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CPCE > Human Growth And Development > Flashcards

Human Growth And Development Flashcards

1
Q

What are the types of aging?

A

Biological aging, psychological aging, and social aging.

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2
Q

What is biological aging?

A

It involves how the body functions and changes over time it relies heavily on metabolic changes.

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3
Q

What are the two types of metabolic changes involved in biological aging?

A

Anabolism and catabolism

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4
Q

What is anabolism?

A

It is the body building to peak potential and occurs from birth to an age that varies by individual

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5
Q

What is catabolism?

A

It is the bodies usually slow deterioration from peak through an individual’s death

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6
Q

What is psychological aging?

A

It is one’s perception of personal age.

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7
Q

What is social aging?

A

It is how one’s chronological age is viewed within the societal or cultural context and is affected by the location and socioeconomic status

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8
Q

What are the ways that the theories of human development can be categorized?

A

Nature versus nurture

continuous development versus discontinuous development

active versus reactive

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9
Q

What are the two parts of the central nervous system?

A

The brain and the spinal cord

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10
Q

What is the peripheral nervous system?

A

It is the network of nerves that connects the central nervous system to the rest of the body

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11
Q

What is myelination?

A

Insulation of neurons to enhance speed of neural transmissions

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12
Q

At what age is a persons brain about 25% of its mature adult size and weight?

A

At birth

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13
Q

At what age is a persons brain approximately 60% of its adult weight?

A

By the end of the first year.

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14
Q

By about what age does the brain begin to shrink?

A

By about age 30.

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15
Q

At what age is a persons brain about 80% of its adult weight?

A

By the end of the second year

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16
Q

By what age is a persons brain it’s full adult size

A

By age 16

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17
Q

At what point does a persons brain diminish by 20% less weight than it was at 30 years old?

A

By the late 80s.

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18
Q

What are the three parts of the brain

A

The hindbrain, the midbrain, and the forebrain.

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19
Q

What is the hindbrain responsible for?

A

Life maintenance and survival functions.

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20
Q

What are the parts of the hindbrain?

A

Medulla oblongata,
cerebellum,
pons,
and reticular activating system

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21
Q

What does the Medulla oblongata do?

A

It regulates the heart and breathing

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22
Q

What does the cerebellum do?

A

It regulates balance

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23
Q

What does the Pons do?

A

It connects the left and right cerebellum

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24
Q

What does the reticular activating system do?

A

It regulates arousal and attention

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25
Q

What does the midbrain do?

A

It connects the hindbrain and forebrain, controls eye muscles, and relays auditory and visual information to the brain centers for higher level thinking.

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26
Q

What does the forebrain do?

A

It consists of the cerebrum, which is responsible for higher order behavior and conscious thought.

It consists of the left and right hemispheres, the corpus callosum, and the cerebral cortex.

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27
Q

What does the brains left hemisphere do?

A

It controls the right side of the body and is responsible for language and writing abilities and logical and systematic that.

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28
Q

What does the brains right hemisphere do?

A

It controls the left side of the body and is responsible for muscle abilities, imagination, and emotional expression.

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29
Q

What does the corpus callosum in the brain do?

A

It is a bundle of nerve cells that connects the two hemispheres and allows them to integrate cognitive, emotional, and bodily functions.

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30
Q

What does the cerebral cortex in the brain do?

A

It covers the two cerebral hemispheres and is responsible for memory, concentration, problem-solving abilities, and muscle coordination. It is divided into four lobes.

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31
Q

What are the four lobes in the cerebral cortex?

A

Occipital lobe
Parietal lobe
Temporal lobe
Frontal lobe

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32
Q

What does the Occipital lobe in the Cerebral Cortex do?

A

It helps the brain interpret sensory information through the eyes.

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33
Q

What does the parietal lobe in the cerebral cortex do?

A

It controls spatial reasoning and sense of touch

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34
Q

What does the temporal lobe in the cerebral cortex do?

A

It is responsible for hearing and storage of permanent memory

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35
Q

What does the frontal lobe in the cerebral cortex do?

A

It regulates the sense of smell, body control, and movement

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36
Q

What does the thalamus do?

A

Relays nerve impulses from sensory pathways to the cerebral cortex and the limbic system

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37
Q

What is the limbic system?

A

It contains the hypothalamus, the amygdala, and hippocampus. It is concerned with emotions and motivation.

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38
Q

What does the hypothalamus in the limbic system do?

A

It is the control center for pleasure and pain, regulates hunger, thirst, sexual functions, and body temperature through the release of hormones.

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39
Q

What does the amygdala in the limbic system do?

A

It influences behavior and activities, such as sexual interest, feeding, and anger

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40
Q

What does the hippocampus in the limbic system do?

A

It influences memory and helps to recognize novel information or situations

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41
Q

What is hemispheric specialization or lateralization?

A

It is right brain or left brain dominant and it begins early and development but for many individuals occurs gradually through childhood

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42
Q

What is psycholinguistics?

A

The study of language development

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43
Q

What is speech?

A

The physical act of forming and sequencing sounds of oral language

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44
Q

When do babies smile and talk to

A

At three months

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45
Q

When do babies respond to voice by turning head?

A

At four months

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46
Q

When do babies coo?

A

At five months

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47
Q

What is language?

A

The system of grammatical rules and semantics that allows similar individuals to be understood by each other

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48
Q

What is semantics?

A

The study of word meanings

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49
Q

At what age do babies babble?

A

At six months

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50
Q

At what age do babies repeat syllables, for example mama?

A

At eight months

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51
Q

At what age do babies show understanding of some words?

A

At one year

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52
Q

What is syntax?

A

The proper use of grammar

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53
Q

What is pragmatics?

A

How language is used in the social context, for example taking turns, pointing

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54
Q

At what age do children produce about 51 word addresses, or holophrases?

A

At 1.5 years

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55
Q

What are the three categories of language development theories?

A

Learning theory approaches, nativist approaches, and interactionist approaches

56
Q

Noam Chomsky is associated with which language development theory?

A

The nativist approach. He hypothesized that a language acquisition acquisition device exists in humans that allows the production of speech sounds, grammar, and the invention of novel sentences

57
Q

What is phonology?

A

It is what a language sounds like a phoneme is a language most basic sound Ellen English for example, has 40 basic sounds

58
Q

What is morphology?

A

It governs the rules of word formation. A morphine is the smallest, meaningful language unit.

59
Q

What is a dialect?

A

It is a variation in language. Dialects vary by occupation, age, geographical region, and social class

60
Q

What three areas of the brain are important in the context of language development?

A

Broca’s area

Wernicke’s area

Arcuate fasciculus

61
Q

At what age does a child have a vocabulary of about 1000 words

A

At three years

62
Q

At what age does a child use basic rules of language consistently?

A

At four years

63
Q

At what age do children use some two word phrases?

A

At two years

64
Q

At what age do children have a vocabulary of several hundred words and speak in short sentences?

A

At 2.5 years

65
Q

What are the three communication disorders discussed in the DSM-5?

A

Language disorder
speech disorder
social communication disorder

66
Q

What is a language disorder?

A

When a person experiences difficulty in the acquisition or use of spoken or written language skills that are long term and enduring. Symptoms include difficulty producing or understanding developmentally appropriate sentences and limited vocabulary.

67
Q

What is a speech disorder?

A

It is the most commonly diagnosed of the communication disorders and involves difficulties in producing developmentally expected speech sounds.

68
Q

What is a social communication disorder?

A

It is a pragmatic language impairment in which an individual displays difficulties understanding and using verbal and nonverbal social cues, thereby affecting social relationships and comprehension.

69
Q

What does Wenicke’s area in the brain do?

What does damage to this area do?

A

It is related to speech comprehension

Sensory aphasia, for example difficulty understanding language through the sense organs

70
Q

What does Broca’s area in the brain do?

