Fundamentals Flashcards

1
Q

A mixing study (adding normal plasma to pt’s plasma) that corrects the PTT means there is …

A

no coagulation factor inhibitor.

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1
Q

Patients with a non-spontaneous venous thromboembolism and an inherited thrombophilia are usually continued on oral anticoagulants for … at an INR of 2.0 to 3.0.

A

six months

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1
Q

A type … error is the probability of incorrectly concluding that there is a statistically significant difference in a dataset. Alpha is the number after a p-value. Thus, a statistically significant difference reported as p

A

I (also known as alpha)

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1
Q

A type … error is the probability of incorrectly concluding that there was no statistically significant difference in a dataset. This error often reflects insufficient power of the study.

A

II (also known as beta)

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2
Q

Harmonic imaging echocardiography causes loss of detail for evaluation of…

A

fine valvular structures.

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3
Q

The … of a clinical finding/test represents the probability of that finding in patients with the disease of interest in relation with the probability of that finding in patients without the condition.

A

positive likelihood ratio

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4
Q

The emitted sound wave by the echo transducer is described as having an initial or… frequency.

A

fundamental

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5
Q

The molecular mechanism of interconnecting vessels developing into small arteries is called… .

A

arteriogenesis

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6
Q

The molecular mechanism of capillaries formation is called… .

A

angiogenesis

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7
Q

… connects the sinoatrial node with the AV node.

A

crista terminalis

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8
Q

The phase 0 of the myocardial cell action potential is dependent on the…

A

Ca2+ current.

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9
Q

Image resolution is… with higher frequencies.

A

greater

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10
Q

Normal… appears as a red encoded signal moving from the mitral orifice along the lateral wall to the left ventricular apex, where it reverses course and appears as a blue encoded signal along the septum.

A

mitral inflow

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11
Q

Low-frequency ultrasound provides a… depth of penetration than does high-frequency ultrasound.

A

greater

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12
Q

The right atrium is more… than the left atrium.

A

trabeculated

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13
Q

In the short-axis projections at the level of the mitral valve and below,… appears as a more trabeculated crescent-shaped structure.

A

RV

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14
Q

In the normal heart under physiological circumstances, the maximum velocity typically encountered is less than…

A

1.5 m/sec.

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15
Q

… is the time in milliseconds required for the peak pressure gradient to decline to one half of its original value.

A

The pressure half-time (P1/2t)

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16
Q

… evaluation of annular motion has shown tremendous promise for the evaluation of diastolic function; the early annular velocity (Ea) exceeds late annular velocity (Aa) in a manner similar to the mitral valve E/A.

A

Doppler

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17
Q

Although… Doppler imaging provides less precise localization of gradients, it is not constrained by velocity limits and hence can record higher velocities.

A

continuous-wave

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18
Q

When the Doppler flow is visualized as blue color it is directed… the transducer.

A

away from

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19
Q

When the Doppler flow is visualized as red color it is directed… the transducer.

A

towards

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20
Q

The hallmark of… on two-dimensional echocardiography is thickening and restriction of motion of the valve leaflets, with the predominant pathological process being fibrosis and fusion of the leaflet tips and proximal chordae.

A

mitral stenosis

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21
Q

The Bernoulli equation in its simplest form states that deltaP (the pressure gradient across a restrictive orifice) is…, where V is the peak instantaneous velocity of flow through the restrictive orifice.

A

4V^2

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22
Q

The imaging beam is emitted as a series of pulses, each of which contains several cycles of ultrasound and the number of pulses emitted per second is the…

A

pulse repetition frequency.

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23
Q

Image resolution is… with low frequencies.

A

less

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24
Q

… image resolution refers to the ability to separate objects that fall in the direction of ultrasound propagation.

A

Axial

25
Q

… resolution refers to the ability to determine separation in time of events by ultrasound.

A

Temporal

26
Q

… Doppler allows determination of direction and flow velocity at a precise point within the cardiac system.

A

Pulsed

27
Q

Pulsed Doppler is limited in its maximum detectable velocity by the…

A

Nyquist limit.

28
Q

… is defined as one-half of the pulse repetition frequency (typically 1.5 to 2 m/sec).

A

The Nyquist limit

29
Q

The underlying principle of the… equation is that the volume of flow entering a channel must equal the volume of flow exiting that channel.

A

continuity

30
Q

From a clinical standpoint, the ventricular diastole has four phases, phase 1 being…

A

isovolumic relaxation.

31
Q

The… is the time-dependent decrease of stress in the presence of a constant length.

A

stress relaxation

32
Q

The… is the time-dependent lengthening of a material in the presence of a constant force.

A

creep

33
Q

The… is the change in volume per change in pressure (dV/dP).

A

compliance or distensibility

34
Q

From a clinical standpoint, the ventricular diastole has four phases, phase 2 being…

A

early (rapid) diastolic filling.

35
Q

From a clinical standpoint, the ventricular diastole has four phases, phase 3 being…

A

slow ventricular filling (diastasis).

36
Q

The… is the mean systolic blood pressure multiplied by stroke volume.

A

stroke work

37
Q

The… is defined as force per area in cardiology.

A

stress (pressure in physics)

38
Q

The… is the pressure per volume change (dP/dV). Ventricular… is a measure for changes of the ventricle as a whole; myocardial… is a measure for changes of the myocardium itself.

A

stiffness

39
Q

From a clinical standpoint, the ventricular diastole has four phases, phase 4 being…

A

atrial filling.

40
Q

A second remnant that is occasionally seen attached to the coronary sinus is known as… and consists of a fine filamentous membrane with multiple perforations.

A

the Chiari network

41
Q

… is a linear echo arising from the junction of the right atrium and inferior vena cava coursing into the body of the right atrium, and has a highly mobile motion, mimicking valvular motion.

A

The Eustachian valve

42
Q

In the embryo, a continuous membrane courses from the IVC to the coronary sinus to direct oxygenated blood from the IVC directly across the foramen ovale:… ; during cardiac development, this membrane regresses.

A

the Eustachian valve

43
Q

… is a structure typically visualized only with transesophageal echocardiography (TEE).

A

The right atrial appendage

44
Q

… is optimally visualized with TEE, where it has the appearance of a “dog’s ear.”

A

The left atrial appendage

45
Q

In PARASTERNAL LONG-AXIS view, anterior to the aorta, a portion of the… is visualized.

A

right ventricular outflow tract

46
Q

… appears as a muscle density structure traversing the apex of the right ventricle; this is a normal anatomical structure that should not be confused with a pathological process.

A

The moderator band

47
Q

… calculations are based on hydraulic principles of fluid flow, as the ratio of the decrease in pressure between two points in a vascular segment and the blood flow through the segment.

A

Vascular resistance

48
Q

In patients with …, thermodilution tends to overestimate the cardiac output.

A

low outputs (especially <2.5 liter/min)

49
Q

The advantage of the … is that it is the most accurate method in patients with low cardiac output and thus is preferred over the thermodilution method in these circumstances.

A

Fick method

50
Q

The x descent is interrupted by the… , which is a small positive deflection caused by protrusion of the closed tricuspid valve into the right atrium.

A

c wave

51
Q

The pulmonary vascular resistance is derived from the following equation: PVR = … where PAm and LAm are the pulmonary artery and left atrial pressures, respectively and Qp is the pulmonary blood flow.

A

80(PAm - LAm )/Qp

52
Q

The thermodilution method has a significant error in patients with …

A

severe tricuspid regurgitation or CO<2.5L/min.

53
Q

… follows the a wave and represents relaxation of the atrium and downward pulling of the tricuspid annulus by right ventricular contraction.

A

The x descent

54
Q

… is inversely related to the area under a thermodilution curve, plotted as a function of temperature versus time, with a smaller area indicative of a higher value.

A

The cardiac output

55
Q

Systemic vascular resistance in absolute units is calculated using the following equation: SVR = … where Aom and RAm are the mean pressures (in mm Hg) in the aorta and right atrium, respectively, and Qs is the systemic cardiac output (in liter/min).

A

80(Aom - RAm )/Qs

56
Q

The total peripheral resistance (TPR) is TPR = … where Aom is the mean pressures (in mmHg) in the aorta.

A

80(Aom )/Qs

57
Q

If the difference in oxygen saturation between the SVC and the pulmonary artery is >… , a left-to-right shunt may be present.

A

8%

58
Q

…, the functional ability of HDL to accept cholesterol as part of reverse cholesterol transport, may be a more important biomarker of risk than HDL alone.

A

HDL cholesterol efflux capacity

59
Q

These results suggest that adding MV repair to CABG in patients with moderate MR reduces MR at 12 months, but does not …

A

improve reverse LV remodeling or improve survival or quality of life.

60
Q

The Japanese Primary Prevention Project was a multicenter, open-label trial to determine whether low-dose aspirin reduces the incidence of cardiovascular events in older patients with multiple atherosclerotic risk factors. Daily aspirin… (did/did not) lower risk for adverse cardiovascular events

A

did not

61
Q

Orthostatic hypotension (OH) has been defined by consensus as a decrease in systolic blood pressure of … mm Hg or in diastolic blood pressure of … mm Hg within 3 minutes after standing.

A

≥20

≥10

62
Q

This study has addressed whether dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) and its sulfated form (DHEA-S) could predict major coronary heart disease (CHD) or cerebrovascular disease (CBVD) events in 2416 elderly men participating in the prospective, population-based Osteoporotic Fractures in Men study in Sweden (age range, 69–81).

A

they predict an increased risk for CHD, but not CBVD, events in elderly men