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3rd Year - Module 5 > Human diseases 3 > Flashcards

Human diseases 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What is diabetes mellitus?

A

abnormality of glucose regulation

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2
Q

What is diabetes insipidous?

A

abnormality of renal function

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3
Q

What is the major characteristic of diabetes mellitus, both type 1 and 2?

A

hyperglycaemia

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4
Q

What is the intermediate zone between normal and overt diabetes called and what is it indicative of?

A

pre-diabetes
indicator of future diabetes development

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5
Q

A random plasma glucose measurement of what is diagnostic of diabetes?

A

> 11.1mmol/L on 2 occasions

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6
Q

What HbA1c measurement is diagnostic of diabetes?

A

> 48mmol/mol

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7
Q

What is HbA1c a measure of?

A

average blood glucose (sugar) levels for the last two to three months.

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8
Q

A fasting plasma glucose test can be done to investigate possible diabetes, which values are considered normal, impaired fasting glucose and diabetes?

A

<6.1 normal
6.1-7.0 impaired fasting glucose
>7.0 diabetes

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9
Q

A two hour plasma glucose test can be done to investigate diabetes, what values are considered normal, impaired glucose tolerance and diabetes?

A

<7.8 normal
7.8-11.1 impaired fasting glucose
>11.1 diabetes

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10
Q

What is Type I diabetes?

A

insulin deficiency

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11
Q

What causes the insulin deficiency in type I diabetes?

A

autoimmune destruction of pancreatic B cells

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12
Q

What is ketoacidosis?

A

body cells cannot access glucose for metabolism so start to metabolise fat which results in high levels of ketones causing the blood to become more acidic

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13
Q

What are the circulating antibodies present in Type I diabetes?

A

GAD - glutamic acid decarboxylase
ICA - islet cell antibodies
IAA - insulin antibodies

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14
Q

When is the onset of type I diabetes?

A

childhood/adolescence

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15
Q

What are the features of type I diabetes with adult onset?

A

LADA - late autoimmune diabetes in adults
GAD (glutamic acid decarboxylase) associated, generally low AB levels, less weight loss and less ketoacidosis
may masquerade as ‘non-obese’ type II

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16
Q

What are the diabetic symptoms in Type I diabetes?

A

polyuria
polydipsia - thirsty
tiredness

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17
Q

What are the characteristics of an acute presentation of Type I diabetes?

A

hyperglycaemia with diabetic symptoms
ketoacidosis (medical emergency)

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18
Q

From what point do Type I diabetics require insulin?

A

from diagnosis

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19
Q

What is type II diabetes strongly associated with?

A

obesity and inactivity

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20
Q

What is type II diabetes characterised by?

A

defective and delayed insulin secretion and abnormal post prandial suppression of glucagon

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21
Q

What kind of surgery has shown positive signs of remission in type II diabetes?

A

Bariatric surgery - most people go into partial or complete remission after surgery

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22
Q

What is the role of glucagon?

A

increases plasma glucose level

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23
Q

Collectively, the symptoms of type II diabetes are described as what?

A

“insulin resistance”

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24
Q

What are the effects of Type II diabetes?

A

multisystem impairment
impaired glucose tolerance
hyperinsulinaemia
hypertension
obesity with abdominal distribution
dyslipidaemia
early and accelerated atherosclerosis

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25
Q

What type of diabetes is hyperinsulinaemia associated with?

A

Type II

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26
Q

What medications can be linked to medication induced diabetes?

A

corticosteroids
immune suppressants - cyclosporin
cancer medication
antipsychotic medications - clozapine
antivirals - protease inhibitors

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27
Q

What other medical conditions can be linked to diabetes?

A

endocrine disease - Cushings, acromegaly
Pregnancy - gestational diabetes

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28
Q

What do Type II diabetics usually present with and is there a common FH?

A

present with complications
strong FH

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29
Q

Do type I or type II diabetics suffer from ketoacidosis?

A

Type I - easily get ketoacidosis
Type II - rarely get ketoacidosis

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30
Q

Why is the site of insulin injection often rotated around the body?

A

leads to fat atrophy at site used repeatedly

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31
Q

What are the two types of insulin regime?

A

1) basal-bolus more injections - better control, single long acting dose for whole day with intakes of short acting for meals and exercise
2) split-mixed fewer injections - poorer control, 2 injections per day, breakfast and tea containing rapid and med acting

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32
Q

In type I diabetic management what % of calories should come form saturated fat and what should they be counting in their diet?

A

<10% saturated fat
carbohydrate counting if on basal bolus regimen

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33
Q

What are the two newer T1DM insulin monitoring options?

A

continuous glucose monitoring - small needle attaches to skin and relays to monitor
closed loop glucose monitoring - monitor attached to insulin pump subcutaneously placed

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34
Q

How is type II diabetes managed?

A

weight loss
diet restriction - avoid CHO, high fibre diet, reduce fat
medication
surgery - bariatric surgery

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35
Q

What medications are used in the management of T2DM?

A

biguanides - ‘metformin’
gliptins
sulphonylureas

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36
Q

How does metformin help with T2DM management?

A

enhances cell sensitivity to insulin
reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis

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37
Q

How do gliptins work in T2DM management?

A

block the enzyme metabolising incretin
improves insulin response to glucose
reduces liver gluconeogenesis and delays stomach emptying

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38
Q

How do sulphonylureas work in T2DM management?

A

INCREASE pancreatic insulin secretion
can cause hypoglycaemia!

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39
Q

What is an acute complication of diabetes?

A

Hypoglycaemia
caused by insulin or sulphonylurea medications in Type II diabetes
insulin or drug without food

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40
Q

What are some chronic complications of diabetes?

A

cardiovascular risk - macrovascular changes to vessels and increased risk of atherosclerosis
infection risk
neuropathy

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41
Q

How does autonomic dysfunction in diabetes impact acute hypoglycaemia?

A

microvascular changes in nutrient supply to autonomic nerves mean they are less able to send signals, so patients get little warning when they are going to go hypo

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42
Q

Name a large vessel diabetic complication of diabetes

A

atheroma causing angina, MI, claudication, anneurysm

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43
Q

Name some diseases/impacts considered as diabetic complications

A

poor wound healing
easy wound infections
renal disease
eye disease
neuropathy - numbness

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44
Q

What symptoms can be seen in diabetic eye disease?

A

cataracts
maculopathy - lose high density cone section of retina, losing detailed vision
proliferative retinopathy - new blood vessels and scar tissue have formed on your retina, which can cause significant bleeding and lead to retinal detachment, where the retina pulls away from the back of the eye

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45
Q

What are the features associated with diabetic neuropathy?

A

general sensation - “glove and stocking” numbness
motor neuropathy - weakness and wasting of muscles
autonomic regulation - postural reflexes reduced, bladder and bowel dysfunction, less awareness of hypoglycaemia

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46
Q

Why is fasting before surgery an issue for type I diabetics?

A

need insulin to prevent ketoacidosis
need carbohydrates to prevent hypoglycaemia

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47
Q

What metabolic changes in surgery can cause complications with diabetes?

A

hormone changes aggravate diabetes
more glucose production and less muscle uptake
metabolic acidosis more likely

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48
Q

What are the features of bacterial conjunctivitis?

A

sticky, purulent discharge
bilateral, sequential
gritty, uncomfortable

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49
Q

What are the features of viral conjunctivitis?

A

watery, “streaming”
bilateral
pre-auricular lymphadenopathy

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50
Q

What is subconjunctival haemorrhage?

A

caused by a bleeding blood vessel under the conjunctiva

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51
Q

What are the features of subconjunctival haemorrhage?

A

asymptomatic, but terrifying to patient!
effectively a bruise, often spontaneous
only of concern in trauma
high bp and anticoagulants can increase incidence

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52
Q

What two things can increase incidence of subconjunctival haemorrhage?

A

anticoagulants
high blood pressure

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53
Q

What is a corneal ulcer?

A

an open sore in the outer layer of the cornea. It is often caused by corneal infection.

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54
Q

What are the features and causes of corneal ulcer?

A

very light sensitive (photophobia)
corneal inflammation
not always visible to naked eye
CONTACT LENSES - high risk
preventable blindness
URGENT (<24hrs)

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55
Q

Who are at high risk of corneal ulcer?

A

contact lense users

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56
Q

Is a corneal ulcer a medical issue?

A

Yes - risk of blindness

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57
Q

What does photophobia generally indicate a problem of?

A

problem of the cornea

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58
Q

What does redness of the inner lower eyelid with redness AWAY from the sclera of the eye indicate?

A

usually conjunctivitis

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59
Q

What does redness of the lower eyelid, into the sclera and in a concentrated circle round the cornea indicate?

A

corneal problem (which can scar) or a problem inside the eye itself

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60
Q

What can cause facial nerve palsy?

A

IANB
Parotidectomy
Damage or swelling of the facial nerve

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61
Q

What is the risk of facial palsy rendering a patient unable to close their eye?

A

if cornea dries out it can break down and cause scarring

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62
Q

What first aid management should be carried out following a facial nerve palsy where the eye cannot close?

A

tape eye closed
generous lubrication
optometrist
safety net advice

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63
Q

What is Bell’s phenomenon and how do you test it?

A

innate reflex in eye which protects cornea from damage. To test hold eyelid up and ask pt to squeeze eyes, eye should roll up.

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64
Q

What is peri(orbital) cellulitis?

A

infective oedema of the eyelids and periorbital skin (anterior portion of eye) with no involvement of the orbit

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65
Q

What is the most useful and important barrier to intra-orbital infection?

A

orbital septum

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66
Q

At what age does the orbital septum fully develop?

A

around 5-6yrs

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67
Q

What are the characteristics of preseptal (periorbital) cellulitis?

A

hot, red, swollen, tender lids
?preceding sinusitis/cold
?preceding facial injury/surgery
white eye
vision unchanged
full range of eye movements
pupil reacts normally

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68
Q

What is orbital cellulitis?

A

infection of the soft tissues of the eye socket behind the orbital septum, a thin tissue which divides the eyelid from the eye socket but not the globe

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69
Q

What are the characteristics of orbital cellulitis?

A

hot, red, swollen, tender lids
?preceding sinusitis/cold
?preceding facial injury/surgery
red, injected eye
blurred, reduced vision
eye movements restricted
sluggish pupil

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70
Q

What is the difference between preseptal (periorbital) cellulitis and orbital cellulitis?

A

Orbital cellulitis = behind the orbital septum
Preseptal cellulitis = Infection isolated anterior to the orbital septum

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71
Q

What are the four major questions to ask a patient with red eye?

A
  • do you wear contact lenses?
  • has vision been affected?
  • appearance of the pupil
  • pain?
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72
Q

What changes in appearance of the pupil should you look for?

A

round?
reactive to light compared to other side?

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73
Q

List the structures of the eye which light hits in order of first to last

A

-cornea
-anterior chamber
-lense
-vitrius
-retina
-optic nerve

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74
Q

Name five common eye conditions

A

1) Cataract
2) ARMD - Age-related macular degeneration
3) glaucoma
4) retinal detachment
5) giant cell arteritis

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75
Q

What is a cataract?

A

when the lens, a small transparent disc inside your eye, develops cloudy patches.

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76
Q

What are the symptoms of cataracts and how can they be treated?

A

gradual, painless, hazy/misty vision, near/total blindness
Phacoemulsification surgery - quick, safe, painless

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77
Q

What is ARMD?

A

Age related macular degeneration

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78
Q

What kind of vision is affected by ARMD?

A

Central vision - blurred, distorted, holes/gaps
seeing faces, reading

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79
Q

What are the two types of ARMD and what are their characteristics?

A

wet type - faster onset and progression, treatable by anti-VEGF injections
dry type - gradual, slowly progressing, no specific treatment

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80
Q

What is glaucoma?

A

condition of the optic nerve usually caused by fluid building up in the front part of the eye, which increases pressure inside the eye

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81
Q

What happens in glaucoma?

