Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Cardiology > HTN and Pulmonary Disease > Flashcards

HTN and Pulmonary Disease Flashcards

1
Q

CREST can cause a pulmonary condition…

A

Pulmonary hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

… either alone or combined are the initial Rx for HTN.

A

Thiazide diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The dermatological manifestations of … are clinically and pathologically similar to those seen in infants with purpura fulminans due to severe protein C deficiency.

A

warfarin-induced skin necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

… is indicated only in the following high-risk patients with hereditary thrombophilia: two or more spontaneous thromboses, one spontaneous life-threatening thrombosis, one spontaneous thrombosis at an unusual site, one spontaneous thrombosis in the pres

A

Indefinite anticoagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The risk of venous thrombosis during pregnancy or the postpartum period was increased …fold.

A

eight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

This lung disease, … is caused by plexogenic arteriopathy in patients who test positive for antibodies to the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), even in the absence of AIDS.

A

Primary pulmonary hypertension (PPH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When appetite-suppressant medications such as fenfluramine and dexfenfluramine (for the treatment of obesity), there is an increased risk of developing this lung dz:…

A

pulmonary arterial hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Finding a thrombosis in the superficial … vein is equivalent to a diagnosis of DVT.

A

Femoral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A patient younger than 55 years with ischemic stroke has to be w/u in day one with…

A

hypercoagulable evaluation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

… is not appropriate if the source of emboli is an infective endocarditis or cardiac tumor in an ischemic stroke.

A

Anticoagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A neck size >… inches in a man is suggestive for OSA.

A

17.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Aerobic exercise of 30 minutes vigorous enough to cause a sweat significantly reduces… .

A

BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

…are the preferred initial agents for patients with primary HTN but not target organ damage or other complications.

A

Diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

ALLHAT study showed … are equivalent to amlodipine and lisinopril in reducing AMI and death in CAD.

A

thiazide diuretics (chlorthalidone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Only these 2 calcium channel-blockers, …, are shown to be safe in Rx angina in HTN patients with advanced LV dysfunction.

A

amlodipine and felodipine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Gestational hypertension, also called transient hypertension of pregnancy, is not associated with signs of … and resolves after delivery.

A

preeclampsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The use of … (antihypertensive drug) in pregnancy has been associated with fetal growth restriction.

A

atenolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Target BP in patients with renal disease and proteinuria more than 1 g/day should be….

A

125/75

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

… is a combination of HTN and renal disease with proteinuria and failure in a pregnant woman.

A

Preeclampsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When preeclampsia occurs in the first trimester, a … (dz) is very likely.

A

hydatiform mole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

… (4 drugs) and calcium blockers have all been used in pregnancy for HTN.

A

Hydralazine, labetalol, metil-dopa, clonidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

HTN increases the risk for CAD … fold compared to optimal BP population.

A

two-three

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

… (dz) is the most common systemic condition causing nephrosclerosis, but older age, black ethnicity, and DM increase the risk when in a patient with this dz.

A

Chronic HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The switch from argatroban to warfarin should be done when Rx with both and INR is approximately… due to argatroban’s own effect on the INR.

A

4.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Patients with HIT have a… days to weeks after exposure.

A

hypercoagulable state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Low-dose… may be safe and possibly effective in preventing thrombosis in essential thrombocythemia (ET), especially effective in treating the vasomotor symptoms of ET and PV, such as vision symptoms, acral paresthesias and erythromelalgia.

A

ASA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

… are new direct thrombin inhibitors effective in HIT Rx.

A

Lepirudin and argatroban

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

More than one spontaneous event of venous thromboembolism requires… (Rx).

A

indefinite anticoagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

One spontaneous life-threatening event of venous thromboembolism requires… (Rx).

A

indefinite anticoagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

One spontaneous event of venous thromboembolism associated with antiphospholipid antibody syndrome, antithrombin deficiency, or more than one genetic or allelic abnormality requires… (Rx).

A

indefinite anticoagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

… is FDA approved for DVT prophylaxis after major orthopedic surgery, with better results than Lovenox.

A

Fondaparinux

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The… consists of cold-insoluble proteins like FVIII, fibrinogen, FvW, FXIII and fibronectin, that remain solid when FFP is thawed at 4C.

A

cryoprecipitate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Pheochromocytomas are best screened for with…

A

24h urine for fractionated metanephrines and cathecholamines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The classic triad of HA, diaphoresis and palpitations is highly specific for…

A

pheochromocytomas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Ninety percent of pheochromocytomas are… (location)

A

intra-adrenal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

To distinguish between centrally mediated cathecholamines and from those produced by tumor,… should be done.

A

a clonidine suppression test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

HIT patients for PCI should receive … instead of heparin.

A

bivalirudin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

According to GUSTO I the optimal aPTT at 12 hours after heparin initiation with the lowest ischemic and bleeding events was …

A

50-70 sec.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

In patients with liver disease, argatroban dose needs to be adjusted (true/false… ).

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

According to REPLACE 2, the advantage of using bivalirudin vs. 2b3a and heparin is …

A

less major bleeding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Apart from its thrombotic properties, thrombin is a …

A

most potent platelet aggregation stimulator.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The antihypertensive treatment of choice in patients with pheochromocytoma consists of…

A

alpha blockers (phenoxybenzamine, prazosin, terazosin and doxazosin) used also in BPH.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The presence of anterolateral hemiblock in HTN patients is a finding suggestive of…

A

LVH

44
Q

Parenteral antihypertensive therapy is almost always contraindicated in…

A

acute stroke.

45
Q

… diuretics are effective as long as the creatinine clearance is above 30ml/min or the creatinine is less than 2-2.5 mg/dl.

A

Thiazide

46
Q

To prevent reflex tachycardia in patients given IV hydralazine, a… should be combined.

A

beta-blocker

47
Q

Antihypertensive therapy in acute stroke should be administered only in the case of severe increases in BP (DBP>130) and only with… (way of administration and drugs)

A

PO drugs like nifedipine or atenolol.

48
Q

The maximum initial decrease in BP in malignant HTN is… % to avoid underperfusion of the brain, kidneys and the heart.

A

25

49
Q

BP should be <130/85 or even 125/75 in patients with proteinuria over…

A

1g/day.

50
Q

Malignant phase HTN is defined as an increase in BP associated with…

A

bilateral retinal changes: hemorrhages or exudates.

51
Q

The appropriate initial therapy for severe HTN associated with AMI should include…

A

IV nitrates.

52
Q

The non-IV drugs that can be used in malignant HTN are… (2)

A

sublingual nifedipine (10 mg) and sublingual captopril (25 mg); they can substantially lower the BP within 10 to 30 minutes in many patients. They are not recomended because of a slower onset of action and an inability to control the degree of BP reductio

53
Q

DVT prophylaxis should be used in AMI patients during their first… days of hospitalization.

A

three

54
Q

… is indicated in post-AMI patient with LV thrombus, large akinetic LV segments, or persistent AF.

A

Long term warfarin therapy

55
Q

The… trial showed that ACEI decreased the mortality by 19% in patients with EF<40% after AMI.

A

SAVE

56
Q

… is the thrombolytic with the most rapid resolution of right sided pressure in PE with hemodynamic compromise or RV dysfunction without shock and pulmonary hypertension.

A

r-tPa

57
Q

The common coagulation pathway starts with…

A

prothrombin (factor II).

58
Q

The extrinsic coagulation pathway starts with…

A

factor VII and tissue factor (TF).

59
Q

The intrinsic coagulation pathway starts with…

A

factor VIII.

60
Q

Spontaneous or primary thrombosis of the subclavian or axillary veins is known as …

A

Paget-Schroetter syndrome.

61
Q

… is a venous thrombus causing a significant influence on arterial perfusion.

A

Phlegmasia alba dolens

62
Q

The addition of… to a beta-blocker is less effective in controlling BP.

A

an ACEI (beta-blocker already blocks the renin release)

63
Q

Black patients need an increase 2-4 times over the doses of beta-blockers and ACEI used to control same increase in BP as in white, difference generally eliminated by the addition of a… (class).

A

diuretic

64
Q

Preoperatively, successful anti-HTN therapy should be… if the patient is normotensive.

A

continued, even

65
Q

There is little synergy between… and the dihydropyridines (nifedipine, etc.) in HTN therapy.

A

thiazide diuretics

66
Q

In a pregnant HTN patient that has symptoms of eclampsia (clonus, nausea, vomiting, right hypocondrial pain), this drug is used for BP control…

A

IV hydralazine.

67
Q

Pulmonary arterial HTN is defined as a mean pulmonary arterial pressure greater than… , a pulmonary capillary wedge pressure less than 15mmHg and a pulmonary vascular resistance greater than 3 Wood units.

A

25mmHg

68
Q

Pulmonary arterial HTN is defined as a mean pulmonary arterial pressure greater than 25mmHg, a pulmonary capillary wedge pressure less than 15mmHg and a pulmonary vascular resistance greater than… Wood units.

A

3

69
Q

The therapy in advanced pulmonary HTN (classes IIIb and IV) consists of PO…

A

bosentan

70
Q

The therapy in advanced pulmonary HTN (classes IIIb and IV) consists of IV…

A

epoprostenol

71
Q

The therapy in advanced pulmonary HTN (classes IIIb and IV) consists of SC…

A

treprostinil

72
Q

Pulmonary arterial HTN is defined as a mean pulmonary arterial pressure greater than 25mmHg, a pulmonary capillary wedge pressure less than… and a pulmonary vascular resistance greater than 3 Wood units.

