HY 2/

Question 1

Anxiety disorders, ___, OCD, and ADHD are risk factors for developing avoidant/restrictive intake disorder.

Answer 1

autism spectrum disorder

Question 2

According to Piaget, starting from birth until 2 years of age, a child undergoes a sensorimotor stage of cognitive development. The child achieves object permanence, which is the main ___ of this stage, by the end of the stage by perceiving the objects to exist independent of the child’s involvement in them. Before this period, the child is unable to understand that the primary caregiver exists even when she is out of sight.

Answer 2

goal

Question 3

Because there have been reported deaths in children associated with treatment with imipramine, an ___ to rule out cardiac arrhythmias is part of the suggested assessment prior to starting the medication. Imipramine is a tricyclic antidepressant that can lead to cardiac arrhythmias.

Answer 3

EKG

Question 4

___ involves one or more motor or verbal tics (but not both) for one year.

Answer 4

Chronic tic disorder

Question 5

A ___ is described as the probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true. In other words, concluding that there is significant difference in the presence of no difference in reality. The probability of a ___ does not exceed 0.05 if the level of significance is set at 0.05. The level of significance for hypothesis testing is the maximum probability of making a ___.

Answer 5

type I error

Question 6

A ___ is described as the probability of accepting the null hypothesis when it is false. In other words, concluding that there is no significant difference in the presence of difference in reality, also known as a false negative.

Answer 6

type II error

Question 7

When null hypothesis is rejected and it is false in reality, it is the expected answer and ___ an error.
When null hypothesis is accepted and it is true in reality, it is the expected answer and ___ an error.

Answer 7

not

Question 8

Neonates spend approximately ___ of their sleep time in REM sleep. Given the fact that neonates sleep about 18 hours each day, that means that they spend about 9 hours each day in REM sleep.

Answer 8

50%

Question 9

Increased ___ gyrus can cause self-starvation as this area is responsible for the termination of food intake.

Answer 9

left orbitofrontal

Question 10

___ alteration in function can cause the fixed perception of being fat in patients with anorexia nervosa.

Answer 10

Right insula

Question 11

Prominent ___ horns and periventricular edema occurs in patients with hydrocephalus. Periventricular edema is seen in patients with acute hydrocephalus, and ___ horns may be greater than 2 mm. Hydrocephalus may develop due to hemorrhage, meningitis, head injury or tumor, and presents with headache, unsteady gait, visual disturbances, irritability, and seizures.

Answer 11

temporal

Question 12

A representative of the foster care agency is able to sign admission papers unless the foster placement is ___. Voluntary foster placement means that the court has not terminated parental rights and the parents have placed their child into foster care voluntarily. In such voluntary placements, the foster care agency must make the effort to contact the parents for consent for admitting the child and, separately, for administering psychotropic medications.

Answer 12

voluntary

Question 13

The correct order of Mahler’s sub-phases of separation-individuation are hatching, practicing, rapprochement, and object constancy. ___ refers to moving away from the mother to explore the environment followed by re-approaching the mother to seek reassurance and likely wants mother to stay in sight.

Answer 13

Rapprochement

Question 14

The Child and Adolescent Service System Program (___) was started by Congress in 1984 and was envisioned as a comprehensive mental health system of care for children, adolescents, and their families.

Answer 14

CASSP

Question 15

The IDEA governs how public agencies provide early intervention, special education, and related services to children with ___.

Answer 15

disabilities

Question 16

Public Law 94-142 states that children with disabilities have the right to free public ___ and was passed in 1975 by Congress.

Answer 16

education

Question 17

The Child and Adolescent Service Intensity Instrument (CASII) is an evidence-based tool developed by the American Academy of Child and Adolescent Psychiatry (AACAP) to determine the appropriate level of care while helping funding sources and appropriate utilization. It was previously referred to as the CALOCUS. It incorporates holistic information on the child, within the context of his or her family and social ecology, assessing across 6 key dimensions: risk of harm (including trauma issues), functional status, co-occurring conditions, recovery environment, resiliency and response to treatment, and parent and child involvement in services. The CASII ___ the results of clinical assessment with a defined level of service intensity, using a clinically derived and empirically tested algorithm.

