A lower p-value represents a greater statistical significance regarding the observed difference.

A

chance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

___ independent variable is a variable that cannot be manipulated. Age, ethnicity, and gender are examples of it. Some of the surrounding environment aspects also cannot be manipulated and are used as ___ variables.

A

Attribute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

___ variable can decrease or strengthen the association between the dependent and independent variables in a study. They can alter the course of the relationship.

A

Moderating

42
Q

___ independent variable is an intervention or treatment given to participants (cases) and not the controls in an experimental study for a certain amount of time. The investigators can control an ___ independent variable.

A

Active

43
Q

Pearson’s chi-squared test (Χ2) is used for evaluation of ___ data to determine the likelihood of the observed difference between the sets of variables being due to chance. Pearson’s correlation coefficient is used to determine the relationship between the variables.

A

categorical

44
Q

Catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT) is involved in the ___ of catecholamine neurotransmitters including dopamine, epinephrine, and norepinephrine by catalyzing the addition of methyl group to catecholamine.

A

inactivation

45
Q

Monoamine oxidases is a group of enzymes that catalyzes the oxidation of ___.

A

monoamines

46
Q

___ or tyrosine 3-monooxygenase is the rate-limiting enzyme of catecholamine synthesis including dopamine, epinephrine, and norepinephrine. It catalyzes the conversion of amino acid L-tyrosine to L-3,4-dihydroxyphenylalanine (DOPA) using oxygen, iron, and tetrahydrobiopterin as cofactors.

A

Tyrosine hydroxylase

47
Q

___ is an important part of American legislation that is aimed at providing equal educational opportunities to children with disabilities and developmental delays. The legislation consists of 4 main provisions and 6 key requirements.

A

IDEA

48
Q

The DSM-5 defines gender dysphoria as significant longstanding distress (≥ ___) caused by the incongruence between a person’s experienced/expressed gender and assigned gender.

A

6 months

49
Q

___ disorder is characterized by the persistent and intense sexual arousal caused by wearing clothes associated with the opposite gender (cross-dressing). Individuals with ___ disorder do not identify as or wish to be the opposite gender.

A

Transvestic

50
Q

According to studies, methylphenidate can cause growth retardation in children who use the medication regularly for several years. A discrepancy of several ___ in height of such children has been noticed.

A

centimeters

51
Q

Depressive disorders have a prevalence of 3% to ___% in children of adolescent age. Prepubertal children have a prevalence of depressive disorders of 1% to 2% and both genders have the same risk at that age, whereas at adolescence, the ratio shifts to a 3:1 excess of females over males. The combined occurrence of bipolar disorder (mainly bipolar II disorder, unspecified bipolar disorder, and cyclothymic disorder) is approximately 1% to 2%.

A

8

52
Q

Benzodiazepines can ___ sleepwalking and are not a safe or evidence-based treatment for youth that are sleepwalking.

A

worsen

53
Q

Somnambulism or sleepwalking is a ___ disorder that presents in children and usually remits spontaneously by the time they reach their teens. No active treatment is required, but sleepwalkers may hurt themselves while asleep, so parents should be careful to board the staircase, close the windows, and remove any cords lying around the house. Often these children go back to bed by themselves but may wake up in a different place than they slept in.

A

benign

54
Q

___ syndrome is characterized by multiple physical and mental issues since birth. Characteristic facial features include bushy eyebrows, small nose, and a long and smooth philtrum. Synophrys is also a common occurrence characterized by the meeting of medial eyebrows in the midline. Limb abnormalities are common along with congenital diaphragmatic hernia. Classic variant of the disorder manifests as significant intellectual disability with behavioral impairment including self-injurious behavior which may be a response to severe pain and an inability to express the feeling.

A

Cornelia de Lange

55
Q

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is a rare X-linked metabolic disorder characterized by intellectual disability, early hypotonia, dystonic movement disorder, compulsive self-injurious behavior with extended aggression towards others, and hyper___.

A

uricemia

56
Q

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is a rare X-linked metabolic disorder characterized by intellectual disability, early hypotonia, dystonic movement disorder, compulsive self-injurious behavior with extended aggression towards others, and hyper___.

A

uricemia

57
Q

Landau–Kleffner syndrome is an epileptic encephalopathy characterized by language ___. There is acquired verbal aphasia with severe verbal auditory agnosia. Sleep EEG abnormalities are characteristic findings.

A

regression

58
Q

Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia), a chronic low-grade depression, is characterized by symptoms of depressed mood for at least 1 year in children and adolescents or 2 years for adults. ___ out of six designated symptoms should be present most of the time and cause significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning. The 6 designated symptoms of dysthymia include poor appetite or overeating, insomnia or hypersomnia, low energy or fatigue, low self-esteem, poor concentration or difficulty making decisions, or feelings of hopelessness.

A

Two

59
Q

___ prevention is aimed at limiting the disability and complications caused by a disease with appropriate treatment and rehabilitation. Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA) is aimed at providing equal educational opportunities to children who have some form of disability thereby enabling them to better cope with their disability and reinforce social skills.

A

Tertiary

60
Q

___ prevention is a component of primary preventive interventions, aimed at promoting a variety of protective factors and preventing multiple risk factors among the whole of the population in a community.

A

Universal

61
Q

___ prevention is targeted against people in a given community who show early danger signs of developing any illness in future.

A

Indicated

62
Q

___ prevention targets people who are exposed to certain risk factors which may lead to serious diseased states.

A

Selective

63
Q

___ prevention is aimed at prompt diagnosis and early management of an illness.

A

Secondary

64
Q

Inborn motor and sensory reflexes is the ___ sub-stage of the sensorimotor stage. It is characterized by the expression of innate motor and sensory reflexes, like sucking. This stage roughly lasts till 2 months from birth.

A

first

65
Q

___ circular reaction is the second sub-stage of the sensorimotor stage in which the action and response both involve the infant’s own body like enjoying thumb sucking. This lasts from 2 to 5 months of age.

A

Primary

66
Q

___ circular reaction is the third sub-stage in which the infant starts to repeat the enjoyable activities like shaking a rattle and interact with the outside world more than his own body. This stage lasts from 5 to 9 months of age.

A

Secondary

67
Q

___ of secondary circular reaction is the fourth sub-stage, marked by the beginning of object permanence with a vague concept of objects being separate from the self. This occurs between 8 months and 12 months.

A

Coordination

68
Q

___ circular reaction stage lasts from 12 to 18 months and is characterized by novel behaviors. The infant starts doing mini-experiments and tries to learn the consequences of that particular behavior as seen in this case where the infant is trying to see what happens if she throws objects on the floor.

A

Tertiary

69
Q

___ inhibition is the most prevalent risk factor for developing separation anxiety disorder. Other risk factors include parental divorce, death of a pet or caregiver, and immigration. ___ inhibition is a temperament in which there is a tendency to experience distress and want to withdraw when faced with unfamiliar situations. Separation anxiety disorder is more commonly found in the female gender.

A

Behavioral

70
Q

The ___ program is an effective therapy for stuttering in children who are younger than 6 years of age. It is based on the model in which the parents praise the child during the stutter-free speech but intervene only on some occasions of the child’s stuttering by requesting to self-correct the stuttered word. The parent does not comment about the speech all the time. The program has 2 phases; phase 1 is the active interventional phase while the second one is the maintenance phase.

A

Lidcombe

71
Q

Magnetoencephalography
(MEG) operates within a magnetically ___ room to attenuate the external magnetic noise. MEG has excellent signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) for gamma band activity compared with EEG. MEG is largely insensitive to radial sources pointing to or away from the center of the head. MEG offers high spatial and temporal resolution MEG works in similar manner to EEG by recording neuronal activity primarily postsynaptic potentials of pyramidal cells.

A

shielded

72
Q

The additional effect of CBT added to SSRI antidepressants is modest, but occurs despite reduced SSRI use in ___ that are initially on both. Teens on the combination utilize fewer health services despite having the same symptom level as teens on SSRIs alone. There is no clear evidence that CBT reduces SSRI-associated suicidality.

A

teens

73
Q

The Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children (WISC) is designed for children between the ages of ___ years and 16 years, 11 months.

A

6

74
Q

Maternal risk factors play an important role in developing conduct disorders or “callous-unemotional” (CU) traits. Some maternal risk factors include maternal psychopathology during pregnancy, substance abuse, maternal ___ during pregnancy, and birth complications.

A

smoking

75
Q

The levels of prevention are defined as follows: primary prevention-goal is to keep healthy but at-risk populations from developing disease/injury (primary prevention decreases the incidence of the condition); secondary prevention-goal is to decrease the duration and severity of symptoms and dysfunction (secondary prevention decreases the ___ of the condition); tertiary prevention-goal is to decrease the complications, that is, the cascade of further damage caused by the disease or injury.

A

prevalence

76
Q

___ codes for the dopamine transporter that is involved in the reuptake of dopamine from the synapse back into the presynaptic neuron. Dopamine transporter is one of the major gene products implicated in the pathophysiology of ADHD and is the target protein on which stimulant drugs act by inhibiting the protein and the reuptake of dopamine leading to an increase in the levels of dopamine at the synapse.

A

DAT1

77
Q

The DSM-5 states that personality disorders can be diagnosed in patients < 18 years of age if features have been present for ≥ ___ year. The only exception to this rule is antisocial personality disorder, which can only be diagnosed in patients ≥ 18 years of age.

A

one

78
Q

ADHD symptoms must be present ___ age 12.

A

before

79
Q

Antisocial personality disorder patients are prone to deceitful, manipulative, and impulsive behavior and they disregard laws and ethical norms if this provides them personal profit or pleasure. Furthermore, the diagnosis can only be made if the individual is ≥ 18 years of age and there is evidence of conduct disorder prior to ___ years of age.

A

15

80
Q

Risperidone & Abilify have an FDA indication for the treatment of ___ associated with autism spectrum disorder. The definition of ___ contained in the package insert is broad and includes self-injurious behaviors, aggression towards others, temper tantrums, and quickly changing moods.

A

irritability

81
Q

The ___ effect refers to the increase of the average IQ test scores since the 1930s, an increase that has averaged approximately 3 IQ points per decade since then. Since the average IQ is defined to be 100, if IQ test results were not restandardized over time, the average IQ score would continue to increase. Thus, to maintain average IQ at 100, IQ tests are revised periodically and recalibrated by evaluating the new tests on new, younger test takers. There is no clear explanation for this improvement in performance on IQ tests.

A

Flynn

82
Q

Case-control is used to follow subjects who have a disease to identify the ___. People with the disease are enrolled and worked backward to identify exposure. People with the disease (cases) and without the disease (controls) are identified and then asked about their previous exposures.

A

exposure

83
Q

Cross-sectional study is done in a cross-section of the people who are representative of the whole population. The researcher observes a relation between exposure and a health outcome in people at a specific ___. The design is simple, and they can be done to collect information regarding possible causes of ill health and the prevalence of a disease.

A

time

84
Q

Parent-child interaction therapy (PCIT) is an empirically-supported treatment for ___-disordered young children to improve the quality of the parent-child relationship and to change parent-child interactions. In PCIT, parents are taught specific skills to establish a nurturing and secure relationship with their child while increasing their child’s prosocial behavior and decreasing negative behavior. This treatment focuses on 2 basic interactions: child-directed interaction (CDI) is similar to play therapy in that parents engage their child in a play situation with the goal of strengthening the parent-child relationship; parent-directed interaction (PDI) resembles clinical behavior therapy in that parents learn to use specific behavior management techniques as they play with their child.

A

conduct

85
Q

___ of the test is calculated using True positives / (True Positives + False Negatives)

A

Sensitivity

86
Q

children with ___ have verbal language problems and spelling difficulties. Children have difficulty in reading because of a problem in relating words and letters to speech sounds. They also suffer from spelling difficulties.

A

Dyslexia

87
Q

___ disorder is characterized by difficulty communicating. The individual has no underlying defect in the mechanics of speech. They have difficulty in responding, asking questions, and use gestures to communicate.

A

Social communication

88
Q

According to Child/Adolescent Anxiety Multimodal Study (CAMS), ___ is as effective as CBT in treating anxiety among the pediatric population. The response rate was 60% as compared to placebo, which was 24%. Due to the results, it is suggested that combined therapy using ___ and CBT for anxiety is more likely to be successful with a response rate of 81%.

A

sertraline

89
Q

For a 1-time abuse incident in an otherwise stable family, the indications for removal of the child and/or the mother immediately are minimal. For reasons of assessment and alliance, it is best to invite the mother to ___ the incident as well, after informing her that you must report it. This permits the clinician to evaluate the parent’s ability to support and protect the child and to judge the safety of leaving the child in the parent’s immediate custody. The parent then has a sense of some control over the situation and social service agencies also look more favorably on a parent who reports the situation independently.

A

report

90
Q

In a fiduciary relationship, one person receives the trust and confidence of another under a duty to act for the benefit of that other and not to exploit that relationship for personal gain. The only material gain must be payment for service. To enter into a financial relationship such as a loan with the family of a patient runs the risk of distorting the therapeutic and professional relationship with extraneous elements that could undermine the objectivity of the clinician and the ___ of the client.

A

trust

91
Q

Privilege is a term that applies to legal settings where a therapist may be asked to speak about a patient and can refuse based on ___-patient Privilege.

A

Physician

92
Q

Intravenous ___ (a combined alpha- and beta-blocking agent) is an appropriate treatment for cocaine or meth intoxication induced hypertension or angina.

A

labetalol

93
Q

The most common ___ cause of intellectual disability is x-linked dominant fragile X syndrome, from a mutation on the X chromosome, occurring in 1 of 1,000 males and 1 of 2,000 females.

A

inherited

94
Q

___ is the most common cause of intellectual disability, occurring in 1 of every 700 births in the United States.

A

Down syndrome (trisomy 21)

95
Q

Fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) is the most common ___ cause of intellectual disability in Western countries. These children may have low and flat nasal bridge, low-set ears, microcephaly, smooth philtrum, prenatal growth retardation, thin upper lip (vermillion) and small palpebral fissures (width of eye openings).

A

environmental/preventable

96
Q

A private school need not receive federal funds for an enrolled student to be eligible for Individual with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA) funds. The student must have both a diagnosed disability and also have required specialized instruction from a special education teacher because of lack of progress in a regular school setting. The public school district must identify students in private schools with disabilities in the same way that such students are identified in the public school system and serve them with a ___ share of federal dollars.

A

proportionate

97
Q

The boxed warning on antidepressants was based on a review of placebo-controlled ___-term (up to 4 months) studies of 9 antidepressants in children and adolescents. There was considerable variation in risk of suicidality among drugs, but a tendency toward an increase in the younger patients for almost all drugs studied. There were differences in absolute risk of suicidality across the different indications, with the highest incidence in major depressive disorder. This review found that the risk of suicidal thoughts and behaviors was 2.1% in subjects taking placebo and 3.8% in subjects taking the active medication. The FDA black box warning recommends close monitoring of children and adolescents taking SSRI medications, especially for the first 4 weeks of treatment.

A

short

98
Q

Significantly distorted body perception and pathological preoccupation with muscularity and leanness are suggestive of ___, a subcategory of body dysmorphic disorder. Individuals with ___ experience severe distress due to their body appearance, impaired occupational and social functioning, and engage in risky activities aimed at increasing muscularity, such as drug use, overly restrictive diets, and excessive exercise.

A

muscle dysmorphia

99
Q

___ disorder is diagnosed when there are 1 or more delusions in the absence of other psychotic symptoms (e.g., hallucinations, disorganized speech). Common subtypes of ___ disorder include erotomaniac, grandiose, and jealous.

A

Delusional

100
Q

The period of a rapid increase in the number of synapses formed between neurons occurs from infancy through the first ___ years of life. This synaptogenesis reaches its peak at ___ years of age, and is followed by a period of synaptic pruning or elimination.

A

2 to 3