A

15mmHg

73
Q

The therapy in stable pulmonary HTN (class I-IIIa) in patients NOT vasoreactive to right heart catheterization consists of IV…

A

epoprostenol

74
Q

The therapy in stable pulmonary HTN (class I-IIIa) in patients NOT vasoreactive to right heart catheterization consists of PO…

A

bosentan

75
Q

The therapy in stable pulmonary HTN (class I-IIIa) in patients NOT vasoreactive to right heart catheterization consists of SC…

A

treprostinil (Remodulin®)

76
Q

Systematic reviews have found that initial HTN treatment with any of the… (3 classes) reduce morbidity and mortality, with minimal adverse effects.

A

diuretics, angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors, or ß blockers

77
Q

We found limited evidence from two systematic reviews that diuretics, ß blockers, and angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors reduced coronary heart disease and heart failure more than… (drug class).

A

calcium channel antagonists

78
Q

… as the initial HTN treatment reduced the risk of stroke more than the other agents.

A

Calcium channel antagonists

79
Q

Qp/Qs calculation formula is … when SaO2 is more than 95%.

A

(SaO2 - MvO2)/(SaO2 - PAO2)

80
Q

The most common inherited bleeding disorder is…

A

von Willebrand disease (a qualitative or quantitative deficiency of von Willebrand factor (vWF)).

81
Q

… is the most common inherited thrombophilic defect among whites.

A

Factor V Leiden

82
Q

Anticoagulation prophylaxis during gestation is highly recommended in women with severe mitral stenosis and… (morphological change), even in the absence of atrial fibrillation.

A

enlarged left atrium

83
Q

In patients with PHV receiving warfarin, the international normalized ratio should be maintained between 2.0 and 3.0 with the lowest possible dose of warfarin, and … should be added.

A

low-dose aspirin

84
Q

Recent guidelines for the management of PHV thrombosis recommend … as a first-line treatment if there are no contraindications.

A

thrombolysis

85
Q

The appearance of … in the heart is typically of mobile echo-dense masses attached to the endothelium, although isolated intramural masses and diffuse myocardial invasion have also been noted.

A

metastatic disease

86
Q

Cardiac lipomas are benign primary cardiac tumors located most commonly in … and occasionally presenting as pedunculated masses.

A

the body of LV

87
Q

The majority of … malignancies represent metastatic disease, most commonly from esophagus, lung, or breast.

A

cardiac

88
Q

The only beta-blocker useful in the therapy of HTN emergencies is…

A

labetalol (20mg initially, then 20-80 q10min, total max 300mg).

89
Q

Type I HIT is the common, milder form that likely results from … (mechanism).

A

heparin-induced aggregation of platelets.

90
Q

In the majority of cases, heparin can be continued and the platelet count will improve in …

A

type I HIT.

91
Q

Thromboembolic prophylaxis in high-risk patients (older-generation PHV in the mitral position, atrial fibrillation, history of thromboembolism while receiving anticoagulation) seems to be best achieved with … for the first 35 weeks.

A

oral anticoagulation

92
Q

Because pregnancy is associated with increased risk, a target international normalized ratio of … should be achieved in high-risk patients (older-generation PHV in the mitral position, atrial fibrillation, history of thromboembolism while receiving anti

A

3.0 (2.5 to 3.5)

93
Q

In general, a pulmonary artery acceleration time less than 70 msec implies presence of a pulmonary artery systolic pressure exceeding… mmHg.

A

70

94
Q

… is characterized by low factor VIII.

A

Hemophilia A

95
Q

… is characterized by low factor IX.

A

Hemophilia B

96
Q

The work-up for… in pregnancy need not be deferred because of concern about fetal radiation exposure.

A

venous thromboembolic disease

97
Q

Regional wall motion abnormalities of the RV on echo that spare the right ventricular apex (“McConnell’s sign”) are particularly suggestive of…

A

pulmonary embolism.

98
Q

Less stable NYHA III and IV patients with pulmonary hypertension should be treated with…

A

a prostaglandin analogue like epoprostenol.

99
Q

… is essential in patients with pulmonary hypertension associated with venous thromboembolic disease.

A

Lifelong anticoagulation

100
Q

When in a patient with abnormalities on the CXR a suspicion of PE exists, this test is recommended…

A

CT.

101
Q

A documented central PE associated with hypotension is an indication for…

A

thrombolytic therapy - t-PA.

102
Q

The long-term anticoagulation INR target in thrombembolic disease is…

A

1.5-2.

103
Q

Patients with obesity-hypoventilation syndrome need an overnight polysomnography study due to universal presence of…

A

OSA.

104
Q

Patients with acute venous thromboembolism in whom conventional anticoagulation is contraindicated (recent surgery, hemorrhagic stroke, active bleeding) need…

A

an inferior vena caval filter.

105
Q

Patients with acute venous thromboembolism in whom conventional anticoagulation has proven ineffective need…

A

an inferior vena caval filter.

106
Q

In a large literature review,… was the most common thrombotic presentation of antiphospholipid antibody syndrome.

A

venous thromboembolism

107
Q

A cardiac murmur changing intensity markedly with different body positions is indicative of…

A

myxoma.

Cardiology (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions