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Human Anatomy > Human Anatomy Midterm Flashcards > Flashcards

Human Anatomy Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two parts of the long bone?

A

Diaphysis and epiphysis

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2
Q

What 5 parts make up the long bone?

A

Medullary cavity, compact bone, epiphyseal plate, endosteum, and the periosteum

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3
Q

What is the medullary cavity?

A

A hollow region in the diaphysis and is filled with yellow marrow

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4
Q

What is compact bone

A

The walls of diaphysis and is dense and hard

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5
Q

What is the epiphyseal plate

A

A layer of hyaline (transparent) cartilage in a growing bone and becomes an epiphyseal line when a person stops growing

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6
Q

What is endosteum

A

The lining of the medullary cavity and where bone growth, repair, and remodelling occur

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7
Q

What is periosteum

A

The covering of the outer surface of bone and contains blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatic vessels/ attachment of tendons and ligaments

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8
Q

What is the difference between the epiphyseal line and the epiphyseal plate

A

The epiphyseal plate is a layer of hyaline cartilage in a growing bone. The epiphyseal line is when the epiphyseal plate is replaced/ closed when a person stops growing

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9
Q

What is an osteon

A

They are cylindrical vascular tunnels by an osteoclast-rich tissue (Haversian system)

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10
Q

What is the difference between yellow marrow and red marrow

A

Red marrow contains stem cells that turn into RBC, WBC, and platelets. Yellow marrow is mostly made of fat

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11
Q

What are the 5 types of bones by shape

A

Long bones, Short bones, Flat bones, Irregular bones, Sesamoid bones

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12
Q

What are the characteristics of long bones

A

-cylindrical in shape
-longer than it is wide
-shaft and two ends
-found in arms, legs, finger and toes

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13
Q

What kind of bone is this

A

Long bone

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14
Q

What kind of bone is this

A

Short bone

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15
Q

What kind of bone is this

A

Flat bone

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16
Q

What are the characteristics of a short bone

A

-cube like in shape
-approximately equal in length, width and thickness
-found in carpals of wrists and tarsals of ankles

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17
Q

What are the characteristics of flat bones

A

-typically thin
-often curved
-found in skull, scapulae, sternum, ribs

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18
Q

What kind of bone is this

A

Irregular bone

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19
Q

What are the characteristics of irregular bones

A

-does not have any easily characterized shape
-complex shapes
-found in vertebrae and facial bones

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20
Q

What kind of bone is this

A

Sesamoid bone

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21
Q

What are the characteristics of a sesamoid bone

A

-small, round bone
-shaped like a sesame seed
-form in tendons
-found in tendons associated with the feet, hands, and knees

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22
Q

What kind of fracture is this and how do you know

A

Transverse : occurs straight across the long axis of the bone

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23
Q

What kind of fracture is this and how do you know

A

Oblique: occurs at an angle that is not 90 degrees

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24
Q

What kind of fracture is this and how do you know

A

Spiral: bone segments are pulled apart as a result of a twisting motion

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25
Q

What kind of fracture is this and how do you know

A

Comminuted: several breaks result in many small pieces between two large segments

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26
Q

What kind of fracture is this and how do you know

A

Compacted: one fragment is driven into the other,usually as a result of compression

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27
Q

What kind of fracture is this and how do you know

A

Greenstick: a partial fracture in which only one side of the bone is broken

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28
Q

What kind of fracture is this and how do you know

A

Open/ compound: a fracture in which at least one end of the broken bone tears through the skin, Carries high risk of infection

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29
Q

What kind of fracture is this and how do you know

A

Closed/simple: a fracture in which the skin remains intact

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30
Q

What are the 4 types of bone cells

A

-osteocyte
-osteoblast
-osteogenic cell
-osteoclast

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31
Q

What is the function of this bone cell and what is its function

A

Osteocyte; Maintains bone tissue

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32
Q

What is the function of this bone cell and what is its function

A

Osteoblast; forms bone matrix

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33
Q

What is the function of this bone cell and what is its function

A

Osteogenic cell; stem cell

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34
Q

What is the function of this bone cell and what is its function

A

Osteoclast; resorbs bone

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35
Q

What are the 5 regions of the vertebrae

A

-cervical
-thoracic
-lumbar
-sacral
-coccyeal

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36
Q

What section is the cervical region of the vertebral column and what is the function?

A

C1-C7
Atlas (C1): supports the skull, no body
Axis (C2): for head rotation and dens (odontoid process)

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37
Q

What section is the Thoracic region of the vertebral column and what is the function?

A

T1-T12
-Where ribs are attached
-articulation with head or rib and tubercle of rib

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38
Q

What section is the lumbar region of the vertebral column and what is the function?

A

L1-L5
-Carries greatest amount of body weight

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39
Q

What are sutures

A

They are immobile joints between adjacent bones

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40
Q

What are the 5 sutures

A

-coronal
-sagittal
-lamboid
-squamous
-pterion

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41
Q

What suture connects the parietal and frontal bone

A

coronal

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42
Q

What suture connects the two parietal bones

A

sagittal

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43
Q

what suture connects the two parietal bones to the occipital bone

A

lamboid

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44
Q

What suture connects the parietal bones to the temporal bones

A

squamous

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45
Q

What suture connects the sphenoid, frontal, parietal, and squamous temporal bones

A

pterion

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46
Q

what are the 8 different keystone facial bones?

A

-maxillary bones (2)
-palatine bones (2)
-zygomatic bones (2)
-nasal bones (2)
-lacrimal bones (2)
-inferior nasal conchae (2)
-vomer
-mandible

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47
Q

what are the 6 keystone cranial bones

A

-parietal bone (2)
-temporal bone (2)
-frontal bone
-occipital bone
-sphenoid bone
-ethmoid bone

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48
Q

what is the function of the sacrum

A

Strengthen and stabilizes the pelvis

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49
Q

what is the function of the coccyx

A

Provides stability and balance when one is seated

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50
Q

What are the 3 different types of ribs

A

-true ribs (1-7)
-false ribs (8-10)
-floating ribs (11-12)

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51
Q

What are the 5 parts of the sternum

A

-manubrium
-jugular
-clavicular notch
-sternal angle
-xiphoid process

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52
Q

What is an intervetebral disc/ what is the purpose

A

-Provides padding and allows for movements between adjacent vartebrae
-fibrous outer layer is called the anulus fibrosus
-gel like center called nucleus pulposus
-intervertebral foramen is the opening formed between adjacent vertebrae for the exit of a spinal nerve

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53
Q

Name this vertebral abnormality

A

Scoliosis

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54
Q

Name this vertebral abnormality

A

Kyphosis

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55
Q

Name this vertebral abnormality

A

Lordosis

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56
Q

What makes up the axial skeleton

A

-80 bones
-skull
-vertebral column
-thoracic cage

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57
Q

What 7 bones make up the cranium and which one is mobile?

