HPL Psychology 2 - revision questions Flashcards

1
Q

The filters of perception are considered to be

a.intuition and realisation

b.past experience and learning

c.knowledge and Briefing

d.learning and study

A

b.past experience and learning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The cocktail party effect is the;
Select one:

a.Tendency to believe information that reinforces our mental model of the world.

b.Ability to drink too much at a social gathering.

c.Tendency not to perceive relevant information.

d.Ability to pick up relevant information unintentionally.

A

d.Ability to pick up relevant information unintentionally.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The available cognitive resources of the human brain:
Select one:

a.Are virtually unlimited.

b.Allow for simultaneous operation of twin tasks without any loss of effectiveness.

c.Are limited and make it impossible to perform two attentional tasks at the same time.

d.Are limited but make it possible to easily perform several tasks at the same time.

A

c.Are limited and make it impossible to perform two attentional tasks at the same time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the three sub-divisions of the long-term memory?

a.Semantic, elevated and procedural

b.Sensory, episodic and procedural

c.Semantic, episodic and progressive

d.Semantic, episodic and procedural

A

b.Sensory, episodic and procedural

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the three basic approaches to learning?

a.Associative, cognitive, applicable

b.Modelling, automatic, behaviouristic

c.Behaviouristic, cognitive, modelling

d.Cognitive, cumulative, modelling

A

c.Behaviouristic, cognitive, modelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

According to James Reason, what are different categories of error?
Select one:

a.Faults, defects, weaknesses and oversights.

b.Failures, omissions, deficiencies and flaws.

c.Defects, deficiencies, ambiguities and anomalies.

d.Slips, lapses, mistakes and violations.

A

d.Slips, lapses, mistakes and violations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following statements best fits the definition of an active error? Active error is:
Select one:

a.Produced either by a frontline operator or by a remote operator and results in a hidden or latent consequence at a specific moment of the action.

b.Rare in frontline actions and difficult to detect owing to the fact that it usually occurs in a complex system of uncontrolled and involuntary deviations

c.Essentially results from the application of a bad rule or the poor application of a good rule by aeroplane designers.

d.Produced by the operator and can be rapidly detected.

A

d.Produced by the operator and can be rapidly detected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following statements best fits the concept of latent error?
Select one:

a.Latent errors are mainly associated with the behaviour of frontline operators and are only detected after advanced problem solving.

b.Latent errors may have been present in the system for a certain length of time and are difficult to identify as a result of the time lag between the generation and the occurrence of the error.

c.Latent errors are detected rapidly.

d.Latent errors are rarely made by frontline operators and are consequently readily identified and detected by the monitoring, detection and warning links.

A

b.Latent errors may have been present in the system for a certain length of time and are difficult to identify as a result of the time lag between the generation and the occurrence of the error.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following concepts relating to human reliability is true?
Select one:

a.Response to a particular stressful influence does not vary from one person to another.

b.If equipment is designed in such a way that it can be operated wrongly, then sooner or later it will be.

c.Expectation has no influence on perception.

d.Performance is totally independent of motivation.

A

b.If equipment is designed in such a way that it can be operated wrongly, then sooner or later it will be.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Decision-making results in:
Select one:

-a choice between different options to achieve a goal

-a subjective choice between options to achieve a goal

-a choice always based on the experience of the Pilot in Command

-a totally objective choice between options to achieve a goal proposed by the Pilot in Command

A

-a choice between different options to achieve a goal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The best method to avoid Confirmation Bias is to

a.Search for information that will falsify the hypothesis

b.Double-check that you have not fitted the ground over which you are passing to your map

c.Use precise and careful pre-flight briefings

d.Deliberately confirm that the receiver has understood the information that has been passed to him/her

A

a.Search for information that will falsify the hypothesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is meant by risky shift?
Select one:

a.A flight or task undertaken at a time when the circadian rhythms are at their lowest level.

b.The process by which the working memory will offload information to the long-term memory during a high stress situation.

c.The tendency of a group accepting a higher degree of risk than any individual in the group.

d.The process by which the central decision maker will ignore any information which does not fit the mental model created to explain phenomena.

A

c.The tendency of a group accepting a higher degree of risk than any individual in the group.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following form part of the 9 steps in decision making?

a.High workload, risk assessment, consequences

b.Definition of the aim, decision, ergonomics

c.Development of options, confirmation bias, implementation

d.Risk assessment, evaluation of options, review and feedback

A

d.Risk assessment, evaluation of options, review and feedback

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The main objectives of multi-crew co-operation (MCC) are

a.Shared workload, conformity and group think

b.Safety, redundancy and workload management

c.Shared responsibility, effective communication and clear hierarchy

d.Co-operation, economy and standard procedures (SOPs)

A

b.Safety, redundancy and workload management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following statements concerning checklists is correct?
Select one:

a.The most important items should be placed at the beginning of a checklist since attention is usually focused here.

b.Most important items must be placed at the end of a checklist, allowing them to be kept near at hand so they are quickly available for any supplementary check.

c.All the items have a checklist are equally important, their sequence of isn’t is of no importance.

d.The most important items must be placed in the middle of checklists so that they come to be examined once attention is focused but before concentration starts to wane.