A

gradual, progressive loss of axons from the optic nerve

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82
Q

What are the characteristics of chronic open angle glaucoma?

A

peripheral vision affected first, central vision lost very late
mostly asymptomatic, painless
largely treated with pressure-lowering eyedrops, life-long

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83
Q

What are the characteristics of acute closed angle glaucoma?

A

red, painful eye, unreactive pupil, severe headache, unwell pt

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84
Q

What is retinal detachment?

A

retina becomes loose

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85
Q

What are the symptoms of retinal detachment?

A

flashing lights, floaters
“shadow in the corner of my vision”
painless, no external features on eye

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86
Q

Is surgery urgent in retinal detachment?

A

Yes - urgent surgery (<2 days) to salvage vision

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87
Q

What is the dental consideration of patients with retinal detachment?

A

NO INHALATION SEDATION
causes acute eye pressure rise and permanent sight loss

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88
Q

What is giant cell arteritis?

A

type of vasculitis (group of diseases whose main feature is inflammation of blood vessels) especially branches of external carotid artery
true medical emergency

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89
Q

Why is giant cell arteritis classed as a medical emergency?

A

can cause: possible sudden blindness in one or both eyes. Damage to blood vessels, such as an aneurysm (a ballooning blood vessel that may burst). Other disorders, including stroke or transient ischemic attacks (“mini-strokes”)

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90
Q

What are the symptoms of giant cell arteritis?

A

> 50yrs
tender scalp skin
feeling rotten
(transient) vision disturbance
jaw/tongue claudication pain
headache
losing weight

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91
Q

How does diabetes affect the eyes?

A

insulin deficiency/resistance - hyperglycaemia, sugary blood is toxic to blood vessels
diabetic retinopathy - vitreous haemorrhage, retinal detachment
maculopathy - retinal oedema

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92
Q

What is a diabetic vitreous haemorrhage?

A

main chamber of the eyeball is called the vitreous cavity and this is normally filled with a clear jelly called vitreous. If bleeding into the vitreous occurs with diabeters this is called a diabetic vitreous haemorrhage

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93
Q

What is diabetic retinopathy?

A

sugary blood damages vessels causing haemorrhage and oedema (especially at macula)
retinal ischaemia
vitreous haemorrhage, retinal detachment

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94
Q

What are the two main ways diabetics lose vision?

A

1) proliferative retinopathy - sugary blood damaging vessels causing retinal detachment and vitreous haemorrhage
2) Maculopathy (swelling) - leakage of substance into retina, retina soaks up fluid lifting it away from surface i.e. retinal detachment

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95
Q

What is maculopathy?

A

blood vessels in the part of the eye called the macula (the central area of the retina) can also become leaky or blocked

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96
Q

Where is the most common site of fracture maxillofacially?

A

floor of orbit

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97
Q

What are the two main questions to ask yourself when examining orbital fractures?

A

1) is there evidence of muscle entrapment?
2) is there evidence of orbital compartment syndrome?

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98
Q

What are the symptoms of an orbital fracture?

A
  • bruising, pain, subconjunctival haemorrhage, “sunken eye” due to volume loss, periorbital oedema, double vision, infraorbital anaesthesia
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99
Q

Who are muscle entrapments upon orbital fracture most common in?

A

Children - “bend and snap”

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100
Q

What is the danger of muscle entrapment upon orbital fracture and what must be done to treat it?

A

warrants urgent surgery to prevent muscle necrosis - long term double vision if missed
oculocardiac reflex if muscle trapped - slowed heart rate, nausea/vomiting, syncope/fainting

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101
Q

What can cause a oculocardiac reflex and what does this reflex do?

A

muscle entrapment in orbital floor fracture
slowed heart rate, nausea/vomiting, syncope/fainting because muscle is stimulating parasympathetic nervous system

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102
Q

What is orbital compartment syndrome?

A

acute rise in intra-orbital pressure, and if not treated immediately, damage to the optic disc and retina will lead to irreversible vision loss. medical emergency

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103
Q

What is retrobulbar haemorrhage?

A

rapidly progressive, sight-threatening emergency that results in an accumulation of blood in the retrobulbar space

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104
Q

What can cause orbital compartment syndrome?

A

retrobulbar syndrome results in a compartment syndrome which can lead to compression or ischemia of the optic nerve, blockage of the optic nerve venous drainage, or a central retinal arterial occlusion leading to vision loss

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105
Q

What are the symptoms of retrobulbar haemorrhage?

A

severe pain, reduced vision, slow/unreactive pupil, restricted movement in all directions, large subconjunctival haemorrhage, “hard eye” compared to other

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106
Q

How is orbital compartment syndrome treated?

A

lateral canthotomy and cantholysis - emergency procedure, cut tendon to provide space and reduce eye pressure

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107
Q

What is hyphema?

A

Accumulation of red blood cells within the anterior chamber between the cornea and iris

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108
Q

What should be done to manage a chemical injury to the eye?

A

irrigate
tap water, saline
aim = prevent corneal scarring

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109
Q

What is worse for the eyes, acid or alkali?

A

alkali

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110
Q

Name three ways of administering respiratory drugs

A

1) inhalation
2) oral
3) IV

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111
Q

How do inhalers work?

A

topical to the bronchial tree, reduce systemic effects of drug

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112
Q

Which drugs improve ventilation by improving airway patency?

A

1) bronchodilators - B2 antagonist, anticholinergic
2) anti-inflammatory - corticosteroid

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113
Q

X

A

X

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114
Q

What drugs impair ventilation?

A

1) Beta blockers - make airways narrower by increasing affects of smooth muscle constriction
2) respiratory depressants - benzodiazepines (reduce ventilation rate by muscle relaxation), opioids (reduce stimulus for patient to breath)

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115
Q

What drug improves gas exchange?

A

oxygen

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116
Q

What are the two main modalities for inhaled drug therapy?

A

1) meter dose inhaler - “puffer”
2) Breath activated device - spinhaler, turbohaler

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117
Q

Name two aids to drug delivery in respiratory disease

A

1) nebuliser - uses liquid drug in small chamber, air blows through tube causing bubbling & then breathed in
2) spacer - allows pt to activate MDI into chamber and breathe through chamber

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118
Q

What do B2 antagonists do?