A

-2 parietal bones
-2 temporal bones
-frontal bone
-occipital bone
-spheniod bone
-ethmoid bone
-mandible (mobile)

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58
Q

Where is the styloid process located

A

It is located on the temporal bone on the cranium

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59
Q

Which bone allows you to nod and to shake your head?

A

the occipital bone allows you to nod, and the atlas bone allows you to shake your head.

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60
Q

What is the most commonly fractured and dislocated wrist bone

A

The distal radius bone

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61
Q

What makes up the pelvic girdle

A

-ilium
-ischium
-pubis

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62
Q

What two bones make up the shoulder girdle

A

-Clavicles
-Scapulae

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63
Q

What is the difference between a male and female pelvis

A

-females are thinner and lighter, males are thicker and heavier
-female pelvic inlet has a round/oval shape, male pelvic inlet is heart-shaped
-female lesser pelvic cavity is shower and wider, male lesser pelvic cavity is longer and narrower
-female subpubic angle is >80 degrees, male subpubic angle is <70 degrees
-Female pelvic outlet is rounded and larger, male pelvic outlet is smaller

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64
Q

What 4 bones make up the fingers

A

-distal
-middle
-proximal
-pollex (thumb)

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65
Q

What 8 bones make up the wrist

A

-trapezium
-trapezoid
-scaphoid
-hamate
-capitate
-pisiform
-triquetrum
-lunate

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66
Q

what bones make up the forearm and where are there location in anatomical position

A

-ulna, the medial bone
-radius, lateral side of arm

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67
Q

What are the 3 margins of the scapula

A

-superior border
-medial border
-lateral border

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68
Q

What are the 3 regions of the clavicles

A

-medial end
-lateral end
-shaft

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69
Q

What are the weight bearing bones of the lower extremities

A

-Femur
-Tibia
-Fibula

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70
Q

What 7 bones make up the ankle

A

-calcaneus
-talus
-cuboid
-navicular
-medial cuneiform
-intermediate cuneiform
-lateral cuneiform

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71
Q

What is the deltoid tuberosity?

A

The part of the humerus that attaches to the deltoid muscle. Also attaches to the humerus, clavicle, and scapula

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72
Q

What is a colles fracture

A

a fracture in the radius close to the wrist

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73
Q

What makes up the appendicular skeleton

A

-upper and lower limb bones
-both hands and feet
-bones that anchor the limbs to the axial skeleton

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74
Q

Give an example of flexion

A

-putting head down
-moving arm up
-bending knee back

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75
Q

Give an example of extension

A

-moving arm back
-bending head back
-moving leg to standing position from bending knee back

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76
Q

Give an example of abduction

A

-moving arm out from body

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77
Q

Give an example of adduction

A

-moving arm towards body

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78
Q

Give an example of circumduction

A

arm circles

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79
Q

Give an example of roation

A

-shaking head
-looking left/right

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80
Q

give an example of supination

A

-when you move your forearm so that your palms are facing upward/foreward

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81
Q

Give an example of pronation

A

-when you move your forearm so that your palms are facing backwards/downwards

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82
Q

Give an example of dorsiflexion

A

-pointing toes up towards shin

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83
Q

Give an example of plantar flexion

A

-pointing toes down away from shin

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84
Q

Give an example of protraction

A
  • moving lower jaw outwards (underbite)
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85
Q

Give an example of retraction

A

-moving your jaw inwards

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86
Q

Give an example of depression

A

-opening your mouth

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87
Q

Give an example of elevation

A

-closing your mouth

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88
Q

Give an example of lateral excursion

A

-moving jaw left to right

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89
Q

Give an example of medial excursion

A

moving jaw to the middle from the left/right

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90
Q

Give an example of superior rotation in the scapula

A

raising arms/shoulders

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91
Q

Give an example of inferior rotation in the scapula

A

rolling shoulders down and back

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92
Q

Give an example of opposition

A

touching thumb and pointer finger together

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93
Q

Give an example of reposition

A

opening hand from a fist

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94
Q

What is amphiathrosis

A

-limited mobility
-ex: cartilaginous joint that unites bodies of adjacent vertebrae
-pubic symphysis of the pelvis, right and left hip bones are anchored to each other

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95
Q

what is synarthroses

A

-immobile or nearly immobile joint
-ex: sutures/ fibrous joints between the bones of the skull
-manubriosternal joint/cartilaginous joint that unites manubrium and sternum

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96
Q

What kind of joint is a diarthosis joint and what 3 categories are they divided into

A

-synovial joints of the body
-divided into uniaxial, biaxial, and multiaxial
-ex: ball and socket joint in hip

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97
Q

What is TMJ and what is the function

A

TMJ is temporomandibular joint and it
-allows for opening, closing, and moving jaw left to right
-articulation between mandibular fossa and articular tubercle of the temporal bone, with head/condyle of mandible

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98
Q

what kind of joint does the hip form

A

ball and socket joint (hip joint)

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99
Q

What kind of joint forms inbetween the radius and carpal bones of the wrist

A

condyloid joint

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100
Q

What kind of joint forms between the tarsal bones

A

plane joint

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101
Q

what kind of joint forms between the trapezium carpal bone and the first metacarpal bone

A

saddle joint

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102
Q

what kind of joint does the elbow form

A

hinge joint

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103
Q

what kind of joint forms between the C1 and C2 vertebrae

A

pivot joint

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104
Q

What are the 3 structural classifications of joints

A

-fibrous
-cartilaginous
-synovial

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105
Q

What are 3 functional classifications of joints and how are they determined

A

-synarthrosis (immobile)
-amphiarthrosis (slightly moveable)
-diarthrosis (freely moveable)
they are determined by the amount of mobillity