A

a.The most important items should be placed at the beginning of a checklist since attention is usually focused here.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

It is desirable to standardise as many patterns of behaviour (operational procedures) as possible in commercial aviation is because

a.This reduces the amount of training required

b.It makes the flight deck easier to design

c.Such behaviour reduces errors

d.This lowers the ability requirement in pilot selection

A

c.Such behaviour reduces errors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following represents a potential threat in the use of SOPs?

a.Reduced communication between pilots

b.Developed habits

c.Time consuming

d.Pilot overload during periods of intense activity

A

b.Developed habits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the advantages of coordination?
Select one:

a.Redundancy, synergy, clarification of responsibility.

b.Cooperation, cognition, redundancy.

c.Interaction, cognition, redundancy.

d.Redundancy, exploration, risky shift.

A

a.Redundancy, synergy, clarification of responsibility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following behaviours is most disruptive to teamwork under high workload conditions in the cockpit?
Select one:

a.Mentally absent.

b.Jovial.

c.Sensitive.

d.Disciplined.

A

a.Mentally absent.

20
Q

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the roles and norms within a group?
Select one:

a.A role is the same as a norm

b.An airline captain must conform to a role as a leader in the aircraft, but can act as a follower in the Yacht Club.

c.Norms are always written as procedures or regulations.

d.A person cannot have different roles in different groups.

A

b.An airline captain must conform to a role as a leader in the aircraft, but can act as a follower in the Yacht Club.

21
Q

Which is the most likely of the following scenarios which might lead to a conflict between status and role?
Select one:

a.Two training captains flying together.

b.A manager interviewing an experienced captain of an aircraft.

c.A trainee air traffic officer working with the senior ATC controller.

d.A security officer temporarily standing in for a member of the cabin crew.

A

a.Two training captains flying together.

22
Q

The three types of Trans-cockpit Authority Gradients and associated leadership styles are

a.autocratic, laisser-faire and synergistic

b.laisser-faire, macho and synergistic

c.automatic, followership and laisser-faire

d.synergistic, autocratic and conformist

A

a.autocratic, laisser-faire and synergistic

23
Q

Differences of opinion should be regarded as:
Select one:

a.Having a negative influence on the group and are and are not to be encouraged.

b.Stressful.

c.Helpful.

d.Confrontational.

A

c.Helpful.

24
Q

Which behaviour is most likely to promote a constructive solution to inter-personal conflict?

a.Defending your own point of view

b.Resigning to another point of view

c.Preparing counter-arguments

d.Actively listening to another point of view

A

d.Actively listening to another point of view

25
Q

The unique organisation of characteristics which determine the typical or standard behaviour of an individual is known as:
Select one:

a.Learning.

b.Heredity

c.Personality.

d.Development

A

c.Personality.

26
Q

Whilst taxiing towards the runway, a pilot starts his power checks approaching intersection E3. ATC then clear the aircraft for take-off. The pilot declines the clearance as he isn’t yet ready to depart. What kind of behaviour is this?

a.Self-discipline

b.Over-confidence

c.Unprofessional

d.Anti-authoritative

A

a.Self-discipline

27
Q

What behaviour is demonstrated by the lack of making a decision or and/or not reaching an uncomfortable decision.
Select one:

a.Invulnerable

b.Macho complex

c.Resignation

d.Complacency

A

c.Resignation

28
Q

With regard to behaviour, the ideal pilot is

a.Both person and goal orientated

b.Neither person nor goal orientated

c.Goal rather than person orientated

d.Person rather than goal orientated

A

a.Both person and goal orientated

29
Q

Physical stress takes place when

a.the brain can no longer cope due to either quantitative or qualitative overload

b.outside conditions put a strain upon the homeostatic mechanisms of the body

c.the perceived demand is greater than the perceived ability

d.the neurons in the nervous system become overloaded

A

b.outside conditions put a strain upon the homeostatic mechanisms of the body

30
Q

The “Break Point” is that point after which, if stress continues to rise

a.performance peaks and remains at this level

b.performance is degraded

c.performance is enhanced

d.break Point has nothing to do with performance

A

b.performance is degraded

31
Q

Pilot stress reactions

a.differ from pilot to pilot

b.remain unchanged by the environment or different situations

c.seem to be the same for most pilots

d.are related to a recognised list of stressors, the top ten of which should be avoided at all times