Answer 17

links

Question 18

Opioid overdose causes constricted pupils, shallow breathing, nausea, ___, cyanosis, and altered sensorium.

Answer 18

vomiting

Question 19

Oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) presents as a pattern of angry or irritable mood, argumentative or defiant behavior, or vindictiveness that lasts for at least ___ and may in some cases lead to conduct disorder.

Answer 19

6 months

Question 20

___ is the first stage of the conventional stage of moral development in which a child is more concerned about maintaining good interpersonal relationships and he/she tries to be good to seek social approval. The child wants to be seen as good by Mom so he is good so he can be seen as good.

Answer 20

Good interpersonal relationships

Question 21

___ is the first stage of the pre-conventional stage of moral development in which the child fears punishment so he tries his level best to be a good boy/girl. They see the rules to be unchangeable and formed by authority.

Answer 21

Obedience and punishment orientation

Question 22

___ is the second stage of the pre-conventional stage of moral development in which the child understands that rules differ from one person to another so they start questioning them. Here, children recognize different individuals have different viewpoints.

Answer 22

Individualism and exchange

Question 23

___ is the second stage of the conventional stage of moral development. The person is now aware of the social law and order and he follows them to avoid feelings of guilt and maintain social decorum.

Answer 23

Maintaining social order

Question 24

___ is Stage 5 or the beginning of Post conventional morality and is associated with being aware that while rules exist for the good of the greatest number, there are times when they will work against the interests of particular individuals.

Answer 24

Social contract and individual rights

Question 25

Some studies suggest that ___ glutamatergic function is related to the manifestation of psychotic symptoms, but that no practical intervention in this area has been discovered as yet. Note, PCP is an NMDA receptor antagonist.

Answer 25

decreased

Question 26

___ (SAP90/PSD-95-associated protein 3) synaptic protein mutant mouse is an animal model to study the genetic risk of developing obsessive compulsive disorder in children. Slitrk5 (SLIT and NTRK-like family, also is associated with OCD.

Answer 26

SAPAP3

Question 27

In ___, patients have persistent difficulty in speech sound production which interferes with verbal communication of messages. This makes their speech difficult to understand for other people. The most common sounds that are affected are the ones that develop later in the normal sequence of development (l, r, s, z, th, ch for English speakers). Prognosis is good for those who get early intervention in preschool or primary grades. Most achieve speech normalization by 8 years old.

Answer 27

speech sound disorder

Question 28

In ___ (stuttering), there is an impairment in the production of fluent speech such as sound and syllable repetitions, sound prolongations, and broken words.

Answer 28

childhood-onset fluency disorder

Question 29

Cleft lip/palate is associated in mothers taking valproic acid and ___.

Answer 29

carbamazepine

Question 30

Intrauterine growth retardation (and subsequent ___ birth weight) is a common manifestation found in babies of anorexic mothers.

Answer 30

low

Question 31

Acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin/ASA) should not be combined with valproic acid because acetylsalicylic acid may ___ the valproic acid blood level.

Answer 31

increase

Question 32

Panic disorder with agoraphobia has a complex genetic component. Of the complex genetic component, variation in monoamine oxidase A (___) has been implicated in this disorder. In particular, the long alleles of the MAOA-uVNTR promoter polymorphism have been associated with panic disorder with agoraphobia. It is implicated in fear conditioning, avoidance behavior, and even affects the effectiveness of cognitive therapy.

Answer 32

MAOA

Question 33

___ is the most common inherited cause of intellectual disability. It is caused by the expansion of the fragile X mental retardation 1 (FMR1) gene on the long arm of the X chromosome.

Answer 33

Fragile X syndrome

Question 34

Deletion (imprinting) in the maternal chromosome 15 causes ___ which is characterized by frequent laughter and smiling, being easily excitable, often flapping the hands, being restless (hyperactive), and having a short attention span.

Answer 34

Angelman syndrome

Question 35

___ presents the completion of the Separation-Individuation phase of child development. At the end of this developmental process, the child experiences a separate individuated identity and an internalized representation of the mother. This internalized representation is called an “object” in object relations theory.

Answer 35

Object constancy

Question 36

Decentration occurs during the ___ phase and it involves understanding how others view the world.

Answer 36

concrete operational

Question 37

Temperament refers to those aspects of an individual’s personality that are regarded as innate rather than learned. The Chess and Thomas Temperament System, one of the better-known systems, includes 9 temperament characteristics: activity, regularity, initial reaction, adaptability, ___, mood, distractibility, persistence and attention span, and sensitivity.

Answer 37

intensity of response

Question 38

Starting the interview with a simple, ___ question is more likely to help establish rapport than a confrontation regarding a specific triggering topic.

Answer 38

open-ended

Question 39

Several second-generation antipsychotics are FDA approved for the treatment of ___ in children and adolescents. These include olanzapine, asenapine, aripiprazole, quetiapine, and risperidone. Antidepressant monotherapy is not used for the treatment of mania. A combination of fluoxetine and olanzapine is FDA approved for the treatment of bipolar depression in 10-17 years old patients. Lurasidone is another atypical antipsychotic with pediatric indication but is only approved for bipolar depression.

Answer 39

mania

Question 40

Oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) is a psychiatric condition that presents as a pattern of angry or irritable mood, argumentative or defiant behavior, or vindictiveness that lasts for at least ___.

Answer 40

6 months

Question 41

Quasi-experimental research also known as causal-comparative research is used to determine the cause-effect relationship between the variables which is similar to true experiments with some important differences. A quasi-experimental experiment estimates the causal impact of an intervention on target population ___ random assignment.

Answer 41

without

Question 42

When speaking with a patient following a medical error, it is ethical to ___ and show concern for the patient and remain involved in the patient’s care.

Answer 42

apologize

Question 43

Stranger anxiety, separation anxiety, and object permanence all develop at about the same time, starting at about ___ of age.

Answer 43

8 months

Question 44

Intraventricular hemorrhage (IVH) occurs predominantly in ___ and low birth weight infants. Incidence of IVH is inversely proportional to birth weight, i.e., lower the birth weight, greater the chances of IVH.

Answer 44

premature

Question 45

Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by at least ___ of excessive worrying episodes and (in children) at least one of the following symptoms: fatigue, irritability, sleep disturbances, difficulties in concentration, muscle pains and restlessness.

Answer 45

6 months

Question 46

In the multidimensionally impaired group of children defined by the NIMH with onset of clinical symptoms earlier than childhood-onset schizophrenia (8 years of age as opposed to 10 or 11 years of age), less persistent psychotic symptoms, emotional lability, and more neurocognitive and learning deficits, there does ___ appear to be progression in psychotic symptoms for these children.

Answer 46

not

Question 47

Stereotypic movement disorder requires repetitive, seemingly driven, and nonfunctional motor behavior that either markedly ___ with normal activities or results in self-inflicted bodily injury requiring medical treatment. Also, the behavior is not better accounted for by a compulsion [as in obsessive-compulsive disorder), a tic (as in tic disorder), a stereotypy that is part of a pervasive trichotillomania].

Answer 47

interferes

Question 48

Children first can copy a circle at approximately 3 to 3.5 years of age. A square is the next shape to be successfully copied, and this occurs at 4 years of age. Copying of a triangle occurs at about 5 years of age. Alphabetically*

Circle, Square, Triangle:

Answer 48

3, 4, 5!

Question 49

Electroencephalogram (EEG) is ___ prone to motion artifacts as compared to magnetoencephalography (MEG) as EEG requires the use of scalp electrodes. EEG measures extraneuronal current flow as compared to MEG that measures intraneuronal current flow. MEG provides a direct measurement of the ongoing function of normal neurons and can pinpoint the location of malfunctioning neurons; MEG is reference free; its signals are not attenuated by bone. MEG helps pinpoint the origin of epileptic discharges without intracranial insertion of electrodes; when implantation of intracranial electrodes are necessary, MEG can help better plan the exact implantation site. EEG has poor spatial resolution as compared to MEG which has a better spatial resolution. EEG is less expensive than MEG, which requires a more expensive hardware as well as a magnetically shielded room. EEG is unable to measure activity in the subcortical structures, neither is MEG.

Answer 49

more

Question 50

The Moro reflex (or startle reflex) typically disappears by ___ of age. It is a primitive reflex that can be observed in infants during the first 3 months of life. Its absence during the neonatal period and early infancy is important diagnostically and may signal damage to the brain or spinal cord. Its persistence beyond 6 months may signal a neurological disorder as well. To elicit the Moro reflex, the infant is held suspended in supine and symmetrical position with one of the examiner’s hands behind the chest and the other supports the head. The infant’s head is held in a midline position and is dropped back a few centimeters. The expected initial response includes the abduction of the upper limbs at the shoulder and forearm extension, and a slight extension of the spine and head retraction. As the reflex ends, the infant draws his arms back to the body, elbows flexed, and then relaxes.

Answer 50

6 months

Question 51

For girls, the greatest growth occurs in Tanner stage 3, while for boys it occurs in Tanner stage ___.

Answer 51

4

Question 52

In social anxiety disorder or social phobia, an individual has marked fear of social and performance situations causing the person to avoid them. The main fear is negative evaluation where the patient fears judgment by others. Symptoms of fear, anxiety, or avoidance last for at least ___ and are persistent. Symptoms are out of proportion to the actual threat and to the socio-cultural context, and they cause significant distress or impairment in social, occupation, or other important areas of function. They are also not due to another mental disorder, medical condition, or drug use.

Answer 52

6 months

Question 53

In forensic evaluation generally, an hourly rate is specified, as it is impossible to ___ the amount of time that will be required, and the responsible party is generally the person who is requesting the service, although court appointments will often specify the involved parties and what portion of the evaluation will be paid by them.

Answer 53

predict

Question 54

Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder (DMDD) is characterized by frequent and excessively severe verbal and/or physical outbursts to common stressors. These are outside of the developmental stage, pervasive, and children affected have a history of a chronic negative mood. Onset is between ages 6 to 10 years old. The symptoms occur ___ or more times per week. Children who have DMDD are also persistently irritable or angry most of the day, nearly every day. This behavior is observable by parents, teachers, and peers, and is present in at least 2 settings. Also, symptoms should be present for at least 12 months.

Answer 54

3

Question 55

Anti-bullying programs should be implemented across the entire school range. A multidisciplinary approach that includes parental involvement and appropriate support by mental health ___ is the standard therapy that has consistently shown good results in decreasing bullying. A classroom-based strategy that targets behaviors, attitudes, and beliefs is also important and will improve the teacher-student relationship.

Answer 55

professionals

Question 56

N-Acetyl Aspartate (NAA) is found only in the nervous system and is detected on the MRS as the most prominent spectral peak. NAA is a sensitive marker for neuronal integrity and density. MRS shows regional ___ in the NAA in children with autism spectrum disorder (ASD) suggesting decrease in the neuronal integrity and density which is evident as cerebral enlargement in these children on MRI.

Answer 56

reductions

Question 57

The following figures are the rates of common disorders that are comorbid with ADHD: ___ at 45% to 65%; specific learning disorder at 10% to 40%; anxiety disorder at 10% to 30%; bipolar disorder at 16% to 23%; conduct disorder at 8% to 25%; tic disorder at 8% to 34%; and depressive disorder at 10% to 18%.

Answer 57

oppositional defiant disorder

Question 58

___ (YGTSS) is the gold-standard tool that is reliable and comprehensive in evaluating tic disorders. It thoroughly measures tic-related dimensions like frequency, intensity, complexity, interference, timing, and overall impairment. It also provides thresholds of score change specifying response to treatment or exacerbation of symptoms on follow-up. The YGTSS scale has also been successfully utilized in therapeutic trials and prospective longitudinal studies, in addition to clinical assessment and follow-up. The only limitation of this scale is that it requires a trained professional to administer the test, and the time required is about 15 to 20 minutes.

Answer 58

Yale global tic severity scale

Question 59

___ is a scale that has consistently and reliably been used to assess complicated grief, persistent bereavement syndrome, and post-traumatic stress disorder. Higher levels on the scale are associated with a poorer quality of life and more psychological distress. It can be used to assess response to early treatment in these children. The results can then signify whether additional measures are needed to prevent the development of post-traumatic stress disorder. It can be used as a self-reported measure of symptoms for those with stress disorders and the risk of stress disorders.

Answer 59

Child traumatic grief inventory

Question 60

Gerald Gault was a 15-year-old boy who was arrested for making lewd telephone calls. He was sentenced in juvenile court to commitment at the State Industrial School as a juvenile delinquent until the age of majority. The case was appealed on the grounds that the defendant did not receive constitutionally protected due process protections. Thus, Gault v US (1967) case established that minors are entitled to ___ process in juvenile court.

Answer 60

due

Question 61

___ genes, along with environmental factors, are involved in the development of Tourette syndrome.

Answer 61

Many

Question 62

Fetal alcohol syndrome is associated with cognitive deficits, intellectual disability hyperactivity and impulsivity, and ___.

Answer 62

deafness

Question 63

The single most predictive factor of a successful adoption is ___ age of the child. Additional positive factors include a short period of time spent in foster care, older age of adoptive parents, and a child-free of mental illness. The last 2 factors, however, are not as strongly predictive as is the child’s age at the time of adoption.

Answer 63

young

Question 64

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is the ideal modality for studying not only gross morphological abnormalities of brain in children but it is also helpful in measuring the volume, size, shape, and depth of different brain structures ___ use of any ionizing radiation or radioisotopes. MRI uses detection of radio frequency signals.

Answer 64

without

Question 65

The differential diagnosis of hypochromic, microcytic anemia in a child with symptoms of ADHD is iron deficiency and ___ toxicity.

Answer 65

lead

Question 66

A research study participant improves some part of his behavior being experimentally measured simply in response to the fact that he is being studied. This is an example of the ___ effect.

Answer 66

Hawthorne

Question 67

A teacher’s expectation of a pupil can strongly affect the amount of development the pupil shows. This is an example of the ___ effect.

Answer 67

Pygmalion

Question 68

Which cognitive test is designed to test children from prekindergarten through 2nd grade for their ability to identify colors, letters, numbers, and basic shapes, as well as demonstrating an understanding of sizes and comparisons?

Answer 68

Bracken School Readiness Assessment

Question 69

Juvenile myasthenia gravis generally requires life-long treatment. Only a quarter of patients have disease restricted to the ocular muscles. Girls develop juvenile myasthenia gravis at 2 to 6 times the frequency of boys. ___ is usually considered after the establishment of maximal improvement with medication, although its efficacy has not been fully validated for pediatric populations.

Answer 69

Thymectomy

Question 70

The ___ program, which is based on operant conditioning model in which the parents praise the child during the stutter-free speech but intervene when he starts to stutter by requesting to self-correct the word he stuttered. The Lidcombe program is designed for children 5 and under. This is an effective home-based program instituted by parents under the guidance of a speech therapist.

Answer 70

Lidcombe

Question 71

Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder is associated with the deficiency of
__ neurotransmitter or deficiency in dopamine neurotransmitter receptor cites in the frontal part of the brain. Dopamine is involved in stimulating the frontal lobes which on EEG is represented as beta waves demonstrating activity and theta waves demonstrating inactivity. In children with ADHD, there is an increased theta to beta waves ratio due to deficiency of dopamine. Presence of theta waves is implicated in relaxation and beta waves are implicated in concentration, so in children with ADHD, a state of daydreaming or drowsiness and difficulty concentrating or problem solving is due to the increase in theta and reduced beta waves.