A

respiratory disease
relieve symptoms of bronchoconstrictions of smooth muscle

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119
Q

Name the two types of B2 antagonists

A

1) short acting - salbutamol, terbutaline (blue inhaler) “reliever drugs”
2) long acting - salmeterol (green inhaler)

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120
Q

What are the features of short acting B2 agonists?

A
  • quick onset 2-3mins
  • last 4-6hrs
  • administration - inhaled, oral or IV
  • used to TREAT acute bronchial constriction
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121
Q

What are the features of long acting B2 agonists?

A
  • slow onset 1-2hrs
  • last 12-15hrs
  • administration - inhaled
  • used to PREVENT acute bronchial constriction
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122
Q

What are anticholinergics and what are their purpose in respiratory medicine?

A

inhibit muscarinic nerve transmission in autonomic nerves, additive effect in bronchial dilatation with beta agonists and effective in reducing mucous secretion

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123
Q

What is an example of an anticholinergic medication and what colour of inhaler do they come in?

A

ipratropium
grey inhaler

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124
Q

How do corticosteroids function in respiratory medicine?

A

reduce inflammation in the bronchial walls

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125
Q

Name four corticosteroids used in respiratory medicine and their inhaler colours

A

1) beclomethasone (brown inhaler)
2) Budesonide (brown)
3) fluticosone (orange)
4) Mometasone (pink)

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126
Q

What does MART mean in respiratory medicine?

A

Maintenance and reliever therapy

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127
Q

What is anaesthesia?

A

loss of sensation

128
Q

What are the three forms of anaesthesia?

A

local
regional
general

129
Q

What is conscious patient sedation?

A

technique in which the use of a drug produces a state of depression of the CNS enabling treatment to be carried out but verbal contact with the patient is maintained throughout.

130
Q

What are the three forms of assessment required for anaesthesia?

A

1) patient
2) surgical
3) anaesthetic

131
Q

What is malignant hyperthermia?

A

severe reaction to certain anaesthetics. This typically includes a dangerously high body temperature, rigid muscles or spasms, a rapid heart rate
inherited disorder of skeletal muscle

132
Q

What is the physiological cause of malignant hyperthermia?

A

abnormal accumulation of calcium in muscle cells leads to hypermetabolism, muscle rigidity and muscle breakdown

133
Q

What are the symptoms of malignant hyperthermia?

A

unexplained increase in expired CO2 concentration
unexplained tachycardia
unexplained increase in oxygen requirement
temperature increase

134
Q

What is the treatment of malignant hyperthermia?

A

only drug that is effective at limiting the MH process is DANTROLENE
active cooling of the patient is commenced

135
Q

What drug is used for premedication for anaesthesia/sedation?

A

benzodiazepines - premedication used to reduce the amount of other agents required for anaesthesia

136
Q

Name three drugs used to induce anaesthesia

A

1) propofol
2) thiopental
3) etomidate

137
Q

How are inhalation drugs usually administered?

A

in a mixture of oxygen and air or nitrous oxide

138
Q

What are the four stages of anaesthesia?

A

1) loss of consciousness
2) excitement or delirium, coughing, vomiting and struggling may occur
3) stage of surgical anaesthesia - from onset of automatic respiration to respiratory paralysis, laryngeal reflex is lost, pupils dilate
4) cessation of respiration to death

139
Q

What is nitrous oxide more commonly known as?

A

laughing gas

140
Q

What is a nasopharyngeal airway in anaesthesia?

A

airway but in through nose and down throat in awake patients, well tolerated

141
Q

What is a guedel airway?

A

rigid plastic tube which sits along top of mouth and ends at base of tongue (an adjunct to help keep airway open). patient should be asleep

142
Q

What is an endotracheal tube?

A

flexible tube that is placed in the trachea (windpipe) through the mouth or nose

143
Q

What is an elective surgery?

A

procedure that has been planned in advance and may or may not be medically required

144
Q

What is an open surgery vs a laparoscopic surgery?

A

open - scalpol used for entry
laparoscopic - smaller incisions, ports, use of camera

145
Q

What does NCEPOD stand for?

A

National Confidential Enquiry into patient outcome and death

146
Q

What are the four categories of surgery in NCEPOD?

A

1) immediate - life or limb saving
2) urgent - intervention for acute onset or clinical deterioration of potentially life-threatening condition
3) expedited
4) elective

147
Q

What does NEWS stand for?

A

National Early Warning System
records pt vital signs and identifies ill patients

148
Q

What does SBAR stand for?

A

Situation
Background
Assessment
Recommendation

149
Q

What is pre-operative care?

A

care given before operation

150
Q

What is peri-operative care?

A

care under anaesthetic getting operation

151
Q

What is post-operative care?

A

care following operation

152
Q

What is the best form of maintenance fluid therapy?

A

0.18% saline with 4% dextrose with or without potassium (20-40mmol.L) based on 1ml/kg/hour

153
Q

What does ABCDE stand for?

A

Airway
Breathing
Circulation
Disability
Exposure

154
Q

What is acute abdomen?

A

intra-abdominal pathology with rapid onset of severe abdominal pain but can be painless, usually requiring emergency surgery, caused by acute disease of or injury to the internal organs

155
Q

Name five common causes of acute abdomen

A

1) appendicitis
2) pancreatitis
3) adhesions
4) chloecystitis
5) gastric ulcer

156
Q

What is appendicitis?

A

inflammation of the appendix commonly caused by an obstruction

157
Q

What causes appendicitis?

A

various infections such as virus, bacteria, or parasites, in your digestive tract.
or tube that joins your large intestine and appendix is blocked or trapped by stool (faecolith)

158
Q

How does appendicitis present?

A

right ileac fossa pain
anorexia, pyrexia, nausea and vomiting, constipation or diarrhoea, tachycardia, Rovsing’s positive (pain on press of left ileal fossa causing pain on right ileal fossa)

159
Q

How is appendicitis treated?

A

NBM (nil by mouth)
analgesia
hydration
antibiotics
appendicectomy

160
Q

What are the causes of pancreatitis?

A

I GET SMASHED
Idiopathic
Gall stones
Ethanol (alcohol)
Trauma
Steroids
Mumps/malignancy
Autoimmune
Scorpion stings
Hypercalcaemia/hypertriglyceridemia
ERCP
Drugs

161
Q

What are the possible complications of pancreatitis?

A

fluid collections
pseudocyst formation
necrosis
abscess
haemorrhage

162
Q

What is renal colic?

A

When a stone blocks the ureter (outflow of urine from kidney)

163
Q

What are the symptoms of renal colic?

A

flank pain - loin to groin
rigors, haematuria, reduced urine output, tachycardia, pyrexia

164
Q

What is acute cholecystitis?

A

inflammation of the gall bladder

165
Q

What are the symptoms of acute cholecystitis?

A

right upper quadrant pain
fever and tachycardia
Murphy’s positive
deranged liver function tests

166
Q

What are the causes and symptoms of small bowel obstruction?

A

vomiting, pain
caused by adhesion from previous abdominal surgery, hernia, cancerous lesion

167
Q

What are the symptoms and causes of large bowel obstruction?

A

abdominal distension and absolute constipation
caused mainly by malignancy

168
Q

What are the three classifications of pain?

A

1) somatic - body wall or surface
2) visceral - internal organs
3) neuropathic - spinal cord or peripheral nerves

169
Q

Post-operative pain is likely to be what kind of pain?

A

somatic pain with or without visceral pain

170
Q

What kind of medication is aspirin?

A

anti-platelet

171
Q

What condition is diclofenac contraindicated in?

A

cardiovascular disease

172
Q

How would a patient with opiate toxicity present?

A

reduced consciousness
pin-point pupils
hypotension
seizures
muscle spasms
cyanosis from respiratory depression

173
Q

How is a patient with opiate toxicity treated?

A

A-E approach
give Naloxone

174
Q

What three drugs can commonly cause constipation?

A

aspirin
anti-cholinergics
opiates

175
Q

What can electrolyte imbalances result in?

A

cardiac arrhythmia and death

176
Q

What can cause electrolyte imbalance?

A

prolonged vomiting, diarrhoea, or sweating, due to an illness

177
Q

Vomiting depletes the body’s levels of what?

A

water
HCl thus a hypochloremic alkalosis develops
potassium - hypokalaemia

178
Q

What is sepsis?

A

Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) with a presumed or known cause of infection

179
Q

Systemic inflammatory response syndrome is diagnosed when there are two or more of what 5 criteria?

A

1) temperature <36 >38
2) Heart rate >90bpm
3) respiratory rate >20bpm
4) WCC <4 or >12
5) blood glucose >7.7mmol/L in patient not known to have diabetes

180
Q

What are the “sepsis six” management techniques?

A

1) give high flow oxygen
2) take blood cultures
3) give IV antibiotics
4) give a fluid challenge
5) measure lactate
6) measure urine output

181
Q

What is a primary haemorrhage?

A

continuous bleeding which occurs during surgery

182
Q

What is a reactive haemorrhage?

A

bleeding appears stable until BP rises

183
Q

What is a secondary haemorrhage?

A

occurs 1-2 weeks post-operatively and usually due to infection

184
Q

What is the treatment for a major haemorrhage?

A

require blood, fresh frozen plasma, platelets with or without reversal agents

185
Q

What are the signs of a thrombus?

A

swollen calf
warm/tender calf
pitting oedema
erythema

186
Q

What is a pulmonary embolism?

A

sudden obstruction of a pulmonary artery or one of its branches, caused by a blood-borne clot or foreign material that plugs the vessel

187
Q

What are the symptoms of pulmonary embolism?

A

shortness of breath
pleuritic chest pain
dizziness

188
Q

What are the signs of pulmonary embolism?

A

pyrexia, reduced lung sounds, sinus tachycardia, ECG changes

189
Q

What is the external ear?

A

skin-lined tube which allows conduction of sound to tympanic membrane

190
Q

What is the middle ear?

A

air-filled space that contains the malleus, incus and stapes and is linked to the nasopharynx by the eustachian tube

191
Q

What is the inner ear?

A

cochlea - area where sound is interpreted and 3 semi-circular canals are immediately adjacent

192
Q

Why is the facial nerve sometimes affected by ear infection?

A

it comes through the area of temporal bone nearby

193
Q

If the semi-circular canals of the ear are infected, what can a patient present with?

A

balance disorder, feel like the room is spinning

194
Q

What can a pathology of the facial nerve from ear infection present as?

A

lower motor neurone facial weakness with weakness of all branches of the facial nerve (to forehead, eye, mouth, platysma)

195
Q

What are the five sources of referred pain?

A

Teeth
Tongue
Tonsils
Those with cancer of pharynx/larynx
Temporomandibular joint

196
Q

What are the common signs of ear infection?

A

discharge, pathology of skin, hearing loss, balance disorder, flicking movements of eye (labyrinthine vertigo), facial palsy

197
Q

What dental presentation can be seen when there is a nasal tumour?

A

tooth becoming loose for no obvious reason

198
Q

What is a dental consideration regarding the facial sinuses?

A

proximity of maxillary tooth roots to the maxillary sinus - roots can protrude into maxillary sinus cavity and dental pathology can present with a sinus-related issue

199
Q

What is a hole made through dental work between the mouth and the maxillary sinus called?

A

oroantral communication

200
Q

What are candidal white patches often secondary to?

A

inhaled steroids - inhalers

201
Q

What is angular stomatitis?

A

common inflammatory skin condition caused by Candida. It affects one or both corners of your mouth and causes irritated, cracked sores.

202
Q

What is lichen planus?

A

white patches predominantly seen on the buccal mucosa.

203
Q

What can one-sided throat pain and difficulty swallowing be a manifestation of?

A

cancer in tonsils or tongue-based area

204
Q

What are the three common pathologies of the throat?