A

a.differ from pilot to pilot

32
Q

Anxiety affects
1. Judgement
2. Attention
3. Memory
4. Concentration

a.1, 2 and 4 only

b.all

c.1 only

d.1 and 2 only

A

b.all

33
Q

The phases of the GAS are

a.Psychological, Psychosomatic and Somatic

b.Physiological, Psychosomatic and Somatic

c.Cognitive, physical and imaginary

d.Alarm, Resistance Exhaustion

A

d.Alarm, Resistance Exhaustion

34
Q

How will the successful completion of a stressful task affect a pilot’s performance when a similar situation is experienced in the future?

a.The amount of stress experienced will be the same

b.Any stress will cause a reduction in performance

c.The stress level experienced will increase

d.The amount of stress experienced will be less

A

d.The amount of stress experienced will be less

35
Q

Which if the following statements regarding stress and fatigue is correct?

a.Stress and fatigue are synonymous

b.Fatigue may be positive but stress is always negative

c.Stress and fatigue may both be positive

d.Stress may be positive but fatigue is always negative

A

d.Stress may be positive but fatigue is always negative

36
Q

A pilot is skilled when he or she; 1. trains or practises regularly. 2. knows how to manage himself or herself. 3. possesses all the knowledge associated with his aircraft. 4. knows how to keep resource is in reserve for coping with the unexpected.
Select one:

a.2, 3, 4.

b.1, 2, 4

c.1, 2, 3, 4.

d.1, 2.

A

b.1, 2, 4

37
Q

When operating complex and highly automated aircraft systems, the term ‘mode awareness’ describes

a.The pilot should maintain situation awareness as regards the appropriate automation mode required for a particular phase of flight and the opportunity for manual input to interact with the various modes

b.The pilot’s awareness of the automation mode under which the aircraft is operating and understanding of the interaction between a mode of operation and a particular phase of flight

c.The current mode in which the cockpit automation is operating should always be transparent to the pilot and that the interface allows for pilot interaction, including manual override of the automation

d.The automation system providing unambiguous feedback to the pilot of its operating mode, including the requirement for specific pilot input depending on the particular phase of flight

A

b.The pilot’s awareness of the automation mode under which the aircraft is operating and understanding of the interaction between a mode of operation and a particular phase of flight

38
Q

What can a pilot do to avoid automation complacency?
Select one:

a.Regard the automatic system as additional crew members that need to be cross checked as well.

b.Always try to enhance your aviation related knowledge during low workload periods.

c.Nothing, because this system inherent.

d.Always fly the whole flight manually to remain in the man machine loop.

A

a.Regard the automatic system as additional crew members that need to be cross checked as well.

39
Q

A high degree of cockpit automation may alter the traditional tasks of the pilots in a way that

a.it is guaranteed that the crew maintains always situational awareness

b.Crew Coordination can be neglected on long haul flights without compromising safety

c.the crew can pay more attention to solve the problem in an abnormal situation without monitoring the automatic systems

d.fail
the attention of the cockpit crew will become reduced with the consequence of ‘being out of the loop’

A

d.fail
the attention of the cockpit crew will become reduced with the consequence of ‘being out of the loop’

40
Q

One of the measures to counter the disadvantages of automation and the potential threats is to

a.revert to a lower level of automation

b.assign one pilot as sole operator

c.remove pilot input and rely entirely on automation

d.focus on one instrument at a time

A

a.revert to a lower level of automation

41
Q

In problem-solving, what determines the transition from rule-based activities to a knowledge-based activity?
Select one:

a.The unsuitability of the automated actions.

b.The unsuitability of the known rules for the problem posed.

c.Attentional capture.

d.Knowledge of rules which apply to the problem posed.

A

b.The unsuitability of the known rules for the problem posed.

42
Q

Long-term memory is an essential component of the pilot’s knowledge and expertise. Which of the following statements is correct regarding long-term memory?

a.Its capacity is limited

b.Long-term memory stores knowledge on a temporary basis only

c.It is desirable to pre-activate knowledge stored on the long-term memory to have it available when required

d.The recovery of information from long-term memory is immediate and easy

A

c.It is desirable to pre-activate knowledge stored on the long-term memory to have it available when required

43
Q

Once a pilot has constructed a mental model he/she tends to:

a.Give equal weight to contradicting and confirming information

b.Give undue weight to information that confirms the model

c.Alter that model unnecessarily frequently

d.Give undue weight to information that contradicts the model

A

b.Give undue weight to information that confirms the model

44
Q

Our mental model of the world is based on

a.information and experiences stored that can be easily changed

b.our experiences and learning

c.our perception of the environment surrounding us

d.environmental stimuli received at that moment

A

b.our experiences and learning

45
Q

Which statement is true of a mental model?

a.It is a vivid recollection of an event independent of stimuli

b.It is susceptible to change on receipt of new sensory information

c.It provides a standard operating procedure for any pilot to follow

d.Once formed it is difficult to alter

A

d.Once formed it is difficult to alter