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3rd Year - Module 5 > Human diseases textbook Qs > Flashcards

Human diseases textbook Qs Flashcards

1
Q

Orthopnoea is a possible symptom of
A) indigestion
B) seizures
C) productive cough
D) left-sided heart failure
E) Bowel Cancer

A

D

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2
Q

Which of the following are NOT likely causes of confusion in a patient?
A) hypoxia
B) infection
C) epilepsy
D) prescription of NSAID
E) Raised intracranial pressure

A

D

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3
Q

Koilonychia (spoon-shaped fingernails) is a potential sign of:
A) vitamin K deficiency
B) Albumin deficiency
C) chronic iron deficiency anaemia
D) Infective endocarditis
E) patients with liver disease

A

C

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4
Q

A facially visible sign of hypercholesterolaemia is:
A) malar flush
B) Xanthelasma
C) Cyanosis
D) Jaundice
E) Ptosis

A

B

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5
Q

Which of the following signs is NOT a potential feature of rheumatoid arthritis?
A) Dupuytren’s contracture
B) Ulnar deviation of the hands
C) elbow nodules
D) Pulmonary fibrosis
E) Enlarged Spleen

A

A

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6
Q

The stated alcohol consumption limit per week is what?

A

14 units per week

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7
Q

Which of the following is NOT a recognised cause of finger clubbing?
A) cyanotic congenital heart failure
B) bronchial carcinoma
C) inflammatory bowel syndrome
D) Fibrolysing alveolitis
E) myocardial infarction

A

E

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8
Q

The artery used to take the pulse at the wrist in a patient is the:
A) branchial artery
B) ulnar artery
C) radial artery
D) popliteal artery
E) dorsalis pedis artery

A

C

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9
Q

At post-mortem exa, a patient who died of myocardial infarction would show evidence of:
A) fibrinoid necrosis
B) gangrene
C) colliquative necrosis
D) coagulative necrosis
E) Apoptosis

A

D

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10
Q

A post-mortem exam, a patient who died of cerebral infarction would show evidence of:
A) gangrene
B) colliquative necrosis
C) coagulative necrosis
D) apoptosis
E) fibrinoid necrosis

A

B

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11
Q

Granulation tissue contains:
A) pyogenic bacteria
B) langerhans giant cells
C) epithelioid macrophages
D) Fibrovascular tissue
E) well-formed granulomas

A

D

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12
Q

Granulomas contain:
A) endothelial cells
B) macrophages
C) epithelial cells
D) myofibroblasts
E) fibroblasts

A

B

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13
Q

H1 receptor antagonists are prescribed to patients with:
A) peptic ulceration
B) previous episode of anaphylaxis
C) hay fever
D) acute glomerulonephritis
E) Rheumatic fever

A

C

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14
Q

How does hairy leukoplakia present and what is it a symptom of?

A

Oral hairy leukoplakia is a condition triggered by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). It presents as non-movable ‘hairy’ white patches on the lateral margins of the tongue. Occurs in all risk groups for HIV

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15
Q

What is Kaposi’s sarcoma and what causes it?

A

disease in which cancer cells are found in the skin or mucous membranes that line the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, from mouth to anus, including the stomach and intestines
human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8)
seen in late stage HIV

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16
Q

What is oral hairy leukoplakia almost always a manifestation of but what virus triggers it?

A

manifestation of HIV
Triggered by EBV

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17
Q

The most common form of oral candidiasis in HIV-infected patient is:
A) hyperplastic candidiasis
B) angular cheilitis
C) pesudomembranous candidiasis
D) erythematous candidiasis
E) oral apthous ulcerations

A

C

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18
Q

The following is true regarding oral hairy leukoplakia:
A) only occurs in HIV infection
B) associated with Epstein Barr virus
C) associated with oral sex
D) associated with poor oral hygiene
E) causes painful sensation

A

B

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19
Q

The following are indicator diseases for HIV:
A) oral candidiasis
B) trigeminal neuralgia
C) obesity
D) insomnia
E) carpal tunnel syndrom

A

A

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20
Q

The following is true of HIV:
A) transmitted by sharing a cup
B) late diagnosis is associated with high morbidity and mortality
C) treated effectively by exchange transfusion
D) acyclovir is an effective combination drug
E) only affects men who have sex with men

A

B

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21
Q

Which of the following is the commonest route of HCV transmission in the UK?
A) faecal-oral
B) intravenous drug use
C) respiratory
D) sexual transmission
E) vertical: mother to child

A

B

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22
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the innate immune system?
A) tears
B) CD8+ T cells
C) neutrophils
D) The complement system
E) Phagocytes

A

B

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23
Q

Which of the following is a true statement about the action of the complement system?
A) manufactures antibodies
B) engulfs bacteria
C) produces cytokines
D) acts as a physical defence against infection
E) attracts phagocytic cells to the site of infection

A

E

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24
Q

Which of the following is a possible cause of primary immunodeficiency?
A) lymphoma
B) HIV
C) Chronic mucocutaenous candidiasis
D) immunosuppressive drugs
E) protein-losing enteropathy

A

C

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25
Q

Which of the following is NOT a method of testing for allergic disease?
A) skin prick tests
B) patch test
C) challenge tests
D) specific IgE tests
E) IgG4

A

E

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26
Q

Which of the following is true when using skin prick testing in the diagnosis of type 1 allergies?
A) expensive
B) takes a long time to process
C) useful in patients with severe eczema
D) better sensitivity compared with specific IgE testing
E) can be performed in patients taking regular antihistamines

A

D

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27
Q

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for the development of latex allergy?
A) healthcare workers using latex gloves
B) hand eczema
C) multiple surgical procedures
D) spina bifida
E) penicillin allergy

A

E

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28
Q

In anaphylaxis, the correct dose of adrenaline to be administered IM is:
A) 0.5ml 1:10000
B) 1ml 1:10000
C) 1ml 1:1000
D) 0.5ml 1:1000
E) 1.5ml 1:1000

A

D

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29
Q

Behcet’s syndrome is NOT associated with:
A) oral ulceration
B) genital ulceration
C) vitamin B12 deficiency
D) iritis
E) pathergy

A

C

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30
Q

Which of the following is defined as an organ-specific autoimmune disease?
A) autoimmune thyroid disease
B) SLE
C) Sjogrens syndrome
D) Behcets syndrom
E) Rheumatoid arthritis

A

A

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31
Q

A DVT in the popliteal vein in the leg is most likely to embolise to:
A) the lungs
B) the brain
C) the coronary arteries
D) the popliteal artery
E) the hepatic portal vein

A

A

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32
Q

The term that describes the leaking of blood from the right ventricle to the right atrium is:
A) mitral imcompetence
B) ASD
C) aortic regurgitation
D) Tricuspid regurgitation
E) VSD

A

D

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33
Q

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for atherosclerotic arterial disease?
A) smoking
B) female gender
C) diabetes mellitus
D) sedentary lifestyle
E) low HDL cholesterol

A

B

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34
Q

The most common material/substance causing embolism is:
A) thrombus
B) air
C) fat
D) foreign body
E) misplaced medical devices

A

A

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35
Q

Vascular claudication:
A) causes limping on walking
B) is usually felt in the foot at night
C) usually involves the thighs or buttocks
D) is usually managed non-surgically
E) is a reason to be on anti-coagulants

A

D

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36
Q

Aortic aneurysms:
A) should be repaired as early as possible to prevent rupture
B) arise most commonly in the infrarenal abdominal aorta
C) are associated with hyperthyroidism
D) when ruptured, are associated with an overall 30-50% mortality
E) are usually symptoms of the popliteal artery

A

B

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37
Q

The major risk factors for peripheral occlusive arterial disease include:
A) the female sex
B) premature menopause
C) HDL greater than 1.0mMol/L
D) diabetes insipidous
E) hypertension

A

E

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38
Q

Deep vein thrombosis:
A) is more common in patients undergoing lower limb surgery
B) is associated with reduced D-dimer levels
C) can be prevented by pre-operative warfarinisation of the patient
D) always result in a swollen, painful lower limb
E) all patients should be screened for thrombophilia

A

A

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39
Q

If a patient with asthma becomes wheezy during an oral surgery procedure, the correct inhaler treatment would be:
A) budesonide
B) salbutamol
C) tirotropium
D) salmeterol
E) fluticasone