A

1) infection
2) cancer - often unilateral
3) throat pain

205
Q

What is the larynx?

A

voice box

206
Q

What is stridor?

A

noisy breathing that occurs due to obstructed air flow through a narrowed airway

207
Q

Is stridor worse on inspiration or expiration?

A

inspiration, sounds coarse

208
Q

Is a wheeze worse on inspiration or expiration?

A

expiration, high pitched, more musical

209
Q

What can a change in voice quality in a smoker be a manifestation of?

A

early cancer on vocal cords

210
Q

Why may people using inhaled steroids experience voice change?

A

muscle atrophy, candida in area

211
Q

Are painful or painless swellings of lymph nodes more concerning?

A

painless

212
Q

Cancer of the tonsil or tongue area can often be associated with what virus?

A

HPV - human papillomavirus

213
Q

What are branchial cysts?

A

asymptomatic mass on either the left or right side of the neck anywhere from the jaw to the clavicles, painless, embryological origin, benign

214
Q

Do thyroid masses move upon swallowing?

A

Yes

215
Q

What is a common cause of painful swelling of the parotid gland?

A

benign pleomorphic adenoma (firm marble) or Worphins tumour (benign, softer)

216
Q

What are the characteristics of cancer of the parotid gland?

A

subtle progression, grown larger, painful, tethering of skin, facial nerve palsy, relatively immobile

217
Q

Where can skin cancer, especially squamous cell carcinoma, metastasize to?

A

intra-parotid lymph glands and down neck

218
Q

How are neck lumps investigated?

A

ultrasound with fine needle aspiration

219
Q

What is acne vulgaris?

A

disorder of the philobaceous apparatus
peaks in adolescence
blackheads, papules, pustules, nodules, cysts, scars
psychological stress

220
Q

What is acne rosacea?

A

affects face of adults
flushing, erythema, telangiectasia (spider veins), pustules
assoc with conjunctivitis, blepharitis
may be triggered by spicy foods, alcohol, stress, temp, sun

221
Q

What is the difference between acne rosacea and acne vulgaris?

A

In acne vulgaris, the pore swells and becomes a whitehead. In rosacea, it’s less visible because the swelling occurs just beneath the skin.

222
Q

What is periorificial dermatitis?

A

common condiion manifesting as itchy red papules around mouth, nose, eyes
made worse by steroid creams

223
Q

What is impetigo caused by and what are the features?

A

caused by streptococci and staphylococci
contagious, exudate and yellow crusting
may blister, trigger glomerulonephritis

224
Q

What is furunculosis?

A

deep infection of the hair follicle leading to abscess formation with accumulation of pus and necrotic tissue.
Usually s.aureus

225
Q

What is erysipelas?

A

form of cellulitis, Gp A beta streptococcus
spreading red edge, sharp line of demarcation
face or extremity
discomfort, fever, malaise

226
Q

What are viral warts caused by and where do they occur?

A

HPV
common in beard area of men

227
Q

What is molluscum contagiosum?

A

DNA pox virus
umbilicated papules, may become secondarily infected

228
Q

What type of HSV can present with facial lesions?

A

type I

229
Q

What do HSV facial lesions present with in children?

A

acute gingivo-stomatitis, fever, malaise

230
Q

What can recurrences of HSV facial lesions be triggered by?

A

menstruation, stress, UV

231
Q

How are HSV facial lesions treated?

A

antiseptics, antivirals (aciclovir, valciclovir?

232
Q

What is herpes zoster and what are the features of it?

A

“shingles” - reactivation of chicken pox virus
increased risk in elderly and immunosuppressed
burning pain, erythema, crusting

233
Q

What is hand, foot and mouth?

A

Coxsackie A virus
vesicles with red halo on hands and feet, erosions in mouth
resolves within 2 weeks

234
Q

What are the oral manifestations of hand, foot and mouth?

A

erosions in the mouth

235
Q

What is a dermatophyte and what do they cause?

A

fungi that require keratin for growth
ringworm, tinea

236
Q

What is candida and how does it present orally?

A

fungal infection
produces white plaques within the mouth and on the tongue
contributes to angular stomatitis

237
Q

What are the symptoms of acute eczema?

A

red, swollen, papules, vesicles

238
Q

What are the symptoms of chronic eczema?

A

scaly, pigmented, thickened, accentuated skin markings

239
Q

What is atopic eczema?

A

common skin condition that causes patches of skin that are itchy, cracked and sore. genetic predisposition, appears in first year of life

240
Q

What is Seborrhoeic eczema?

A

likely caused by an overgrowth of yeast
affects scalp, face, presternal area, flexures, back
role of stress, consider immunosuppression

241
Q

What is contact dermatitis?

A

dermatitis caused by contact with something in the environment

242
Q

What are the two forms of contact dermatitis?

A

allergic contact dermatitis
irritant contact dermatitis

243
Q

What are come wet and dry causes of irritant contact dermatitis?

A

wet - water/wet work, degreasing agents, detergents, solvents
dry - dust, friction, low humidity, heat

244
Q

What is the difference between allergic contact dermatitis and irritant contact dermatitis?

A

Irritant CD is a nonspecific skin response to direct chemical skin damage and/with releasing inflammatory mediators, while allergic CD is a delayed hypersensitivity reaction (type IV) to allergens

245
Q

What is a basal cell carcinoma?

A

Cancer that begins in the lower part of the epidermis (the outer layer of the skin). Mainly sun exposed sites

246
Q

What are the features of a basal cell carcinoma?

A

slow growing, raised, pearly edge, telangiectasia, central ulceration, locally invasive and do not metastasize

247
Q

What are the treatment options for basal cell carcinoma?

A

surgical - excision
non-surgical - cryotherapy, PDT, imiquimod

248
Q

What is Bowen’s disease?

A

intra-epidermal SCC, mostly on lower legs of elderly females

249
Q

What is the danger of a squamous cell carcinoma?

A

they can metastasize

250
Q

What are the risk factors for malignant melanoma?

A

FH
number of moles
excess sun exposure
sunbed use
multiple sunburns
skintype
immunosuppression

251
Q

What should you look for when trying to recognise photodermatitis?