What does damage to this area do?

A

It is related to speech production

Damage results in motor aphasia, for example causes speech to be slow and labored

71
Q

In the interactionist approach theory of language development, what is responsible for language development?

A

The interactionist approach proposes that it is a combination of learning and nativist approaches that are responsible for language development through social and cultural influences

72
Q

In language disorders, what is aphasia?

A

Difficulty in naming objects

73
Q

In communication disorders, what is anomia?

A

Word finding difficulties

74
Q

In the nativist approach theory of language development how are sentences generated?

A

Sentences are generated using a system of rules made up of surface structures and deep structures.

Surface structures are rules specific to each language and deeper structures are rules that are innate and universal.

75
Q

What is an autosomal disease?

A

Genetic disorders that involve a chromosome other than the sex chromosome

76
Q

What are some examples of autosomal diseases?

A

Phenylketonuria

Sickle Cell Anemia

Tay-Sachs disease

77
Q

What is sickle cell anemia?

A

A recessively transmitted disorder that occurs in about 1 in 500 African American births and causes an abnormal shaping of the red blood cells, leading to oxygen deprivation, pain, tissue damage, anemia, and pneumonia.

78
Q

What is phenylketonuria?

A

A recessive allele transmitted disorder that occurs in about one in 8000 births and involves an inability to neutralize the amino acid phenylalanine, which is found in many proteins.

79
Q

What is Tay-Sachs disease?

A

A recessively transmitted disorder that occurs in about 1 and 3500 births to Jews of European descent and involves an inability to metabolize fatty substances in neural tissues, leading to central nervous system degeneration.

80
Q

What are X – linked diseases?

What are some examples?

A

They are passed on by the X chromosome.

Male pattern baldness and hemophilia

81
Q

What are sex chromosomal diseases?

What are some examples?

A

They involve some genetic anomaly occurring on the sex – determining pair of chromosomes, usually affecting male or female characteristic displays or sexual reproduction.

Turner syndrome (XO) and Klinefelter’s syndrome (XXY)

82
Q

What is Turner syndrome (XO)?

A

Occurs in about one in 5000 female births in which all or part of the second X chromosome is missing. Individuals usually have undeveloped or underdeveloped ovaries and incomplete sexual development at puberty, and be of short stature, have a web neck, and show impaired spatial intelligence.

83
Q

What is Klinefelter’s syndrome (XXY)?

A

It occurs in about one and 1000 male birth and involves an extra excrement zone on the sex chromosome a pair (XY). Individuals are unusually tall, have higher amounts of body fat, have incomplete sex characteristics of puberty, and are usually sterile

84
Q

What categories can learning theories be divided into?

A

Stimulus response theories, social learning theories, and operant conditioning

85
Q

Who is associated with stimulus response theories, such as classical conditioning?

A

Pavlov, Watson, Wolpe

86
Q

Who is associated with operant conditioning theories?

A

Skinner and Thorndike

87
Q

Who is associated with social learning theories?

A

Bandura and Rotter

88
Q

Which theories are a part of personality development?

A

Freud’s psychosexual theory, Ericksons psychosocial theory, Loevinger’s ego development theory, Maslow’s humanistic theory, and the ethological theories of Lorenz, Bowlby, Ainsworth, and Harlow

89
Q

What was Freud’s psychosexual theory of personality development?

A

It proposed that people must resolve various conflicts resulting from the psychic or libidinal energy focused within different parts of the body as one matures. An inability to resolve an important conflict, due to either and over gratification or an under gratification of a need in any stage, can lead to fixation.

90
Q

List eight defense mechanisms used to control anxiety.

A 
Repression 
regression
displacement
Projection
Rationalization
Compensation
Denial 
Reaction formation
91
Q

What is re-pression in regards to a defense mechanism?

A

Pushing undesirable thoughts and feelings from consciousness.

92
Q

What is regression in regards to defense mechanisms?