A

B

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40
Q

The key feature of hypoxia is:
A) breathlessness
B) orthopnoea
C) wheezing
D) reduced peak expiratory rate
E) cyanosis

A

E

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41
Q

The most common type of lung cancer is:
A) SCC
B) small cell carcinoma
C) ductal carcinoma
D) large-cell carcinoma
E) adenocarcinoma

A

A

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42
Q

A major cause of chronic lung infection in cystic fibrosis is:
A) mycoplasma pneumoniae
B) mycobacterium tuberculosis
C) haemophilus influenzae
D) influenza A virus
E) pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

E

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43
Q

A typical adverse effect of an anticholinergic inhaler such as tiotropium is:
A) palpitations
B) tremor
C) gingival hyperplasia
D) dryness of mouth
E) Cushing’s syndrome

A

D

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44
Q

Community-acquired pneumonia is most commonly caused by:
A) streptococcus pneumoniae
B) staphylococcus aureus
C) rhinoviruses
D) pseudomonas aeruginosa
E) meticillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus

A

A

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45
Q

A typical cause of diffuse lung fibrosis is:
A) tobacco smoking
B) chronic asthma
C) bronchiectasis
D) asbestos
E) pseudomonas aeruginosa infection

A

D

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46
Q

What is Peutz-Jehger’s syndrome?

A

autosomal dominant condition comprising intestinal polyps and pigmented freckles periorally extending onto the oral mucosa. The gastric and duodenal polyps have a predisposition to becoming malignant

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47
Q

What is vitamin K important for?

A

essential for production of blood clotting factors II, VII, IX and X

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48
Q

BMI grade 1 lies in the range:
A) 10-15
B) 15-20
C) 20-25
D) 25-30
E) 30-40

A

D

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49
Q

Which of the following does NOT promote gastrooesophageal reflux?

A

A) milk
B) hiatus hernia
C) obesity
D) cigarettes
E) fatty foods

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50
Q

Crohn’s disease:
A) is confined to the terminal ileum
B) commonly presents with lip swelling
C) is characterised by transmural inflammation
D) is characterised by non-granulomatous inflammation
E) never demonstrates specific oral signs

A

C

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51
Q

Which of the following is a proton pump inhibitor?
A) omeprazole
B) cimetidine
C) sacralfate
D) misoprostol
E) lisinopril

A

A

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52
Q

Which of the following is a water soluble vitamin?
A) vitamin A
B) vitamin B
C) vitamin D
D) vitamin E
E) vitamin K

A

B

53
Q

Beriberi is a disease caused by the deficiency of vitamin:
A) B1
B) B2
C) B3
D) B6
E) B12

A

A

54
Q

Which of the following is NOT normally associated with liver failure?
A) ascites
B) bleeding
C) hypercoagulation
D) cerebral oedema
E) hepatorenal syndrome

A

C

55
Q

Vitamin K is required for the synthesis of which of the following clotting factors?
A) factor III
B) factor IV
C) factor V
D) factor VI
E) Factor VII

A

E

56
Q

Which if the following statements about chronic kidney disease (CKD) is true?
A) the prevalence of CKD falls with age
B) renal anaemia is always observed as eGR falls
C) diabetes mellitus is a major cause of CKD
D) CKD is associated with decreased risk of vascular disease
E) most patients with CKD are asymptomatic

A

C

57
Q

In the treatment of ESRD (end stage renal disease), which of the following statements is true?
A) haemodialysis is a better treatment option than successful renal transplantation
B) ‘dialysis’ describes the equilibration of substances across a semipermeable membrane
C) a fistula is always required for haemodialysis
D) peritoneal dialysis cannot proceed in patients with diabetes
E) haemodialysis cannot be performed in an emergency

A

B

58
Q

Which of the following statements about AKI (acute kidney injury) is true?
A) AKI is uncommon in hospital admissions
B) AKI is diagnosed both on biochemical parameters and urine output
C) renal stones may cause pre-renal AKI
D) most cases of AKI are not preventable
E) AKI stage 1 is more severe than stage 3

A

B

59
Q

Which of the following statements about renal impairment is true?
A) severe uraemia can cause increased bleeding risk
B) it is best to perform procedures on dialysis patients immediately after their dialysis session
C) drug doses often need to be increased in renal impairment
D) NSAIDs are generally safe to use in renal patients
E) swallowed blood from a post-extraction haemorrhage can provide a significant phosphate load

A

A

60
Q

Which of the following statements about renal transplantation is false?
A) renal transplantation from a living donor may allow pre-emptive transplantation and help avoid the need for dialysis
B) the side effects of immunosuppression include increased risk of skin cancer
C) immunosuppressant drugs must be stopped before oral surgery
D) gingival hypertrophy is a side effect of cyclosporine and tacrolimus
E) tacrolimus dosage can be monitored using trough blood levels

A

C

61
Q

Which of the following statements about dental care in patients with renal disease is true?
A) mouth infections are NOT more common in patients with ESRD
B) reduced platelet function is seen in CKD
C) the use of heparin in haemodialysis patients is of no concern prior to dental extraction
D) antihypertensive drugs do not contribute to gum hypertrophy/gingival overgrowth
E) oral cancers are more frequent in renal transplant patients

A

B

62
Q

Which of the following statements about dialysis in renal disease is true?
A) peritoneal dialysis is less effective in the elderly
B) peritoneal dialysis involves systemic anticoagulation
C) haemodialysis is not possible for left-handed people
D) peritoneal dialysis cannot be performed after major abdominal surgery
E) haemodialysis cannot be performed at the patients home

A

D

63
Q

Which of the following statements about the causes of renal disease is true?
A) systemic sclerosis is an inherited disease
B) diabetes mellitus is the commonest cause of ESRD
C) renal vasculitis may be diagnosed using special blood tests such as ANCA
D) nephrotic syndrome cannot be monitored using urine tests
E) HIV is not associated with kidney disease

A

B

64
Q

Which of the following is unlikely to be caused by stroke?
A) loss of one side of the visual field in both eyes
B) unilateral arm weakness
C) loss of consciousness
D) word-finding difficulties
E) unilateral facial drooping

A

C

65
Q

The term for difficulty inusing or understanding words is:
A) dysphrasia
B) dysarthia
C) dysphagia
D) dysphonia
E) dysphasia

A

E

66
Q

Food sticking in the throat is most likely to be caused by:
A) stroke
B) MND
C) oesophageal stenosis
D) multiple sclerosis
E) cerebellar degeneration

A

C

67
Q

Which of the following is NOT a treatment for swallowing difficulties caused by stoke?
A) oesophageal dilation with stenting
B) thickened fluids
C) nasogastric feeding
D) PEG feeding
E) soft diet

A

A

68
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the emergency management of an acute occlusive stroke?
A) urgent CT scanning
B) carotid artery stenting
C) swallowing assessment
D) intravenous thrombolysis
E) oral aspirin

A

B

69
Q

Which of the following is NOT appropriate for secondary prevention of a stroke after TIA?
A) oral antiplatelet treatment
B) carotid endarterectomy
C) warfarin for patients with atrial fibrillation
D) tranexamic acid for patients with haemorrhagic strokes
E) lipid-lowering therapy

A

D

70
Q

“Battle signs” is demonstrated by the clinical appearance of:
A) periorbital ecchymosis
B) periauricular ecchymosis
C) perizygomatic ecchymosis
D) Peritonsillar ecchymosis
E) perimandibular ecchymosis

A

B

71
Q

A typical sign of extradural haemorrhage on a CT scan is of:
A) a biconvex-shaped opacity
B) a biconcave-shaped opacity
C) ventricle opacity
D) circumferential opacity
E) extracranial opacity

A

A

72
Q

Which of the following is likely NOT a cause of sensorineural deafness?
A) acute labrynthitis
B) head injury
C) Paget’s disease of bone
D) overdose of certain drugs (e.g. gentamicin)
E) impacted wax in the external acoustic meatus

A

E

73
Q

Ulnar deviation of the hands is characteristically seen in:
A) Paget’s disease of bone
B) osteoarthritis
C) psoriatic arthritis
D) rheumatoid arthritis
E) Ankylosing spondylitis

A

D

74
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis:
A) is one of the autoimmune disorders
B) is confined to the joints
C) has no cutaneous manifestations
D) has the same aetiology as osteoarthritis but affects different joints
E) has no potential cardiac manifestations

A

A

75
Q

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for osteoporosis?
A) age
B) female
C) male
D) family history
E) early menopause

A

C

76
Q

Primary hyperparathyroidism:
A) is a normal response to the deficiency of vitamin D
B) is a cause of hypercalcaemia
C) is often caused by renal failure
D) is most commonly caused by parathyroid cancer
E) is usually congenital, associated with defective dentition

A

B

77
Q

Bisphosphonates work by:
A) stimulating osteoblasts
B) inhibiting osteoclasts
C) inhibiting osteoblasts
D) stimulating osteoclasts
E) stimulating both osteoblasts and osteoclasts

A

B

78
Q

Which of the following does not cause osteonecrosis of the jaw?
A) oral bisphosphonates
B) subcutaneous denosumab
C) intravenous bisphosphonates
D) phosphorous poisoning
E) oestrogen replacement therapy

A

E

79
Q

Features of hypoglycaemia include:
A) skin pigmentation
B) bone pains
C) tetany
D) dehydration
E) diarrhoea

A

C

80
Q

Which of the following statements about vitamin D is false?
A) it is derived from cholesterol
B) it is activated by hydroxylation in the kidney
C) it inhibits PTH release
D) deficiency in adults results in osteomalacia
E) it is made through the action of sunlight

A

C

81
Q

Pigmentation of the oral mucosa is most likely to a feature of:
A) hypothyroidism
B) Addison’s disease
C) Psoriasis
D) Syphilis
E) Gonorrhoea

A

B

82
Q

Skin blisters are likely to be caused by:
A) iron deficiency anaemia
B) Pemphigus vulgaris
C) Cushing’s disease
D) Peutz-Jehgers syndrome
E) OLP (oral lichen planus)

A

B

83
Q

Regarding varicella zoster virus (HHV-3), which one of the following statements is most likely to be correct?
A) may cause shingles
B) may cause herpes labalis
C) may cause recurrent EM minor
D) may cause pemphigus vulgaris
E) may cause oral hairy leukoplakia

A

A

84
Q

Regarding Herpes simplex virus (HHV-1) induced herpes labalis (cold sore), which one of the following statements is most likely to be correct?
A) is considered to be a potential predisposing factor for the development of lip squamous cell carcinoma
B) may be precipitated by stress
C) is considered to be a manifestation of vitamin D deficiency
D) is considered to be a predisposing factor for the development of squamous cell carcinoma
E) is considered to be a risk factor for the development of actinic cheilitis

A

B

85
Q

Which one of the following diagnoses is most likely to be associated with a relatively poorer prognosis?
A) basal cell carcinoma
B) malignant melanoma
C) squamous cell carcinoma
D) lentigo maligna
E) discoid lupus erythematosus

A

B

86
Q

Which one of the following statements most appropriately describes the salient clinical features of Behcet’s syndrome?
A) apthous-like ulceration of the oral and genital mucosa
B) snail-trail-like ulceration of the oral and genital mucosa
C) snail-trail-like ulceration of the oral and pharyngeal mucosa
D) apthous-llike ulceration of the oral mucosa and conjunctivae
E) granulomatous ulceration of the oral and genital mucosa

A

A

87
Q

Lichen planus is most likely to involve which of the following sites?
A) sclera
B) conjunctiva
C) oesophagus
D) nasal mucosa
E) genital mucosa

A

E

88
Q

Regarding basal cell carcinoma, which one of the following statements is most likely to be correct?
A) regional lymph node metastasis is present in approximately 1/3 of patients at diagnosis
B) regional lymph node metastasis is present in approximately half of patients at diagnosis
C) is a premalignant/potentially malignant condition
D) is recognised as a common complication of vitamin D deficiency
E) regional lymph node metastasis is rarely present at diagnosis

A

E

89
Q

Which of the following hormones does NOT raise blood glucose levels?
A) growth hormone
B) glucagon
C) adrenaline
D) T4
E) cortisol

A

D

90
Q

Type 1 diabetes:
A) is always treated with insulin
B) is associated with obesity
C) has a peak age of onset of 25 years
D) is commonly asymptomatic
E) is often discovered during pregnancy

A

A

91
Q

Cushing’s syndrome is most commonly caused by:
A) adrenal carcinoma
B) pituitary tumour
C) therapeutic use of glucocorticosteroids
D) adrenal adenoma
E) ectopic ACTH production from cancers

A

C

92
Q

Cushing’s syndrome is most commonly caused by:
A) adrenal carcinoma
B) pituitary tumour
C) therapeutic use of glucocorticosteroids
D) adrenal adenoma
E) ectopic ACTH production from cancers

A

C

93
Q

Cushing’s syndrome is most commonly caused by:
A) adrenal carcinoma
B) pituitary tumour
C) therapeutic use of glucocorticosteroids
D) adrenal adenoma
E) ectopic ACTH production from cancers

A

C

94
Q

Which of the following should NOT be given in the treatment of hypoglycaemia?
A) intramuscular glucose
B) intramuscular glucagon
C) carton of fruit juice
D) intravenous glucose
E) dextrose tablets

A

A

95
Q

Which of the following should NOT be given in the treatment of hypoglycaemia?
A) intramuscular glucose
B) intramuscular glucagon
C) carton of fruit juice
D) intravenous glucose
E) dextrose tablets

A

A

95
Q

Which of the following should NOT be given in the treatment of hypoglycaemia?
A) intramuscular glucose
B) intramuscular glucagon
C) carton of fruit juice
D) intravenous glucose
E) dextrose tablets

A

A

96
Q

Which of the following is an adrenergic warning symptom of hypoglycaemia?
A) tremor
B) confusion
C) coma
D) convulsions
E) slurred speech

A

A

97
Q

Buccal pigmentation is a clinical sign of:
A) hypopituitasism
B) vitiligo
C) Cushing’s syndrome
D) Acromegaly
E) Addison’s disease

A

E

98
Q

Which of the following is NOT a feature of acromegaly?
A) hyperglycaemia
B) malocclusion
C) headache
D) homonymous hemianopia
E) TMJ arthritis

A

D

99
Q

Grave’s disease:
A) is a form of insulinoma
B) is a form of hypothyroidism
C) is a form of hyperthyroidism
D) is only seen in the immunosuppressed
E) is only seen in diabetic patients

A

C

100
Q

Grave’s disease:
A) is a form of insulinoma
B) is a form of hypothyroidism
C) is a form of hyperthyroidism
D) is only seen in the immunosuppressed
E) is only seen in diabetic patients

A

C

100
Q

Grave’s disease:
A) is a form of insulinoma
B) is a form of hypothyroidism
C) is a form of hyperthyroidism
D) is only seen in the immunosuppressed
E) is only seen in diabetic patients

A

C

100
Q

Grave’s disease:
A) is a form of insulinoma
B) is a form of hypothyroidism
C) is a form of hyperthyroidism
D) is only seen in the immunosuppressed
E) is only seen in diabetic patients

A

C

100
Q

Grave’s disease:
A) is a form of insulinoma
B) is a form of hypothyroidism
C) is a form of hyperthyroidism
D) is only seen in the immunosuppressed
E) is only seen in diabetic patients

A

C

100
Q

Grave’s disease:
A) is a form of insulinoma
B) is a form of hypothyroidism
C) is a form of hyperthyroidism
D) is only seen in the immunosuppressed
E) is only seen in diabetic patients

A

C

101
Q

Drug-induced gingival overgrowth may be seen in:
A) ACE inhibitors
B) carbamazepine
C) nicorandil
D) Calcium channel blockers
E) thiazide diuretics

A

D

102
Q

Which of the following drugs has traditionally been recognised as a potential side-effect of (of has drug interactions with) the oral contraceptive pill?
A) protection against DVT
B) increased risk of dry socket
C) decreased risk of dry socket
D) osteonecrosis
E) prescription of ibuprofen

A

B

103
Q

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for drug-induced gingival overgrowth?
A) age
B) concomitant medication in transplant patients
C) impaired oral hygiene
D) use of electric toothbrush
E) drug variables

A

D

104
Q

Which of the following antibiotics can cause defects in the tooth enamel in the developing dentition?
A) phenoxymethylpenicillin
B) tetracycline
C) metronidazole
D) clindamycin
E) flucloxacillin