A

sparing of sun-protected areas e.g. under chin, under collar

252
Q

What is psoriasis?

A

chronic non-inflammatory disease of the skin
well demarcated, scaly plaques

253
Q

What is the appearance of lichen planus on skin, in the mouth and how can it develop?

A

itchy, violaceous flat-topped papules on wrists and legs, white streaky pattern on surface of papule
white asymptomatic lacy reticulate streaks in mouth
rare ulcerative form can lead to malignancy

254
Q

What is actinic keratoses?

A

pre-cancerous lesions on sun-damaged skin, may be single or multiple

255
Q

What is the maximum adult paracetamol dosage?

A

4g in 24hrs
>75mg/kg in 24hrs

256
Q

What is the definition of an acute overdose?

A

excessive ingestion over a period of <1 hour in the context of self harm

257
Q

What is the definition of a staggered overdose?

A

excessive ingestion over >1 hour in the context of treating pain (therapeutic overdose)

258
Q

At what dosage of paracetamol is serious toxicity likely to occur?

A

> 150mg/kg in 24hrs

259
Q

At what dosage of paracetamol is likely toxicity indicated?

A

> 75mg/kg in 24hrs

260
Q

How does glutathione deficiency impact risk of hepatotoxicity with paracetamol?

A

glutathione is an antioxidant which binds a toxic metabolite of paracetamol which is then excreted. Decreased levels result in higher risk of liver injury secondary to paracetamol excess

261
Q

What patients are at risk of glutathione deficiency?

A
  • malnourishment (fasting for more than a day) - eating disorders, anorexia, bulimia
  • psychiatric disorders
  • chronic disease (HIV, CF, liver disease)
  • alcohol use disorder
262
Q

What drugs can increase risk of liver injury secondary to paracetamol excess?

A

cytochrom P450 inducers including
- antiepileptics - carbamazepine, phenytoin
- barbiturates - phenobarbital, primidone
- antibiotics - rifampicin, rifabutin
- anti-retrovirals
- St John’s wort

263
Q

What is the presentation of therapeutic paracetamol excess?

A

mostly asymptomatic or mild GI symptoms initially
within 24hrs: nausea, vomiting, abdomen pain
acute liver injury 2-3 days: RUQ abdominal pain, jaundice, hepatomegaly, reduced GCS, loin pain

264
Q

What is liver damage secondary to paracetamol excess directly proportional to?

A

the amount of paracetamol ingested

265
Q

Which patients regarding paracetamol excess should be referred to hospital?

A

1) symptomatic patients
2) more than licensed daily dose AND more than or equal to 75mg/kg
3) more than daily dose but <75mg/kg on each of the preceding 2 or more days

266
Q

What is the maximum recommended daily dose of paracetamol in a normal adult?

A

4g

267
Q

What are two main signs and symptoms of paracetamol overdose within the first 24-36hrs?

A

nausea and vomiting
abdominal pain

268
Q

What are high risk groups for glutathione deficiency?

A

alcoholism
eating disorders
starvation/malnourished
HIV
Cystic fibrosis

269
Q

What drugs increase the risk of liver injury in the case of paracetamol excess?

A

phenobarbital
St John’s Wort
Carbamazepine
Rifampicin
Phenytoin
Primidone

270
Q

Who is appropriate to contact if you need advice regarding paracetamol overdose?

A

local A&E department

271
Q

How would you treat an emergency dental patient who you have identified as having overdosed?

A

do not proceed dental treatment, send patient to A&E immediately

272
Q

What happens in an allergic reaction?

A

mast cells release histamine which triggers allergy symptoms such as itchy eyes, runny nose etc

273
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis?

A

sudden onset and rapid progression
airway and/or breathing and/or circulation problems
skin and/or mucosal changes (flushing, urticaria, angioedema)

274
Q

Describe the symptoms seen during anaphylaxis for each of the ABCDE assessments

A

A - stridor, wheezing
B - increased RR, decreased SpO2, rapid shallow
C - drastically decreased BP due to vasodilation, increased CRT, tachycardia, bounding pulse
D - ACVPU - alert but impending sense of doom
E - flushing, urticarial rash, angioedema of lips, nose, tongue, stomach cramps, urinary incontinence, bowel incontinence, vomiting, nausea

275
Q

Explain the management stages of anaphylaxis

A

Phone 999 and state anaphylaxis
remove source if known
try to lay pt in supine position to restore BP
administer 1:1000 adrenaline IM. 0.5mg (1mg/ml) recommended in anterolateral thigh
oxygen - 15L/min via non re-breather mask
repeat after 5 mins if required

276
Q

What are the children’s dosages for adrenaline to treat anaphylaxis?

A

6mths-5yrs: 0.15mg
6-11yrs: 0.3mg
12-17yrs: 0.5mg
administer IM

277
Q

Why is adrenaline used to treat anaphylaxis?

A

it is a vaso-constrictor so squeezes peripheral vessels to ensure that blood and fluid are forced back towards the heart. This should increase BP and angioedema should decrease significantly

278
Q

What is generalised anxiety described as and characterised by?

A

“free-floating anxiety” - anxious without a specific trigger
apprehension, motor tension, autonomic overactivity e.g. pre-exam increased HR, breathing rate

279
Q

What are the characteristics of phobias and what are they classed as?

A

anxiety disorder
only arises in context of specific situation/object
avoidance

280
Q

What are the treatment options for anxiety disorders?

A

psychological/psychotherapy - cognitive behavioural therapy
pharmacological

281
Q

What are the characteristics of depressive disorder?

A

depressed mood, loss of interest/enjoyment, fatigue
cognitions - guilt, hopelessness, worthless, lack of concentration, poor self-esteem
somatic effects - appetite, sleep, libido
suicidal ideations/intent

282
Q

How is depressive disorder managed?

A

non-pharmacological - psychology/psychotherapy e.g. CBT
pharmacological - anti-depressants
ECT - electro-compulsive therapy

283
Q

What is bipolar affective disorder characterised by?

A

hypomania/mania/psychosis
mood increases, talkativeness increases, grandiosity
energy, irritability, activity, self-esteem increase
sleep and appetite decrease
depression
episodic

284
Q

How is bipolar affective disorder managed?

A

mood stabilisers - lithium, sodium valproate
antipsychotics - quetiapine, aripiprazole
antidepressants
ECT

285
Q

What is psychosis?

A

inability to distinguish between internal world and external reality
delusions (thinking), hallucinations (sensory), insight impaired

286
Q

What are five causes of psychosis?

A

1) dementia
2) alcohol/substance abuse
3) schizophrenia
4) depression
5) mania

287
Q

What are the characteristics of schizophrenia?

A

early onset in life
psychosis
functional decline in personal, professinoal and social domains
fractured sense of self
bewilderment
distress

288
Q

How is schizophrenia managed?

A

antipsychotic medication - chlorpromazine, olanzapine, risperidone, clozapine, depot
ECT

289
Q

What is dementia?

A

umbrella term for illnesses leading to cognitive decline, degenerative, insidious onset over months/years, affecting memory and cognition
e.g. Alzheimer’s, Vascular D, Frontotemporal D

290
Q

What is delirium?

A

acute confusional state
delirium tremens - alcohol withdrawal
caused by triggers like Dehydration and electrolyte imbalance, Infections, such as urinary tract infections, organ failure

291
Q

How is delirium treated?

A

treat underlying cause

292
Q

Why do many mental issues have a dental impact?

A

self neglect - dental problems

293
Q

What are the characteristics of anorexia nervosa and what is the dental relevance?

A

body weight decrease, self induced, avoidance of “fattening” foods, self-induced vomiting and other purging, body image distortion, excessive exercise, loss of menstruation
self vomiting - affect on teeth

294
Q

What is bulimia nervosa?

A

preoccupation with weight, bouts of overeating/purging and anorexia nervosa type cognitions

295
Q

What is body dysmorphic disorder?

A

cognitive error, delusion of appearance

296
Q

What is somatoform disorder and how does it have a dental relevance?

A

a mental health condition that causes an individual to experience physical bodily symptoms in response to psychological distress. Patients can have inexplicable dental symptoms, freq attendance, request treatment

297
Q

What are two drugs that commonly interact with metronidazole?

A

alcohol
Warfarin

298
Q

What are six common interacting drugs with macrolide antibiotics (erythromycin, clarithromycin)?

A

Calcium channel blockers - amlodipine
Carbamazepine
Ciclosporin
Statins - atorvastatin
Warfarin
Theophylline (asthma, COPD)

299
Q

What are three drugs that commonly interact with azole antifungals (fluconazole, miconazole)?

A

Statins
Warfarin
Theophylline

300
Q

What are 7 types of drugs that commonly interact with NSAIDs (ibuprofen, diclofenac, naproxen)?

A

Antihypertensives - beta blockers,ACE inhibitors, diuretics
Anticoagulants - warfarin, dabigatran
Aspirin
Lithium
Methotrexate
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs - fluoxetine)
Systemic corticosteroids - prednisolone

301
Q

What are 6 types of drugs that commonly interact with aspirin?

A

Alcohol
Clopidogrel
NSAIDs - ibuprofen, diclofenac
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs - fluoxetine)
Systemic corticosteroids - prednisolone
Warfarin

302
Q

Describe the emergency management of a patient with anaphylaxis

A

assess
999
lay back elevate feet
remove source
15L/min 100% oxygen
adrenaline 0.5ml (1:1000) IM injection after 5 mins
if cardiac arrest follows BLS

303
Q

What dosage of adrenaline should be given to an adult in anaphylaxis?

A

0.5ml (1:1000) IM injection

304
Q

What are the childrens dosages of adrenaline for managing anaphylaxis?

A

6mths-5yrs: 0.15ml
6yrs-11yrs: 0.3ml
12-17yrs: 0.5ml

305
Q

What is classed as life threatening asthma?

A

resp rate <8bpm
HR <50bpm

306
Q

What is classed as acute severe asthma?

A

resp rate >25bpm
HR: >110bpm

307
Q

What is the management of an asthmatic attack?

A

salbutamol inhaler - 1 puff every 30-60secs up to 10 puffs
999
15L/min oxygen through non-rebreather mask
repeat salbutamol after 10 mins if no change
sit upright, lean forward

308
Q

What is the management of an epileptic seizure?

A

move any objects that can cause harm
do not restrain
time the seizure - >5min = status epilepticus
10mg midazolam buccally (2ml of 5mg/ml)
999
oxygen - 15L/min through non-rebreather mask
monitor

309
Q

What are the children’s dosages of midazolam to be administered in epileptic seizures?

A

6mths-11mths: 2.5mg
1-4yrs: 5mg
5-9yrs: 7.5mg
10-17yrs: 10mg

310
Q

How much midazolam is administered to an adult in an epileptic seizure and what volume is this?

A

10mg
2ml of 5mg/ml solution

311
Q

What is the concentration of midazolam to be administered in children?

A

5mg/5ml

312
Q

How is hypoglycaemia managed?

A

oxygen - 15L/min
if conscious - 10-20g oral glucose (repeat every 15min if required)
if unconscious - 1mg glucagon IM injection
999
regain consciousness - administer more glucose to replenish reserves

313
Q

How much glucagon is administered to an unconscious patient having a hypoglycaemic attack?

A

1mg glucagon IM

314
Q

How much glucagon is given to an unconscious child having a hypoglycaemic attack?

A

<25kg = 0.5mg
>25kg = 1.0mg

315
Q

How is angina and myocardial infarction managed?

A

oxygen - 15L/min
2 puffs GTN (400mg) sublingually, repeat after 3 mins if pain remains, if alleviates = angina
pain remains
999
300mg dispersible aspirin
monitor

316
Q

How much GTN spray should be administered in angina?

A

2 puffs sublingually (400mg), repeat after 3 mins if pain remains

317
Q

How much aspirin should be administered to a patient having a myocardial infarction?

A

300mg dispersible aspirin

3rd Year - Module 5 (12 decks)

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