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106
Q

What kind of joints are uniaxial

A

-pivot
-hinge

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107
Q

What kind of joints are biaxial

A

-condyloid
-saddle

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108
Q

what kind of joints are multiaxial

A

-plane
-ball-and-socket

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109
Q

what is the difference between inversion and eversion

A

inversion is when you stand on the outside of your foot, while eversion is when the sole of your foot faces outwards

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110
Q

What is the difference between dorsiflexion and plantarflexion

A

dorsiflexion is when you point your toes up towards shin, plantar flexion is when you point your toes down/away from shin

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111
Q

what ligaments in the knee are commonly injured

A

the anterior cruciate ligament and the tibial (medial) collateral ligament

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112
Q

what are the 4 structures of the synovial joint

A

-articular capsule
-articular cartilage
-synovial membrane
-synovial fluid

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113
Q

what injury can occur when there is a force applied on the lateral aspect of the knee

A

a torn anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)

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114
Q

What are fontanelles and what is their function

A

They are large areas in a fetal skull filled with fibrous connective tissue and allow continued growth of skull

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115
Q

What structure passes through the foramen magnum

A

Allows passage of spinal cord

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116
Q

What are the 6 levels of structural organization from smallest to largest?

A

-chemical
-cellular
-tissue
-organ
-organ system
-organismal level

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117
Q

What parts of the body are in the Integumentary system? And what are its functions?

A

-skin
-hair
-nails

-provides protection

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118
Q

What parts of the body are in the skeletal system and what is the function?

A

-bones

-provides support, protection, and nutrients

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119
Q

What parts of the body are apart of the muscular system and what is its function?

A

-skeletal muscle
-cardiac muscle
-smooth muscle

-provides movement

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120
Q

What parts of the body are in the nervous system and what is its function?

A

-brain
-spinal cord
-nerves

-provides communication

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121
Q

What parts of the body are apart of the endocrine system and what is its function?

A

-glands

-provides communication between organs

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122
Q

What parts of the body are part of the cardiovascular system and what is its function?

A

-heart
-arteries
-capillaries
- blood

-delivers oxygen and nutrients throughout the body

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123
Q

What parts of the body are part of the lymphatic system and what is its function?

A

-lymph nodes

-cleans “debris” from body

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124
Q

What parts of the body are part of the respiratory system and what is its function

A

-lungs

-it is the site of gas exchange such as CO2 and O2

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125
Q

What parts of the body are part of the digestive system and and what is its function

A

-stomach
-intestines

-breaks down food

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126
Q

What parts of the body are part of the urinary system and what is its function?

A

-kidney
-bladder

-excretes wastes

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127
Q

What parts of the body are in the reproduction system and what is its function?

A

-testes
-ovaries
-etc.

-reproduction

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128
Q

What are the 11 systems in the body

A

-integumentary
-skeletal
-muscular
-nervous
-endocrine
-cardiovascular
-lymphatic
-respiratory
-digestive
-urinary
-reproductive

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129
Q

What is the anatomical position

A

-reference point for anatomical directions
-head looking straight forward
-palms pointing forward
-feet pointing forward, shoulder-width apart

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130
Q

How many abdominal regions are there

A

9

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131
Q

How many abdominal quadrants are there

A

4

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132
Q

What 7 organs are in the upper right quadrant

A

-liver
-gallbladder
-large intestine
-small intestine
-stomach
-pancreas
-right kidney

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133
Q

What 6 organs are in the Left upper quadrant

A

-spleen
-stomach
-pancreas
-left kidney
-upper part of the colon
-a small part of the liver

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134
Q

What organs are in the right lower quadrant

A

-parts of the small and large intestines
-right ovary
-right Fallopian tube
-appendix
-right ureter

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135
Q

What organs are in the Left lower quadrant

A

-ileum
-colon
-rectum
-left ureter
-left ovary
-left Fallopian tube

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136
Q

What is part of the dorsal body cavity

A

-cranial cavity
-spinal/vertebral cavity

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137
Q

What is part of the ventral body cavity

A
  • thoracic (pleural and mediastinum)
    -abdominal-pelvic
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138
Q

Cavities housing the eyes are called what

A

Orbital cavity

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139
Q

Histology would be best defined as the study of what

A

Tissues

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140
Q

An oblique cut is one that is cut how

A

Diagonally between vertical and horizontal planes

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141
Q

The anatomical position is characterized by all of the following except what

A. Thumbs pointed laterally
B. Palms turned posteriorly
C. Arms at side
D. Body erect

A

B. Palms turned posteriorly

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142
Q

Which of the following best describes the plasma membrane?

A. A phospholipid bilayer surrounding the cell
B. A membrane composed of tiny shelves or cristae
C. A single layer membrane that surrounds the nucleus of the cell
D. A double layer of protein enclosing the plasma

A

A. A phospholipid bilayer surrounding the cell

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143
Q

Once solid material is phagocytized and taken into a vacuole, which of the following statements best describes what happens?

A.The vacuole remains separated from the cytoplasm and the solid material persists unchaged
B. The phagocytized material is stored until further breakdown can occur
C. A lysosome combines with the vacuole and digests the enclosed solid material
D. A ribosome enters the vacuole and uses the amino acid in the “invader” to form new protein

A

C. A lysosome combines with the vacuole and digests the enclosed solid material

144
Q

What is mitosis?

A

The division of the nucleus

145
Q

What are the 3 planes of the body

A

-sagittal
-frontal/coronal
-transverse

146
Q

What does the sagittal plane divide?

A

Left and right sides of the body

147
Q

What does the coronal/frontal plane divide?

A

The front/anterior and the back/posterior part of the body

148
Q

What does the transverse plane divide?

A

The upper/superior and the lower/inferior part of the body

149
Q

what does proximal mean

A

it describes a part of a body closer to the head

150
Q

What does distal mean?

A

it describes a part of a body that is farther from the head

151
Q

What does medial mean

A

towards the torso

152
Q

What does lateral mean

A

away from the torso

153
Q

What is the cytoplasm

A

Material between the plasma and membrane of the nucleus

154
Q

What is an organelle and what is the function?

A

-carries out specific functions
-essential for normal cell functions

155
Q

What is the rough endoplasmic reticulum and what is its function?