A

Return to an earlier, more comfortable or childlike time in life.

93
Q

What is displacement in regards to defense mechanisms?

A

Redirecting feelings onto me less threatening person or object

94
Q

What is projection in regards to defense mechanisms?

A

Placing personal feelings, thoughts, or motives on someone else

95
Q

What is rationalization in regards to defense mechanisms?

A

Justifying one’s behavior with logical sounding reasons, thus concealing the real reason for a behavior

96
Q

What is compensation in regards to defense mechanisms?

A

Substituting a successful experience for one that produced failure

97
Q

What is reaction formation in regards to defense mechanisms?

A

Expressing the opposite motive than was originally intended in order to help prevent unwanted attitudes or feelings from becoming expressed.

98
Q

What are the three parts or structures of personality according to Freud?

A

Id

Ego

Superego

99
Q

What is the id?

A

It is present at birth and contains the individuals basic instincts. Operates on the pleasure principle, seeking immediate gratification of needs.

100
Q

What is the ego?

A

Emerges during the first year of life and operates on the reality principle. The purpose is to make a socially acceptable, reality-based resolution to the urges of the Id and the demands of the superego.

101
Q

What is the super ego?

A

Emerges at about five years of age and operates on the morality principal.

102
Q

What is the oral stage in Freud’s psychosexual theory?

A

From birth to about one year.

Primary source of pleasure is through the mouth.

A fixation through over gratification or under gratification will result in oral needs continuing to influence personality and habits

103
Q

What is the anal stage in Freud’s psychosexual development theory?

A

Ages 1 to 3 years

Primary source of gratification is the anus and buttocks area

Pleasure is attained through retention and expulsion of feces and urine

Toilet training will influence personality development in the future

Fixation produces retentiveness or expulsiveness

104
Q

What is the phallic stage in Freud’s psychosexual theory?

A

Ages 3 to 5 years

Primary source of gratification is the genitals

How is your drive through manipulation of genitals

Oedipus complex and Electra complex emerge

Fixation can involve sexual exploitation of others

105
Q

What is the latency stage in Freud’s psychosexual theory?

A

Ages 6 to 11

Sexual desires become dormant

Children learn how to relieve anxiety through use of defense mechanisms

106
Q

What is the genital stage in Freud’s psychosexual theory?

A

Adolescence

Puberty causes a reemergence of sexual impulses

107
Q

What are the four patterns of attachment developed by Mary Ainsworth?

A

Securely attached – normal insecure relationships in which children explore the environment and protest separation

Avoidantly attached – withdrawn behaviors in which children explore without regard for the caretaker, ignore separations, and avoid reunions when they care taker reemerges.

Ambivalently attached – clinging behaviors in which the child refuses to explore the environment and protests separations quite vehemently.

Disorganized attachment – behaviors in which children show little emotion at separation and mostly confusion at reunion

108
Q

What are the stages of grief developed by Elizabeth Kubler Ross?

A

Shock and denial

Anger

Bargaining and guilt

Hopelessness

Acceptance

109
Q

What is the study of grief known as?

A

Thanatology

110
Q

What are the types of sociodramatic play?

A

Non-social activity – throughout the preschool years, children play by themselves, wander around, and observe others but do not play with another child in the same activity.

Parallel play – children play near each other but not with each other.

Associative play – while engaged in separate activities, children talk and comment on each other’s activities.

Cooperative play – children play with each other in order to attain a common goal

111
Q

What are the needs in Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?

A

Psychological

Safety

Belongingness

Esteem

Self actualization

112
Q

What is continuous development?

A

Emphasizes the small shifts or a gradual, sequential, changes that occur over time and that are difficult to separate.

Example: Skinners operant conditioning

113
Q

What is this continuous development?

A

Portrays changes in behaviors and abilities as qualitatively different from previous or subsequent behaviors and abilities.

Example: stage theories, such as Piaget’s and Erickson’s.

114
Q

What is an active theory?