A

B

105
Q

Which antibiotic forms a chelate with calcium and other cations?
A) erythromycin
B) penicillin
C) flucloxacillin
D) clindamycin
E) tetracycline

A

E

106
Q

Ibuprofen:
A) is only available on prescription
B) is steroid based
C) is generally contraindicated in diabetic patients
D) is generally contraindicated in asthmatic patients
E) has no interaction with warfarin

A

D

107
Q

A benign neoplasm of the parotid gland may present with:
A) Bell’s Palsy
B) Xerostomia
C) Fusiform swelling
D) cervical lymphadenopathy
E) Paraneoplastic syndrome

A

C

108
Q

A malignant neoplasm of the parotid gland may present with:
A) lower motor neuron palsy of the facial nerve
B) upper motor neuron palsy of the facial nerve
C) hearing loss
D) generalised lymphadenopathy
E) paraneoplastic syndrome

A

A

109
Q

Human papillomavirus type 16 is the main cause of:
A) genital warts
B) squamous cell papilloma
C) squamous cell carcinoma of the uterine cervix
D) focal epithelial hyperplasia
E) Laryngeal cancer

A

B

110
Q

Tumour activator genes are:
A) located mainly on chromosomes 13 and 21
B) inactivated during carcinogenesis
C) activated during carcinogenesis
D) growth promoting
E) used in gene therapy

A

B

111
Q

Oncogenes are:
A) amplified by retinoblastoma
B) inactivated in breast cancer
C) amplified in breast cancer
D) Immune-regulatory genes
E) used in gene therapy

A

C

112
Q

A patient receiving radiotherapy for oral cancer is most likely to experience:
A) hearing loss
B) acute mucositis
C) radiation caries
D) generalised lymphadenopathy

A

B

113
Q

What is the most likely complication following extraction of a mandibular molar tooth in a patient who has received head and neck radiotherapy?
A) fracture of the roots
B) fracture of the mandible
C) osteoradionecrosis
D) damage to the inferior alveolar nerve
E) excessive bleeding

A

C

114
Q

A patient with multiple myeloma has an extraction and develops a non-healing socket. Which of the following medications are associated with this post-surgical complication?
A) lidocaine
B) anti-fungal medication
C) amoxicillin
D) alendronic acid
E) ibuprofen

A

D

115
Q

Which one of the following is a tricyclic antidepressant?
A) amitriptyline
B) fluoxetine
C) paroxetine
D) Citalopram
E) sertraline

A

A

116
Q

SSRIs include:
A) haloperidol
B) risperidone
C) citalopram
D) quetiapine
E) clozapine

A

C

117
Q

Which one of the following is NOT a core feature of depression?
A) loss of libido
B) lack of energy
C) loss of enjoyment
D) poor concentration
E) delirium and hallucinations if severe

A

D

118
Q

Which one of the following is NOT a core feature of mania?
A) distractibility
B) decreased need for sleep
C) risk-taking behaviour
D) racing thoughts
E) hallucinations

A

C

119
Q

Which of the following is a feature suggestive of possible psychogenic pain?
A) unilateral pain
B) bilateral pain
C) easily identified on testing
D) analgesia is usually effective
E) no association with emotional factors

A

B

120
Q

Macrocytic anaemia is typically found in:
A) iron deficiency
B) lead poisoning
C) B12 deficiency
D) Blood loss
E) Anaemia of chronic disease

A

C

121
Q

Which of the following is NOT a cause of iron deficiency?
A) chronic blood loss
B) coeliac disease
C) menorrhagia
D) poor dietary intake of iron
E) pernicious anaemia

A

E

122
Q

How quickly does the administration of intravenous vitamin K usually lead to INR reversal in a patient receiving warfarin?
A) 15 mins
B) 1 hour
C) 24 hours
D) 4-6 hours
E) 10-12 hours

A

D

123
Q

A low factor IX is found in:
A) haemophilia B
B) haemophilia A
C) von Willebrand disease
D) Thrombocytopenia
E) dabigatran therapy

A

A

124
Q

A low serum ferritin is typically found in:
A) iron deficiency anaemia
B) liver disease
C) thalassaemia
D) B12 deficiency
E) folate deficiency

A

A

3rd Year - Module 5 (12 decks)

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