A

-external surface covered in ribosomes
-contains fluid-filled cavities called cisternae
-Manufactures proteins secretes from cells
-helps to maintain plasma membrane

156
Q

What is the smooth endoplasmic reticulum and what is its function?

A

-facilitates reactions involved in:
*lipid metabolism, cholesterol synthesis
*synthesis of steroid-based hormones
*absorption, synthesis, transport of fats
*detoxification of drugs, carcinogens
*breakdown of glycogen to glucose

157
Q

What is the golgi apparatus and what is its function

A

-consists of stacked membranous sacs
-serves as “traffic director” for proteins
*function is to modify, concentrate and package proteins and lipids made at the RER
*Does not produce proteins
*associated intimately with RER

158
Q

What is the mitochondria and what is its function?

A

-“power plant” of the cell, provides most of the ATP supply
-enclosed by a double membrane
-matrix
-contains both DNA, RNA, and ribosomes

159
Q

What are ribosomes and what is the function

A

-Site of protein synthesis
-free ribosomes
*not bound to membranes
*make soluble proteins that will function in the cytosol
-membrane bound ribosomes
*bound to RER
*proteins will be exported from the cell

160
Q

What are lysosomes and what is its function?

A

-“disintegrator bodies”
-spherical sacs of digestive enzymes
*digests worn-out, nonfunctioning organelles
*breakdown non useful tissues and bone

161
Q

What are peroxisomes and what is its function?

A

-“peroxide bodies”
-membranous sacs containing enzymes
*oxidases and catalases
*help to detoxify harmful substances like alcohol
*clean up cellular meobolites

162
Q

What is the cytoskeleton and what is its function

A

-acts as the cells bones, muscles, and ligaments by supporting cells structure
-generates a variety of cell movements

163
Q

What are the 3 main classes of the cytoskeleton

A

-microfilaments
-microtubules
-intermediate filaments

164
Q

What is cilia and what is its function

A

-whiplike motile cellular extensions that occur on exposed surfaces of certain cells
-propel other substances across a cells surface

165
Q

What is flagella and what is its function

A

-projections formed by centrioles are substantially longer
-propells the cell itself

166
Q

What are basal bodies

A

-centrioles forming the bases of cilia and flagella

167
Q

What is the nucleus

A

-largest of the cellular organelles
-control center of the cell
-contains DNA

168
Q

What is mitosis

A

when one mother cell divides into two daughter cells

169
Q

What are the 4 phases of mitosis

A

-prophase
-metaphase
-anaphase
-telophase/cytokinesis

170
Q

What happens during prophase

A

-chromosomes condense and become visible
-spindle fibers emerge from the centromeres
-nuclear envelope breaks down
-centromeres move towards opposite poles

171
Q

What happens during prometaphase

A

-chromosomes continue to condense
-kinetochores appear at the centromeres
-mitotic spindles microtubules attach to kinetochores

172
Q

What happens during metaphase

A

-chromosomes line up at the metaphase plate
-each sister chromatid is attached to a spindle fiber originating from opposite poles

173
Q

what happens during anaphase

A

-centromeres split in two
-sister chromatids (now called chromosomes) are pulled towards opposite poles
-certain spindle fibers begin to elongate the cell

174
Q

what happens during telophase

A

-chromosomes arrive at opposite poles and begin to decondense
-nuclear envelope material surrounds each set of chromosomes
-the mitotic spindle breaks down
-spindle fibers continue to push poles apart

175
Q

what happens during cytokinesis

A

-Animal cells have a cleavage furrow separates the daughter cells
-plant cells have a cell plate, the precursor to a new cell wall and separates the daughter cells

176
Q

What are the 4 basic types of tissues

A

-Epithelial
-connective
-nervous
-muscle

177
Q

What makes up the basal lamina

A

thin glycoprotein layer from epithelial cells

178
Q

What makes up the basement membrane

A

basal lamina and the reticular lamina

179
Q

What are the 3 special characteristics of epithelial tissue

A

-polarity
-supported by connective tissue
-avascular but innervated

180
Q

How do you classify epithelia

A

-number of layers and cell shape

181
Q

what are the two names that describe the layer of epithelia tissue

A

-simple epithelia (one layer)
-stratified (many layers)

182
Q

What are the 3 names that describe the cell shape of epithelia tissue

A

-squamous (flat and scale like)
-cuboidal (box shaped)
-columnar (tall and column shaped)

183
Q

Describe simple squamous epithelium and where can it be found?

A

-thin an often permeable
-allows for filtration and absorption
-sometimes has secretory function

can be found in:
-kidneys
-lungs
-lining in heart
-blood vessels
-lymphatic vessels
-lining of ventral body cavity

184
Q

Describe simple cuboidal epithelium and where can it be found?

A

-tall and wide
-secretion and absorption

can be found in:
-kidney tubules
-ducts and secretory portions of small glands
-ovary

185
Q

Describe simple columnar epithelium and where can it be found?

A

-single layer of tall, closely packed cells
-secretion of mucus, etc.
-absorption
-propulsion

can be found in:
-lining of digestive tract
-excretory ducts of some glands
-small bronchi
-uterine tubes/uterus

186
Q

Describe pseudostratified columar and where can it be found?

A

-has the appearance of several layers because nuclei is at different heights; all have basal contact
-secretion
-propulsion of mucus

can be found in:
-trachea
-upper respiratory tract
-ducts of large glands
-sperm carrying ducts

187
Q

Describe stratified squamous epithelium and where can it be found?

A

-multiple layered flat cells
-protection
-abundant in areas under abrasion

can be found in:
-lining of mouth
-outer surface of the skin
-esophagus
-vagina

188
Q

Describe stratified cuboidal epithelium and where can it be found?

A

-forms large ducts of some glands

can be found in:
-sweat glands
-salivary glands
-mammary gland

189
Q

Describe stratified columnar epithelium and where can it be found?

A

-at transition areas, only apical layer of cells are columnar

can be found in:
-male urethra
-pharynx

190
Q

Describe transitional epithelium and where can it be found?

A

-has the ability to resist stretching forces

can be found in:
-urinary organs

191
Q

What are endocrine glands

A

-ductless
-produce hormones
-multicellular

192
Q

What are exocrine glands

A

-more numerous
-secrete products onto body surface/body cavities

193
Q

what are the 8 different types of exocrine glands

A

-simple alveolar
-simple branched alveolar
-simple tubular
-simple coiled tubular
-simple branched tubular
-compound alveolar
-compound tubuloalveolar
-compound tubular

194
Q

What are the 3 modes of glandular secretion

A

-merocrine
-apocrine
-holocrine

195
Q

What is merocrine secretion

A

the cell remains intact

196
Q

what is apocrine secretion

A

the apical portion of the cell is released

197
Q

what is holocrine secretion

A

the cell is destroyed as it releases it product and the cell itself becomes part of the secretion

198
Q

What kind of tissue is found everywhere and most widely distributed and abundant

A

connective tissue

199
Q

What are the 4 classes of connective tissue and their purposes

A

-connective tissue proper: binding and support
-cartilage: protection/rigidity to structures
-bone: insulation/protection
-blood: transportation

200
Q

Describe Loose connective tissue/adipose tissue

A

-made up of fat cells/adipocytes
-provides reserve food fuel
-insulates against heat loss
-protects organs

201
Q

What kind of tissue is this?

A

Loose connective tissue/ adipose tissue

202
Q

Describe loose connective reticular connective tissue

A

-resembles areolar connective tissue
-fibers for a soft internal skeleton that supports other cell types
-supports free blood cells in lymph nodes, bone marrow, spleen

203
Q

what kind of tissue is this

A

Loose connective tissue/reticular connective tissue

204
Q

Describe dense connective tissue dense regular

A

-contains closely packed bundles of collagen fibers
-fibers run in the same direction
-parallel to the direction of pull
-flexible structures, resistance to tension
-found in tendons, ligaments, aponeuroses, fascia

205
Q

What kind of tissue is this

A

Dense connective tissue: dense regular

206
Q

Describe dense connective tissue: dense irregular

A

-collagen fibers are more dense
-arranged irregularly; run in more than one plane
-resists tension in variety of directions
-found in skin (dermis), joint capsules

207
Q

What kind of tissue is this

A

Dense connective: dense irregular

208
Q

what are the structural elements of cartilage

A

-resists both tension and compression forces
-properties of dense connective tissue and bone
-tough but flexible
-avascular, lacks nerve fibers

209
Q

Describe hyaline cartilage

A

-most abundant in body
-provides firm support with some pliability
-covers the end of long bones
-supports the tip of the nose
-connects the ribs to sternum
-skeletal hyaline cartilage persists during childhood as epiphyseal plates

210
Q

what kind of cartilage is this

A

hyaline cartilage

211
Q

Describe elastic cartilage

A

-nearly identical to hyaline cartilage but contains more elastin fibers
-provides greater tolerance for repeated bending
-found in external ear and epiglottis

212
Q

what kind of cartilage is this?

A

elastic cartilage

213
Q

Describe fibrocartilage

A

-able to withstand compressive and tensile forces
-found in intervertebral discs
-found in the meniscus of the knee

214
Q

What kind of cartilage is this

A

fibrocartilage

215
Q

What kind of tissue is this?

A

blood, a fluid connective tissue

216
Q

what kind of tissue is this

A

skeletal muscle tissue

217
Q

What kind of tissue is this

A

smooth muscle tissue

218
Q

What kind of tissue is this

A

cardiac muscle tissue

219
Q

what kind of tissue is this

A

nervous tissue

220
Q

What are the 3 major regions of the skin from the outter to innermost

A

-epidermis
-dermis
-hypodermis

221
Q

What cells are in the epidermis

A

-keratinocytes
-melanocytes
-epidermal dendritic cells
-merkel/tactile cells

222
Q

What is the function or keratinocytes

A

-produce fibrous protein keratin
-gives the dermis its protective properties

223
Q

What is the function of melanocytes

A

-produce melanin, gives skin color

224
Q

What is the function of epidermal dendritic (langerhans) cells

A

-macrophages that help activate immune system

225
Q

What is the function of tactile (merkel) cells

A

-function as sesory receptor or touch

226
Q

What are the 5 layer of the epidermis from the outer to innermost

A

-stratum corneum
-stratum lucidum
-stratum granulosum
-stratum spinosum
-stratum basale

227
Q

What are the two layers of the dermis from outer to innermost

A

papillary and reticular

228
Q

what are the three pigments that contribute to skin color

A

-melanin
-carotene
-hemoglobin

229
Q

What are the 4 structures of a nail

A

-nail matrix (thickened proximal portion of nail bed/for nail growth)
-nail fold (proximal and lateral borders of nail)
-cuticle (eponychium) (proximal nail fold projects onto nail body)
-hyponychium (region where dirt and debris accumulate)

230
Q

What is this skin disease

A

basal cell carcinoma

231
Q

What is this skin disease

A

squamous cell carcinoma

232
Q

what is this skin disease

A

squamous cell carcinoma

233
Q

what skin disease is this

A

Eczema

234
Q

What causes acne

A

it is the result of over-productive sebaceous glands, which leads to formation of blackheads and inflammation of the skin

235
Q

What is peristalsis

A

when muscles of the intenstines/canals in the body involuntarily contract and relax creating wave-like movements that push contents forward

236
Q

what are the 4 parts of the muscle fiber

A

-sarcolemma
-sarcoplasm
-sarcoplasmic reticulum
-sarcomere`

237
Q

what is a triad

A

-one t-tubule
-two sarcoplasmic reticulum

238
Q

Describe cardiac muscle tissue

A

-one or two nuclei and striated
-electrically connected to each other
-involuntary

239
Q

describe the smooth muscle tissue

A

-nonstriated
-in the walls of blood vessels
-involuntary

240
Q

Describe skeletal muscle tissue

A

-multinucleated and striated
-voluntary

240
Q

Describe skeletal muscle tissue

A

-multinucleated and striated
-voluntary

241
Q

What are the 3 parts of thin filament

A

-actin
-tropomyosin
-troponin

242
Q

what are the 3 parts of thick filament

A

-myosin
-heads
-tails

243
Q

what is acetylcholine

A

a neurotransmitter for the PNS and CNS

244
Q

what are the 3 layers of skeletal connective tissue (mysia)

A

-epimysium
-perimysium
-endomysium

245
Q

What is the purpose of epimysium

A

-wraps each muscle
-made of dense irregular connective tissue

246
Q

What is the perimysium (fascicle)

A

-muscle fibers in bundles

247
Q

What is the endomysium

A

-each muscle fiber
-connective tissue of collagen and reticular fibers

248
Q

What is the sarcolemma

A

-plasma membrane of muscle fiber

249
Q

what is sarcoplasm

A

cytoplasm of muscle fiber

250
Q

what is sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

-specialized smooth endoplasmic reticulum
-stores, release, and retrieves calcium

251
Q

what is a sarcomere

A

-packet of microfilaments ad regulatory proteins, tropinin, and tropomyosin
-functional unit of a muscle

252
Q

What is the difference between striated, unstriated, and cardiac muscles

A

-striated muscles are involuntary
-unstriated muscles are voluntary
-cardiac muscles are involuntary

253
Q

What is neuromuscular junction and what are the 3 parts

A

-where a motor neuron’s terminal meets the muscle fiber
-presynaptic part (nerve terminal)
-postsynaptic part (motor endplate)
-synaptic cleft

254
Q

What are three types of muscle fibers

A

1.Slow oxidative
-uses aerobic respiration

2.Fast oxidative
-uses aerobic respiration
-can switch to glycolytic (anaerobic respiration)
-fatigues faster than slow fibers

3.Fast glycolytic
-primarily uses anaerobic respiration

255
Q

What are the 4 muscles that move the tongue

A

-genioglossus
-styloglossus
-palatoglossus
-hyoglosssus

256
Q

What muscles move the back

A

-iliocostalis cervicis
-iliocostalis thoracis
-iliocostalis lumborum
-longissimus cervicis
-longissimus capitis
-longissimus thoracis
-semispinalis capitis
-semispinalis cervicis
-semispinalis thoracis
-multifidus
-trapezius
-splenius capitis
-splenius cervicis
-rhomboides minor
-rhomboides major

257
Q

What are the 5 muscles of the chest

A

-diaphram
-intercostal muscles
-subclavius
-pectoralis minor
-serratus anterior

258
Q

What are the patterns of Fascicle Organization

A

-parallel muscles
-Circular muscles
-convergent
-pennate

259
Q

What are parallel muscles

A

-they have fascicles that are arranged in the same direction as the long axis of the muscle

260
Q

What are circular muscles

A

sphincters

261
Q

What does convergent mean

A

-a widespread expansion over a sizable area, but then the fascicles come to a single, common attachment point

262
Q

what does pennate mean

A

-“feathers”
-blend into a tendon that runs through the central region of the muscle
-unipennate, bipennate, multipennate

263
Q

What are the 6 muscles for respiration

A

-external obliques
-internal obliques
-transverse abdominis
-rectus abdominis
-diaphragm
-intercostal muscles

264
Q

What are the 5 interactions of skeletal muscles

A

-insertion
-origin
-prime mover (agonist)
-synergist
-antagonist

265
Q

What is insertion

A

-moveable end of muscle that attaches to bone being pulled

266
Q

what is origin

A

-end of the muscle attached to a fixed (stabilized) bone

267
Q

what is a prime mover (agonist)

A

-principle muscle involved in action

268
Q

what is a synergist

A

assist the agonist muscle

269
Q

what is an antagonist

A

-opposite action of agonist
-maintain body/limb position
-control rapid movement

270
Q

What are the 5 quadricep muscles

A

-rectus femoris
-vastus lateralis
-vastus medialis
-vastus intermedius
-sartorius

271
Q

What are the 3 hamstring muscles

A

-bicep femoris
-semitendinosus
-semimembranous

272
Q

Where are the origins of the facial muscles

A

the surface of the skull

273
Q

Where do the eye muscles originate and insert

A

-originate outside the eye
-insert onto the outer surface of the white of eye

274
Q

What are the 4 rotator cuff muscles

A

-subscapularis
-infraspinatus
-teres minor
-supraspinatus

275
Q

what are the 3 compartments of the leg

A

-anterior
-lateral
-posterior

276
Q

What are the 3 anterior compartment muscles of the leg

A

-tibialis anterior
-extensor hallucis longus
-extensor digitorum longus

277
Q

what are the 2 lateral compartment muscles of the leg

A

-fibularis longus
-fibularis brevis

278
Q

what are the 3 posterior compartment muscles of the leg

A

-gastronemius
-soleus
-plantaris

279
Q

What is the difference between ganglia and tracts

A

-ganglia are neuron cell bodies
-tracts are a group of fibers in the CNS

280
Q

What are the 4 muscles of mastication

A

-masseter
-temporalis
-medial pterygoid
-lateral pterygoid

281
Q

What are the muscles that insert to calcaneus

A

-gastronemius
-soleus
-plantaris

282
Q

What are the muscles for swallowing and speech

A

-suprahyoid
-infahyoid
-digastric
-stylohyoid
-mylohyoid
-geniohyoid
-omohyoid
-thyrohyoid
-sternothyroid

283
Q

What is the perineum

A

-diamond shaped space between the pubic symphysis,coccyx, ischial tuberisites
-divided transversely into triangles (urogenital triangle and anal triangle)

284
Q

What are the triangles of the perineum

A

-urogenital triangle
-anal triangle

285
Q

What muscles are used during strenuous exercise

A

-diaphragm
-external/internal intercostals
-sternocleidomastoid
-abdominal muscles

286
Q

What are the parts of a neuron

A

-axon hillock
-axoplasm
-cell membrane
-dendrites
-cell body (soma)
-oligodendrocytes
-node of ranvier
-myelin sheath
-axon
-synapse

287
Q

What are 3 types of neurons

A

-unipolar
-bipolar
-multipolar

288
Q

what are unipolar neurons

A

-have only one process emerging from the cell
-found in spinal or cranial nerve ganglia

289
Q

what are bipolar neurons

A

-have two processes, which extend from each end of the cell body, opposite to eachother
-one is the axon and one is the dendrite
-found in olfactory epithelium, retina of eye, and ganglia of vestibulocochlear nerve

290
Q

what are multipolar neurons

A

-one axon and two or more dedrites
-Found in CNS and ANS

291
Q

what are the two regions of the brain and what are they made of

A

-white matter:a xons
-gray matter: cell bodies and dendrites

292
Q

What are the 4 glial cells in the CNS

A

-Astrocytes
-Oligodendrocytes
-Microglia
-Ependymal Cell

293
Q

What are astrocytes

A

-provide support to neurons of CNS
-contributes to BBB

294
Q

What are oligodendrocytes

A

-insulates axons in the CNS

295
Q

What are microglia

A

-referred to as CNS
-resident microphages

296
Q

What are Ependymal cells

A

-Filter blood to make CSF
-Choroid plexus (in ventricles, ependymal cells come in contact with blood vessels and filter and absorb components of blood to produce CSF)

297
Q

What are the 2 glial cells of the PNS

A

-satellite cells
-schwann cells

298
Q

What are satellite cells

A

-found in sensory and autonomic ganglia
-where surround the cell bodies of neurons

299
Q

what are schwann cells

A

-insulate axons with myelin in periphery

300
Q

Pseudostratified columnar epithelium ciliated variety ________.

A.lines most of the respiratory tract
B.possesses no goblet cells
C.aids in digestion
D.is not an epithelial classification

A

A. lines most of the respiratory tract

301
Q

The reason that intervertebral discs exhibit a large amount of tensile strength, which allows them to absorb shock, is because they possess ________.
A. hydroxyapatite crystals
B. collagen fibers
C. reticular fibers
D. elastic fibers

A

B. collagen fibers

302
Q

What tissue has lacunae, calcium salts, and blood vessels?

A. osseous tissue
B. cartilage tissue
C. fibrocartilaginous tissue
D. areolar tissue

A

A. osseous tissue

303
Q

Groups of cells that are similar in structure and perform a common or related function form a(n) ________.
A. tissue
B. organ system
C. organism
D. organ

A

A. tissue

304
Q

Which of the following is a skin sensory receptor for touch?

A. Ruffini body
B. free nerve ending
C. Pacinian corpuscle
D. tactile corpuscle

A

D. Tactile corpuscle

305
Q

Sudoriferous (sweat) glands are categorized as two distinct types. Which of the following are the two types of sweat glands?

A. sebaceous and merocrine
B. mammary and ceruminous
C. holocrine and mammary
D. eccrine and apocrine

A

D. eccrine and apocrine

306
Q

The papillary layer of the dermis is connective tissue heavily invested with blood vessels. The superficial surface has structures called:

A. hair follicles.
B. ceruminous glands.
C. dermal papillae.
D. reticular papillae.

A

C. dermal papillae

307
Q

Melanocytes and keratinocytes work together in protecting the skin from UV damage when keratinocytes ________.
A. maintain the appropriate pH in order for the melanocyte to synthesize melanin granules

B. maintain the appropriate temperature so the product of the melanocyte will not denature

C. accumulate the melanin granules on their superficial portion, forming a UV-blocking pigment layer

D.provide the melanocyte with nutrients necessary for melanin synthesis

A

C. accumulate the melanin granules on their superficial portion, forming a UV-blocking pigment layer

308
Q

Match the following bones in the figure:

Long

Irregular

Sesamoid

Flat

Short

A
  1. flat
  2. long
  3. irregular
  4. sesamoid
  5. short
309
Q

Which structure allows the diaphysis of the bone to increase in length until early childhood?

A. epiphyseal plate
B. Haversian system
C. lacunae
D. epiphyseal line

A

A. epiphyseal plate

310
Q

The canal that runs through the core of each osteon (the Haversian canal) is the site of ________.

A. blood vessels and nerve fibers
B. yellow marrow and spicules
C. cartilage and interstitial lamellae
D. adipose tissue and nerve fibers

A

A. blood vessels and nerve fibers

311
Q

Osteogenesis is the process of ________.
A. making a cartilage model of the fetal bone
B. making collagen fibers for calcified cartilage
C. bone formation
D. bone destruction to liberate calcium

A

C. bone formation

312
Q

Which of the following is an abnormal lateral curvature of the vertebral column often seen in the thoracic region?

A. scoliosis
B. lordosis
C. swayback
D. kyphosis

A

A. scoliosis

313
Q

Which part of the vertebral column receives the most stress by bearing most of the weight of the body?

A. the sacral promontory
B. the lumbar region
C. the sacrum
D. the cervical region

A

B. the lumbar region

314
Q

Which bone acts as a moveable base for the tongue?
A.hyoid bone
B. zygomatic bone
C. palatine
D. mandible

A

A.hyoid bone

315
Q

The antebrachium is composed of which of the following two bones?
A. the radius and the ulna
B. the humerus and the clavicle
C. the humerus and the radius
D. the scapula and the clavicle

A

A. the radius and the ulna

316
Q

Which bone contains areas of diaphysis and epiphysis areas, a tuberosity near its middle, and is proportionally more compact than spongy bone?

A. cervical vertebra
B. talus
C. humerus
D. parietal bone

A

C. humerus

317
Q

Which portion of the fibula articulates with the talus?

A. head
B. lateral malleolus
C. medial malleolus
D. calcaneus

A

B. lateral malleolus

318
Q

The tubercle of a rib articulates with the transverse process of a vertebra.
True
False

A

true

319
Q

The fibula is the major weight-bearing bone of the leg.
True
False

A

false

320
Q

Which of the following systems does adrenal glands, pancreas and pituitary belong to?
A. Digestive
B. Respiratory
C.Urinary
D. Endocrine
E. Cardiovascular

A

D. Endocrine

321
Q

Which of these is not part of the dorsal cavity?

A. spinal cord
B. thoracic cavity
C. vertebral cavity
D. cranial cavity

A

B. thoracic cavity

322
Q

Help prevent molecules from passing through the extracellular space between adjacent cells.
A. Gap junctions
B. Desmosomes
C. Both Desmosomes and Gap Junctions
D. Tight junctions
E. No answer text provided.
F. Both Gap and Tight Junctions

A

D. Tight junctions

323
Q

Chromosomes align on the spindle equator
A. telophase
B. interphase
C. prophase
D. metaphase
E. anaphase

A

D. metaphase

324
Q

Which of the following describes the plasma membrane?
A. a double layer of protein enclosing the plasma
B. a membrane composed of tiny shelves or cristae
C. a single-layered membrane that surrounds the nucleus of the cell
D. a phospholipid bilayer surrounding the cell

A

D. a phospholipid bilayer surrounding the cell

325
Q

The epithelial membrane that lines the closed ventral cavities of the body.
A. Cutaneous
B. Mucous membrane
C. Endothelium
D. Serous membrane

A

D. Serous membrane

326
Q

The type of cartilage that is most abundant in the body is the hyaline cartilage.

True
False

A

true

327
Q

Moves blood through the body
A. Smooth muscle
B. Skin epidermis
C. Skeletal muscle
D. Tendon
E. Cardiac muscle

A

E. Cardiac muscle

328
Q

The shock-absorbing pads between the vertebrae are formed of fibrocartilage.

True
False

A

true

329
Q

Epithelial tissues always exhibit polarity; that is, they have a free surface and a basal surface.

True
False

A

true

330
Q

Cartilage has good regenerative capacity, while most epithelial tissues do not.

True
False

A

false

331
Q

Which of the following is a skin sensory receptor for touch?

A. Ruffini body
B. free nerve ending
C.Pacinian corpuscle
D. tactile corpuscle

A

D. tactile corpuscle

332
Q

The dense fibrous connective tissue portion of the skin is located in the reticular region of the dermis.
True
False

A

true

333
Q

The reason that the nail bed appears pink is the presence of a large number of melanocytes in the underlying dermis.
True
False

A

false

334
Q

Sweat glands continuously produce small amounts of sweat, even in cooler temperatures.
True
False

A

true

335
Q

A hypodermic needle would penetrate the skin in which order?

A. epidermis, papillary layer, reticular layer
B. reticular layer, papillary layer, epidermis
C. epidermis, reticular layer, papillary layer
D. papillary layer, reticular layer, epidermis

A

A. epidermis, papillary layer, reticular layer

336
Q

The papillary layer of the dermis is connective tissue heavily invested with blood vessels. The superficial surface has structures called dermal papillae that contains 3 of these

A. Capillary loops
B. adipose cells
C. stratum basale
D. Meissner’s corpuscles
E. Free nerve endings

A

A. capillary loops
D. Meissner’s corpuscles
E. Free nerve endings

337
Q

Acne is a disorder associated with ________.
A. ceruminous glands
B. sweat glands
C. Meibomian glands
D. sebaceous glands

A

D. sebaceous glands

338
Q

A patient was complaining of an abdominal pain. Upon physical examination and lab works, the patient was determined to be suffering from fatty liver due to excessive amount of alcoholic beverage drinking. If the patient would point at the part of the body where the majority of the pain is, they would likely be pointing at the _____ of the abdomen.

A. right lower quadrant
B. left lower quadrant
C. left upper quadrant
D. hypogastric region
E. right upper quadrant

A

E. right upper quadrant

339
Q

After taking the final exam and finding out that you got an “A” in the class, you and your friends went out to celebrate. You decided to drink as much alcoholic beverages as you like to the point of passing out. With your knowledge of the different functions of the organelles in the cell, which organelle will be “working overtime” in order to clear the alcohol that you consumed?

A. peroxisomes
B. golgi apparatus
C. nucleus
D. mitochondria
E. lysosomes

A

A. peroxisomes

340
Q

Which of the following is the correct order/sequence of mitosis?

A. interphase - prophase - metaphase - anaphase - telophase
B. prophase - telophase - anaphase - metaphase
C. prophase - metaphase - anaphase - telophase
D.prophase - telophase - metaphase - anaphase
E. prophase - anaphase - metaphase - telophase

A

C. prophase - metaphase - anaphase - telophase

341
Q

There are different modes of glandular secretions. Of these types of secretions, which secretion is where the cell is destroyed as it releases its product and the cell itself becomes part of the secretion.

A. merocrine secretion
B. apocrine secretion
C. endocrine secretion
D. exocrine secretion
E. holocrine secretion

A

E. holocrine secretion

342
Q

Which of the following class connective tissues function is for transportation?

A. simple squamous epithelium
B. blood
C. bone
D. connective tissue proper
E. cartilage

A

B. blood

343
Q

Eczema is a result of over-productive sebaceous glands, which leads to formation of blackheads and inflammation of the skin.

True
False

A

false

344
Q

Which cell produces fibrous protein keratin

A. Keratinocytes
B. Melaocytes
C. Langerhans cells
D. Merkel cells

A

A. keratinocytes

345
Q

which cell produces skin color
A. Keratinocytes
B. Melaoocytes
C. Langerhans cells
D. Merkel cells

A

B. melanocytes

346
Q

Which cell helps activate immune system
A. Keratinocytes
B. Melaocytes
C. Langerhans cells
D. Merkel cells

A

C. langerhans cells

347
Q

which cells help with sensory receptor for touch
A. Keratinocytes
B. Melaocytes
C. Langerhans cells
D. Merkel cells

A

D. merkel cells

348
Q

Match the following letters on the figure with the correct name/parts of the nail. Choices are used once or not-at-all.
-nail
-lateral nail fold
-lanula
-eponychium

A

B. nail
C. lateral nail fold
D. lanula
E. eponychium

349
Q

Match the following functions with the letter on the figure. Choices are used once only.

-Site of enzymatic breakdown of phagocytized material.
-Packages proteins for insertion in the cell membrane or for exocytosis.
-Site of synthesis of lipid and steroid molecules.
-Forms the mitotic spindle.

A

C. site of enzymatic breakdown of phagocytized material
E. packages proteins for insertion in the cell membrane or for exocytosis
A. site of synthesis of lipid and steriod molecules
D. forms the mitotic spindle

350
Q

Match the following parts of the skin on the figure. Choices are once only.

-hypodermis
-epidermis
-reticular layer of the dermis
-papillary later of the dermis

A

D. hypodermis
A. epidermis
C. reticular layer of the dermis
B. papillary later of the dermis

351
Q

Match the following with the letters on the figure. Choices are used once only.

-thoracic cavity
-cranial cavity
-abdominal cavity
-vertebral cavity

A

C. thoracic cavity
A. cranial cavity
D. abdominal cavity
B. vertebral cavity

352
Q

Where is the eccrine gland found

A

-body
-palms
-soles
-forehead

353
Q

where is the apocrine gland found

A

axillary and anogenital regions

354
Q

Where is the ceruminous gland found

A

lining of external ear canal

355
Q

where is the mammary gland found

A

breasts

Human Anatomy (4 decks)

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