Answer 71

dopamine

Question 72

Norepinephrine is mostly produced by neurons found in the locus ceruleus and plays a role in neuromodulation. It regulates tonic and phasic arousal, generalized alertness and is also important for ___ functioning. Deficiency of norepinephrine in patients with ADHD disrupts regulation of arousal and cognitive function. However, it is not associated with increased theta to beta waves ratio on EEG.

Answer 72

executive

Question 73

Benzodiazepines like ___ are advised in individuals with frequent and severe episodes of night terrors with a high risk of injury.

Answer 73

clonazepam

Question 74

Gene polymorphism is defined as the ___ in the gene that occurs at the same locus in at least 1% of the population. Polymorphisms are used to study inheritance of genes or diseases in families and is widely used in linkage studies.

Answer 74

variation

Question 75

MRI of the brain should be done ___ measuring prolactin levels when a prolactinoma is suspected. The initial investigation of choice is serum prolactin.

Answer 75

after

Question 76

The IDEA is a law that mandates that all individuals with a ___ receive a free and appropriate public education in the least restrictive environment.

Answer 76

disability

Question 77

Fetus can hear sounds in utero. Visual perception at birth is poor and young infants require several months to achieve a coordinated gaze. The social smile is not fully developed until the ___ month of life. Synaptic development continues for many years as described below. Two different mechanisms guide the development of the central nervous system. Molecular signals initially guide developing neurons to the correct position and, once neuronal activity begins, repeated stimulation helps synapses form and mature. By the time a child is 3 years old, the brain has formed about 1,000 trillion connections-about twice as many as adults have. A toddler’s brain is superdense and will stay that way throughout the first decade of life. Through early childhood to young adulthood, the brain gets rid of extra connections in a process called pruning.

Answer 77

second

Question 78

The first step in functional behavior assessment is to gather data to understand the function of the behavior. This can be done by ___ the child in various activities in different environments where a sequence of antecedents to behaviors linked to consequences can be mapped out.

Answer 78

observing

Question 79

The T-test for both means is done to determine whether there is a difference in the 2 study groups’ ___. It is used for hypothesis testing according to the p-value obtained. Depending on the value of p, the null hypothesis will be accepted or rejected.

Answer 79

means

Question 80

Analysis of variance is used to identify if there is a statistical difference between the mean values of independent variables. The independent variables are unrelated, and more than ___ in number. It tells you if all the samples are the same.

Answer 80

three

Question 81

Persistent complex bereavement disorder is characterized by the loss of a loved one more than six months prior, along with persistent fixation, yearning, and preoccupation with the deceased without regard for anything else. Persistent complex bereavement disorder is diagnosed in children after ___ months of symptoms and in adults after twelve months of persistent symptoms.

Answer 81

six

Question 82

In the continental United States, the 12-month prevalence for bipolar I disorder is between ___ and 0.7%.

Answer 82

0.6%

Question 83

The IDEA Improvement Act of 2004 added the mandate that measurable, ___ goals be included in the IEP. The law mandates that any child with a covered disability receive a free public education.

Answer 83

annual

Question 84

Magnetic resonance spectroscopy (MRS) is similar to MRI in terms that it uses magnetic fields and radiofrequency waves to assess functional aspects of brain in neurodevelopmental disorders. MRS forms a spectrum based on the sensitivity of ___ to distinct resonance frequencies. MRS is a non-invasive modality that is used to assess brain function. MRS can only detect a limited number of chemical compounds based on their radiofrequencies. MRS is not as commonly used as MRIs and is usually used as a tool in research to determine the chemical composition of the brain. MRS uses proton signature of specific chemicals to detect their concentration in the tissues like lactate, creatine, aspartate, and choline to produce a spectrum.

Answer 84

chemicals

Question 85

Expansion of GAA trinucleotide, is the cause of Friedreich’s ataxia and results in cerebellar degeneration. Friedreich’s ataxia is an autosomal
___ inherited disease.

Answer 85

recessive

Question 86

Wilson’s disease is caused by a mutation on chromosome ___ and is autosomal recessive.

Answer 86

13

Question 87

___ is caused by a deletion on chromosome 7q11.3.

Answer 87

Williams syndrome

Question 88

The most common treatable cause of language impairment in children is ___ impairment. Thus, every child with either receptive or expressive language impairment needs to receive an audiology exam as part of the work-up.

Answer 88

hearing

Question 89

There are 3 pathognomonic facial dysmorphisms of FAS, which include small palpebral fissures, smooth philtrum, and thin ___ border. Height and weight are compromised with decreased percentile for age and sex. Neurodevelopmental problems include intellectual disability, attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, and delays in motor and language milestones.

Answer 89

vermillion

Question 90

___ is characterized by flat facial features, slanted palpebral fissures, small low-set ears, short neck with excessive skin at the back of the neck, single transverse palmar crease, and large space between the first 2 toes.

Answer 90

Down syndrome (trisomy 21), most common GENETIC cause of intellectual disability

Question 91

Congenital ___ syndrome is characterized by sensorineural deafness, cataracts, hepatosplenomegaly, and purpura in addition to developmental delay.

Answer 91

rubella

Question 92

Fragile X syndrome is characterized as the long and narrow face, prominent forehead and jaw, large ears, macrocephaly, and macroorchidism. Fragile X syndrome is the most common ___ cause of intellectual disability.

Answer 92

Inherited

Question 93

___handedness is more common in boys with gender dysphoria.
Having a later birth order in a family of boys is more associated with gender dysphoria than having early birth order.

Answer 93

Left

Question 94

Depersonalization/derealization disorder is characterized by persistent or recurrent experiences of depersonalization, derealization, or both. Depersonalization consists of experiences of unreality, detachment, or being an outside observer with respect to one’s thoughts, feelings, sensations, body, or actions. Derealization consists of experiences of unreality or detachment with respect to one’s surroundings. Reality testing is ___ and the symptoms are distressing or interfere with functioning.

Answer 94

unimpaired

Question 95

“Collective ___” refers to the level of communication and shared values in the community, with adults recognizing children, speaking to them, giving them feedback on their behavior, and reporting to their parents or authorities if indicated. This is more important for normal outcome than socioeconomic status, levels of crime or violence, and school system style.

Answer 95

socialization

Question 96

Ventricular enlargement is a strikingly common finding in adult or child-onset schizophrenia and is correlated to diffuse reduction in the cerebral volume of both hemispheres. Studies demonstrate that the ___ is a predominant structure that is atrophied bilaterally in patients of schizophrenia.

Answer 96

hippocampus

Question 97

The Title X federal family planning program supports clinics that provide contraceptive services and other reproductive health care to minors on a confidential basis and without the need for parental consent or notification.

By law, ___ federal family planning funds cannot be granted to programs that provide abortion as a family planning option but may be used to support clinics that provide contraceptive services and other reproductive health care to minors on a confidential basis and without the need for parental consent or notification.

Answer 97

Title X

Question 98

Heritability is a measure of how well differences in people’s genes account for differences in their traits. Twin studies have shown the average genetic contribution is about 70-80%, while the non-genetic variance is about 20-30%. Siblings with ADHD have a 2-3 fold increased risk of the disorder relative to siblings of normal controls.

What is the heritability of ADHD?

Answer 98

About 70%

Question 99

Physical or sexual abuse in childhood is more commonly associated with ___ than with any other anxiety disorder. In addition, genetics and family dysfunction are also strong risk factors. Other factors like the female sex, harm avoidance, and behavioral inhibition have also been implicated as risk factors for ___.

Answer 99

panic disorder

Question 100

Monoaminergic transmitters projecting from brainstem to fronto-striato-thalamic circuitry have been implicated in ___.

Answer 100

OCD