A

Portray people as active in regulating or governing their behavior.

Example: Ericksons psychosocial developmental theory

115
Q

What are reactive theories?

A

People are passive and react to environmental stimuli to accommodate it changes.

Example: Skinners operant conditioning

116
Q

What do epigenetic theorists emphasize?

A

The combination of nature and nurture

117
Q

What is intelligence accounted for mostly by – a person’s genetics, environment, or a combination of both in equal parts?

A

It is accounted for mostly by genetics, but environmental influence certainly plays a role as well.

118
Q

What is crystallized intelligence?

A

A type of intelligence that is gained through learning and is greatly affected by life experiences and culture. It is the accumulation of knowledge, fax, and skills that are required throughout life.

119
Q

What is fluid intelligence?

A

It refers to the ability to reason and think flexibly. Fluid intelligence begins to decrease after adolescence. Fluid intelligence is often described as global capacity to reason and the ability to learn new things.

120
Q

What is the pre-moral stage of moral development?

A

During the first several years of life, children display only a limited awareness of rules.

121
Q

What is the moral realism stage of moral development?

A

At about four or five years of age, children begin to develop an awareness of rules as concrete objects in the notion that rules should be obeyed.

122
Q

What is the moral relativism stage of moral development?

A

At about seven years of age, children are aware not only that rules exist but are not capable of understanding the reasons behind the rules.

123
Q

What are the different parenting styles?

A

Authoritarian – parents are restrictive and lack outward expressions of warmth. They exert control over their children, often through physical punishment, and require adherence to absolute standards of behavior and life choices.

Authoritative - display moderate control and explain the reasoning behind their decisions in order to help children understand the important factors that go into governing behavior and decision making.

Permissive - display little control and, at most, moderate warmth.

Uninvolved – shows little if any interest in their children and are indifferent or rejecting toward them.

124
Q

What does IS PATH WARM mean in regards to the warning signs of suicide?

A

Ideation

Substance-abuse

Purposelessness

Anxiety

Trapped

Hopelessness

Withdrawal

Anger

Recklessness

Mood

125
Q

What does the acronym SLAP stand for in regards to suicide risk assessment?

A

Specific details

Lethality of plan

Availability of method

Proximity to obtaining help

126
Q

What is reciprocal inhibition in regards to classical conditioning?

A

A person cannot engage into mutually exclusive events simultaneously

127
Q

What are some classical conditioning techniques?

A

Systematic desensitization - developing a fear hierarchy and progressively introducing each step on the hierarchy while the client attains a simultaneous state of relaxation

Counterconditioning – a strong pleasant stimulus is paired with a week aversive stimulus stimulus

Aversive counterconditioning - A noxious stimulus is applied when a maladaptive responses made

Flooding – a stimulus that provokes anxiety is continuously presented until the client unlearns the response

128
Q

Who is best known for his treatment of phobias using systematic desensitization?

A

Joseph Wolpe

129
Q

Who is known as the father of American behaviorism and worked with a little Albert and the rat?

A

John B Watson

130
Q

Who studied learning principles in cats and his most lasting contribution was his law of effect?

A

Edward Thorndike

131
Q

What is the law of effect in operant conditioning?

A

States that when a response accompanying some stimulus is followed by a satisfying reward, a connection is made and the response is likely to be repeated.

132
Q

Who termed his theory operant conditioning because he viewed the vast majority of learning occurs either when an individual operates on the environment and the environment controls the contingencies of reinforcement for the individual?

A

B F Skinner

133
Q

What is simultaneous conditioning?

A

Occurs when the unconditioned stimulus and the conditioned stimulus are presented at the same time.

134
Q

What is delayed conditioning?

A

Occurs when the conditioned stimulus begins first but overlaps presentation of the unconditioned stimulus. This is the most effective conditioning procedure.

135
Q

What is backward conditioning?

A

The unconditioned stimulus is presented before the condition stimulus. This is only really effective in establishing a conditioned response.

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