HPM 50.5 - Civil Disturbance Planning and Operations Flashcards

1
Q

During civil disturbances managers and supervisors are responsible to actively assess

A

situations, actions, discipline, and corrective action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the response mechanism for all CHP emergency incidents?

A

The Incident Command System ICS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How often shall chapter 1 be reviewed by all uniformed members of the Department?

A

Quarterly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How often shall the tactical formations and distraction techniques be reviewed?

A

Semi-annually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the purpose of the operational modes?

A

To categorize departmental responses to activities during civil disturbances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe visible presence mode

A

Present at location and readily visible to the public

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe non-aggressive contact mode:

A

Use of baton to physically guide crowds by pushing, nudging, and direct pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe assertive contact mode

A

Assertive, physical contact intended to direct the

movement of incident crowds, may offensive or defensive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe forcible contact mode

A

Assertive physical contact which causes pain or discomfort to gain compliance. (crowd exhibits unlawful and violent or riotous behavior threatening injury or damage.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

when is the use of the baton justified on passive demonstrators

A

Baton use is not justified against anyone sitting or prone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

name the 2 elements that are indicated in the 2 step planning process

A

Strategic planning and operational planning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe strategic planning

A

the who, what, when, where, and why portion of planning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe the operational planning process

A

The how portion of planning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe tactical alert

A

procedure for mangers or supervisors to initiate and

notify other areas resource capabilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A formal request for mutual aid support must be authorized through the _______ to commit CHP resources.

A

Commissioner’s office

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

______ may authorize mobilization of personnel to meet immediate needs.

A

Division or area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

If the situation is beyond the area’s capabilities to manage, ______ may initiate a tactical alert.

A

Supervisor or OIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Can Supervisors or OICs place neighboring CHP areas on tactical alert?

A

* YES, per MM08-093 when there is an actual or
potential threat to public safety and when the event has or
will span beyond the resource capabilities of the area. Must
advise Commander and
Div. Commander
** NEW INFO!!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

are uniformed members of the department required to wear soft body armor during civil unrest operations?

A

OH, you betchya!!, SHALL be worn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe the purpose of the tactical alert

A

To expedite the organization of on duty personnel to respond to an emergency that is beyond the capability of a single area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How many uniformed members from one area are allotted for a tactical alert?

A

Half of the area’s on-duty personnel, all ranks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

If the on duty supervisor orders a tactical alert ____ shall be notified

A

the Commander

23
Q

How frequently shall tactical alert exercises be conducted

A

at least twice per calendar year

24
Q

Once a supervisor or OIC has ordered a tactical alert and notified the area commander, what is the next step?

A

Establish an incident command post

25
who is responsible for organizing available personnel into companies or squads after the alert has been ordered?
The area ordering the alert YOU ORDER IT, YOU ORGANIZE IT!!
26
What does CLEMARS stand for?
California law enforcement mutual aid radio system
27
What is the primary purpose of tactical formations?
To control or move a crowd by using a | minimum of force.
28
Describe a typical make-up of a squad
leader and 8 officers
29
Squads should be of a size to transport in ____ number of patrol cars
3
30
Describe the typical make-up of an arrest team
squad leader and 8-10 officers
31
What is the primary responsibility of the arrest team?
primary function is to make arrests and perform | rescue tactics.
32
What is the normal make-up of a platoon?
2-4 squads, leader being a Lt.
33
What is the normal make-up of a company?
usually 5 squads
34
What is the normal make-up of a battalion?
2-4 companies
35
Who may authorize the assignment of rifle officers and chemical agent officers?
Only the on scene incident commander
36
Describe the designation of rank that maybe worn on the back of the helmet
Captain: 2 parallel vertical bars Lt. 1 vertical bar Sgt. 1 horizontal bar
37
What is the function of the skirmish line?
move small crowds or deny access.
38
What is the visual indicator of the skirmish line?
The baton is held horizontally overhead with both hands
39
What is the function of the wedge formation?
to split crowds or affect a rescue or arrest.
40
What is the function of the encirclement formation?
To make multiple arrests.
41
What is the visual sign for the encirclement formation?
The leader holds arms overhead with both hands locked, forming a circle.
42
How many officers are utilized for the sweeping box formation?
4-6 officers for selective arrests or rescue
43
What type of force is authorized for arresting a protestor that goes limp and refuses to obey commands?
Not more than necessary to move them.
44
Who is responsible to ensure that authorized arrest techniques and restraint procedures are followed?
Incident commanders, managers, and supervisors
45
Passive demonstrators shall not be dragged, carried, or lifted unless what conditions exist?
Sick, elderly, or injured and control holds prove ineffective.
46
If all other reasonable methods have been attempted without success, the arrestee may be lifted and carried by how many officers?
by 2 or more
47
Arrest team officers shall work in ____
pairs
48
The arresting officer should tell the arrestee that _______
they are under arrest and what the charges are
49
describe the dimensions of the wooden dowel distraction tool
5 ½ inches long and 5/8 inch in diameter
50
Who is authorized to carry and use the wooden dowel?
Only officers who have received departmental training
51
Chemical agents shall not be deployed to disperse crowds which are not ____________________.
actually endangering public safety and security.
52
How far does the shotgun grenade launcher launch the rubber ball type grenades?
approximately 125 yards
53
name and describe the three basic parts of a group of demonstrators
Muscle: directly confront law enforcement Meat: form the cause but no desire to be arrested Shell : keeping the participants focused on the protest
54
How many prisoners is the MARK 30 arrest chain designed to hold?
30 prisoners, unless they are passive, then single cuff each prisoner, giving a total of 60.