Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Sepsis > Host microbe interactions > Flashcards

Host microbe interactions Flashcards

1
Q

Which immune system complements are activated to bacteria?

A

phagocytes
antibody and B lymphocytes
compliment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which immune system complements are activated to Viruses?

A

T lymphocytes

antibody and B lymphoctes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is produced by the keratinocytes that has antimicrobial properties?

A

Defensins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What do the sebaceous or sweat glands secrete that has antibmicrobial properties?

A

Fatty acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is taenia paedis? Where is it most common?

A

cracking of the skin btw the toes

in patients who are debilitated, with pressure sores in areas that havent been taken good care of

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Fixed dialation of the bronchus

A

Decreases the clearance of mucus –> increases the sputum stagnancy and increases infection risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which immune system complements are activated to Fungi?

A

Phagocytes
T lymphocytes
Eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Risk factors that increase the risk in genito-urinary system?

A

Imparied bladder emptying

Catheterisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are phagocytes?

A

Part of innate imune response

Swallows the organisation after opsonisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How do phagocytes swallow and kill organisms?

A

Via oxygen dependent or independent mechanisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What immune system component is responsible for the major control for control of bacteria and fungi like Step,Staph, coliforms, aspergillus and candidia?

A

Phagocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What deficiency is seen in those with haematological malignancy like acute leukaemia, myelodysplasia or cytotoxic chemotherapy?

A

Phagocyte deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the major function of the CD4 Helper T cells?

A

Enhance the phagocytes killing of organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the major function of the Cytolytic T-lymphocytes?

A

Find cells that have abnormalities on the surface (either due to infection or cancer) and kill them directly

Don’t need help from others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which immune system component is helpful to kill intracellular organisms and infected cells?

A

T lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which conditions are T lymphoctes deficient in?

A

HIV infection (acquired deficiency in CD4+ lymphocytes)

Lymphoma

Primary immunodeficiency syndromes (e.g. SCID)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which cells mature into plasma cells?

A

B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which cells produce immunoglobulins?

A

B cells or immunoglobulins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which immunoglobulins are produced first and what are their features?

A

IgM

Fast, first response, weak affinity for antigen

20
Q

Which immunoglobulins are produced second line and what are their features?

A

IgG

Later on, strong affinity for antigen, takes a few weeks to reach max level

21
Q

How do immunoglobulins help to kill antigens?

A

Stick to the suface of antigen and trap them for the phagocytes to come and swallow them

22
Q

Which disease has immunoglobulin deficiency as a feature?

A

Myeloma

Primary immunodeficiency syndrome

23
Q

Which disease affects CD4+ T lymphocytes?

A

HIV

progressive immunodeficiency

24
Q

When is opportunistic infection seen in HIV patients?

A

progressive immunodeficiency that has been there for some time

25
Q

Which pathogens commonly cause invasive infections in those with HIV regardless of CD4 count?

A

pneumococcal (S. pneumoniae) disease (bacteraemia/meningitis/empyema

26
Q

What are the infections a person with CD4 count <350 is susceptible to?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis, candidiasis

27
Q

What are the infections a person with CD4 count <200 cam get?

A

Pneumocystis jirovecii, Toxoplasma gondii

28
Q

What are the infections a person with CD4 count <100 can get?

A

Cryptococcus neoformans, Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

29
Q

Which conditions cause functional hyposlenism?

A

sickle cell disease, cirrhosis and coeliac disease

30
Q

RTA with spenic bleeding, what do you do?

A

Give vaccination to present susceptibilty to invasive infection from encapsulated organisms

Splenectomy

Antibiotic prophylaxis with amoxicillin

31
Q

Which encapsulated organisms increase invasive infection risk in hyposplenism?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae (pneumococcus)

Haemophilus influenzae type B (HiB)

Neisseria meningitidis (meningococcus)

32
Q

What is hyposplenism?

A

Decreased spleen function

33
Q

A few common causes of hyposplenism include:

A

Splenectomy (trauma, ITP< klymphona etc.)

Fucntional hyposplenism (sickle cell, cirrhosis and sickle cell disease)

34
Q

What are the symptoms shown generally by immunocompromised indiviuals?

A

Not general symptoms like normal people

Fever may be absent

Lack of inflammatory response (CRP / neutrophilia)

Non-specifically unwell, no localising features

35
Q

How do you treat those with infection if they are immunocompromised?

A

broad spectrum antibiotics in those who are immunocompromised

36
Q

Is immunosuppression levels in acute leukaemia treated with bone marrow transplant high?

A

Yes, super high

37
Q

What are the strong association steroids have with regards to their usage?

A

fungal infections (Candida, Aspergillus)

38
Q

What do anti-TNF alpha therapies have a strong association and risk to?

A

Intracellular infections by Mycobacterium tubercuclosis

Fungal infections

39
Q

What drugs are used to treat serious haematological malignancies?

A

Purine analogues (fludarabine, cytarabine)

40
Q

Which infections are increased wrt to the risk if people use purine analogues?

A 
Viral infections (especially Herpes Simplex Virus and Varicella Zoster Virus)
Pneumocystis jirovecii
41
Q

Why is co-trimoxazole prophylaxis used in patients with HIV?

A

To prevent pneumocystitis jerovecci pneumonia

42
Q

Which antigungal agent is used in those with bone bmarrow transplants and why?

A

Itraconazole

to prevent invasive aspergillosis

43
Q

Which drug is given to patients with splenectomy and why?

A

Penicillin V to prevent pneumococcal disease

44
Q

Which groups are give influenza vaccines?

A 
Pregnant women
Chronic heart/lung/kidney/liver disease
Immunocompromise
Diabetes
Aged >65 years
45
Q

Which groups are given vaccination for streptococcus penumoniae infection?

A 
Chronic heart/lung/kidney/liver disease
Hyposplenism
Immunocompromise (including HIV infection)
Diabetes
Aged >65 years
46
Q

Which groups are given haemophilus influenzae vaccine?

A

All children

Has now essentially eliminated majority of these infections

Sepsis (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions