Hormones I Flashcards

1
Q
Which hormones require neural stimulation for them to be released?
A. Epinephrine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Renin
D. A and B
E. AOTA
A

D. AOTA

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2
Q
Which of the following characterizes Neural Communication and NOT hormonal?
A. Short term effects
B. No voluntary control
C. Mobile messages
D. Slow onset of action
A

A. Short term effects

Neural communications are:

  • fixed communication system
  • have fast onset of action
  • have short term effects
  • partially voluntary (e.g. muscle cotnraction)
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3
Q

A cell with the ability to bind selectively a given hormone via a cognate receptor

A

Target cell

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4
Q

A factor determining concentration of hormone at target cell in relation to its dissociation constant:

A

Affinity with specific plasma proteins

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5
Q

Factors affecting hormone concentration at target cell in relation to dilution effect:

A

Proximity of the target cell to hormone source

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6
Q

Which of the following affects the actual response of the target cell to the hormone?
A. Affinity of the hormone to plasma protein
B. Proximity of the target cell to the hormone source
C. Metabolism of the hormone in the target cell
D. Rate of clearance of hormone from the plasma
E. Conversion of inactive or sub-optimally active forms of the hormone into the fully active form

A

C. Metabolism of the hormone in the target cell

The rest of the choices are factors affecting the hormone CONCENTRATION

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7
Q

Which of the following is not a factor affecting the actual response of the target cell to the hormone?
A. Number, relative activity and state of occupancy of the specific receptors
B. Rate of synthesis and secretion of hormone
C. Presence of factors within the cell that are necessary for hormone response
D. Up or down regulation of the receptor upon ligand interaction
E. Post-receptor desensitization

A

B. Rate of synthesis and secretion of hormone

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8
Q

Cell-associated recognition molecules that are proteins in nature exhibiting a high degree of specificity and discrimination of a hormone

A

Receptors

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9
Q

Which of the following is an important biochemical feature for hormone-receptor interaction?
A. Binding should be specific
B. Binding should be saturable
C. Binding should occur within the concentration range of the expected biological response
D. Binding is displaceable by agonist or antagonist
E. AOTA

A

E. AOTA (Harper 499)

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10
Q

Which of the following is true?
A, Glucocorticoid hormones directly enter the nucleus
B. Thyroid hormones and retinoic acid encounter their cognate receptor in the cytoplasm
C. With thyroid receptors, ligand binding results in dissociation of coactivator complex from the receptor
D. Cognate heterodimeric receptors of thyroid hormones are already bound to the appropriate response elements
E. Glucocorticoid receptor exists in a complex with hsp60

A

D. Cognate heterodimeric receptors of thyroid hormones are already bound to the appropriate response elements

Glucocorticoid hormones (solid triangles) encounter their cognate receptor (GR) in the cytoplasm, where GR exists in a complex with a chaperone protein, heat shock protein 90 (hsp).
By contrast, thyroid hormones
and retinoic acid directly enter the nucleus, where their cognate heterodimeric receptors are already bound to the appropriate response elements with an associated transcription corepressor complex. Ligand binding results in dissociation of the corepressor complex from the receptor, allowing an activator complex, consisting of the TR-TRE and coactivator, to assemble.

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11
Q

Receptors of no known ligands are called:

A

Orphan receptors

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12
Q

Which hormone receptor types are members of a large super family of nuclear receptors?

A

Steroid and Thyroid type

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13
Q
Liver cells have more than one receptor. Which of the following is NOT a hormone that target the liver cells?
A. Glucagon
B. Insulin
C. Thyroxine
D. Epinephrine
E. Cortisol
A

C. Thyroxine

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14
Q

This accurately describes the relation of ligand to target cell:
A. One ligand can affect different cell types.
B. More than one ligand can affect a single cell type.
C. One ligand can exert many different effects in one or more target cells.
D. Many different molecules circulate in the extracellular fluid, but only a few are recognized by hormone receptors
E. AOTA

A

E. AOTA

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15
Q

Which of the following does not characterize a hormone?
A. High affinity for a receptor
B. Irreversible binding
C. No additive effect once all receptors are occupied
D. Occur within a concentration of the expected biological response
E. Specific and Saturable

A

B. (should be reversible)

C. is the definition of saturable
D. is the definition of specific

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16
Q

What are the functional domains of receptors?

A

Recognition and Coupling domain

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17
Q
Which functional domain of a receptor is responsible for signal transduction?
A. Extracellular domain
B. Recognition Domain
C. Coupling Domain
D. Ligand domain
E. NOTA
A

C. Coupling domain

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18
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of the coupling domain?
A. the transmembrane portion
B. faces the cytoplasm
C. couples hormone recognition with some intracellular function
D. binds the hormone
E. for receptor-effector coupling

A

D. (function of recognition domain)

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19
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of the coupling domain?
A. the transmembrane portion
B. faces the cytoplasm
C. couples hormone recognition with some intracellular function
D. binds the hormone

A

D. is for recognition domain

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20
Q

Which of the two classes of receptors generates signals that regulate various intracellular functions?

A

Membrane or Cell surface receptors

(Intracellular receptors provide signals to specific genes to affect rate of transcription via genomic activation or silencing)

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21
Q
Which of the following DOES NOT characterize cell surface receptors?
A. can close or open channels
B. can regulate protein synthesis
C. can inactivate enzymes
D. can affect cytoskeletal proteins
E. NOTA
A

B. is a function of intracellular receptors via regulation of gene transcription

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22
Q
Which of the following DOES NOT utilize intracellular receptors?
A. IGF-1
B. cortisol
C. vitamin A
D. thyroxine
E. vitamin D
A

A. IGF-1 (a hydrophilic hormone; note that although it’s Group II, it requires transport protein)

IGF-1 (Jak-Stat pathway), insulin (tyrosine kinase), Protein, polypeptide and catecholamines (GPCR) utilize membrane/ cell surface receptors

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23
Q

This dual function mechanism provides the first step in amplification of the hormonal response

A

Receptor-effector coupling

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24
Q
The α subunit of the G protein includes which characteristic?
A. ATPase activity
B. Hydrolytic activity
C. GTPase activity
D. K+ channel stimulation
E. PLC activation
A

C. GTPase activity

D and E:
The βγ complexes have been associated with K+ channel stimulation and phospholipase C activation. (Harper 522)

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25
``` A phosphodiesterase can terminate response by converting cAMP to: A. ADP B. 3'-ADP C. 5'-AMP D. ATP E. 3'-AMP ```
C. 5'-AMP
26
``` PKA exists in an inactive form as: A. R2C2 heterotetramer B. R1C1 heterodimer C. RaRb homodimer D. RaCa homodimer E. NOTA ```
A. R2C2 heterotetramer PKA exists in an inactive form as an R2C2 heterotetramer consisting of two regulatory (R) and two catalytic (C) subunits.
27
Which subunit of PKA, with the presence of cAMP, is activated after dissociation?
Catalytic subunits
28
Which of the following is a function of activated PKA? A. converts proteins to phosphoprotein B. phosphorylates proteins at Ser and Thr residues C. removes phosphates from Ser and Thr residues D. Both A and B E. AOTA
D. The active catalytic subunits [of PKA] phosphorylate a number of target proteins on serine and threonine residues [with Mg++ and ATP]. Phosphatases remove phosphate from these residues and thus terminate the physiologic response.
29
IGF-1 activates which signaling pathway?
Jak-Stat pathway
30
Polypeptides and Catecholamines utilizes which specific type of receptor?
GPCR
31
Insulin utilizes which specific type of receptor?
Tyrosine kinase (Class II: Cysteine family)
32
``` Which receptor subunit serves as hormone-binding domain for insulin? A. Alpha subunits B. Beta subunits C. Gamma subunits D. Delta subunits E. Epsilon subunits ```
A. Alpha subunits
33
``` Which receptor subunit serves as ATP-binding domains for insulin? A. Alpha subunits B. Beta subunits C. Gamma subunits D. Delta subunits E. Epsilon subunits ```
B. Beta subunits
34
Autophosphorylation of intracellular enzymes as instigated by insulin binding will activate which signaling pathway? A. Phosphoinositide 3-kinase pathway B. Mitogen-activated protein kinase pathway C. Janus kinase pathway D. Both A and B E. AOTA
D. → Activates PI-3K signaling pathway that will cause the exteriorization of GLUT4 → Activates MAP Kinase signaling pathway (mitogenic effects) which will phosphorylate certain proteins, or activate certain translation factors which will cause cell growth and gene expression via protein synthesis
35
Which of the following is included in the domains of Group I hormone receptors? A. Domain responsible for hormone binding B. Domain that binds to specific DNA sequences C. Site that interacts with coregulator proteins D. Domain that specifies binding to proteins that influence intracellular trafficking of receptor E. AOTA
E. AOTA
36
What class of hormone (based on chemical composition) is calcitriol?
Steroid hormone
37
Amino acid derivative hormones are synthesized from the amino acid:
Tyrosine
38
2 Hormones derived from Tyr:
Catecholamines | Thyroid hormones
39
Glycoprotein hormones are: A. Homodimer B. Heterodimer
B. Heterodimer Same α subunit but different β subunit - FSH, LH, CG and TSH The α-GSU is common to TSH, FSH, and LH, whereas the β subunit is specific to the hormone (i.e., β-TSH, β-FSH, and β-LH are all unique).
40
Class (by chemical composition) of Anterior pituitary hormones
Peptide/Protein hormones
41
Histamine is derived from which amino acid? A. His B. Trp C. Tyr
A. Histidine
42
Serotonin is derived from which amino acid? A. His B. Trp C. Tyr
B. tryptophan
43
Melatonin is derived from which amino acid? A. His B. Trp C. Tyr
B. tryptophan
44
``` Which of the following hormones are derived from fatty acids? A. Prostaglandins B. Prostacyclins C. Thromboxanes D. Leukotrienes E. AOTA ```
E. AOTA
45
What is the intracellular messenger of Group I hormones?
Hormone-receptor complex itself
46
Group (by solubility property) of Eicosanoids
Group II
47
Location of receptors for lipid soluble ligands A. On the outer surface of the plasma membrane B. On the inner surface of the plasma membrane C. On Organelles
C. On Organelles
48
Location of Receptors for intracellular signaling A. On the outer surface of the plasma membrane B. On the inner surface of the plasma membrane C. On Organelles
B. On the inner surface of the plasma membrane
49
Receptors for water soluble ligands A. On the outer surface of the plasma membrane B. On the inner surface of the plasma membrane C. On Organelles
A. On the outer surface of the plasma membrane
50
For group II hormones can be further subdivided into four groups. What is the group for those with kinases of phosphate cascade as their 2nd messengers?
Group IID
51
For group II hormones can be further subdivided into four groups. What is the group for those with cGMP as their 2nd messengers through guanylyl cyclase?
Group IIB
52
For group II hormones can be further subdivided into four groups. What is the group for those with calcium ion and phosphatidylinositol as their 2nd messengers through Phospholipase C?
Group IIC
53
``` Which of the following does not utilize cAMP as second messenger? A. α1-adrenergic catecholamines B. a2-adrenergic catecholamines C. B-adrenergic catecholamines D. calcitonin E. Chorionic gonadotropin, human (CG) ```
A. α1-adrenergic catecholamines (calcium or phosphatidylinositols (or both))
54
``` Which of the following does not utilize calcium or phosphatidylinositols (or both) as second messenger? A. Oxytocin B. Platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF) C. Substance P D. Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) E. Prolactin ```
E. Prolactin (kinase or phosphatase cascade)
55
``` Which of the following does not utilize kinase or phosphatase cascade as second messenger? A. Adiponectin B. Leptin C. CCK D. Erythropoietin E. Chorionic somatomammotropin ```
C. CCK (Ca++ or PI3)
56
Anterior pituitary hormones that do not belong to Group IIA:
GH and Prolactin (Group IID)
57
ADH belongs to which groups of hormone according to receptor location?
Groups IIA and IIC
58
Which growth factor belongs to Groups IIC and IID
Platelet-derived Growth Factor
59
Final organ to produce active form of Vitamin D
Kidneys
60
storage location of catecholamines
chromaffin granules
61
Conversion of testosterone to its active form (DHT) happens in which organs?
skin and prostate
62
``` Which of the following do not have intracellular reservoir? A. Steroid hormones B. Thyroid hormones C. Catecholamines D. Insulin ```
A. Steroid hormones Thyroid hormones – stored for weeks Catecholamines and PTH – hours Insulin – several days
63
Hormones bound to transport proteins are not recognized by which enzymes in the liver?
Cytochrome enzymes for degradation
64
This represents the | circulating reservoir for hormones
Transport proteins
65
True or False: | When hormones are bound to transport proteins – they are inactive
True
66
Which thyroid hormone has a higher affinity to transport | proteins?
T4
67
Which thyroid hormone is more potent?
T3
68
Main androgen in the zona reticularis
DHEA
69
A small percentage of steroid hormone is produced in situ from:
Acetyl-CoA via mevalonate and squalene
70
During storage, free cholesterol is esterified to cholesterol ester once inside cytoplasm by which enzyme?
Acetyl-CoA acyltransferase
71
Enzyme that converts cholesterol ester to free cholesterol
Cholesterol ester hydrolase (esterase)
72
The rate-limiting step for steroidogenesis
ACTH-dependent diffusion of free cholesterol into the mitochondria by uptake of StAR (steroidogenic acute regulatory) protein
73
``` Pregnenolone production is catalyzed by: A. CYP11A1 B. P450scc C. CYP17 D. Either A or B E. NOTA ```
D.
74
The action of P450scc on cholesterol is A. sequential hydroxylation at C21 and C20 B. sequential hydroxylation at C22 and C20 C. sequential hydroxylation at C22 and C21 D. sequential hydroxylation at C21 and C23
B. sequential hydroxylation at C22 and C20
75
``` Which of the following is not an effect of estrogen? A. Increases vasodilation B. Increases HDL synthesis C. Activates Lipoprotein lipase D. Cell proliferation ```
C. should be Hormone-sensitive lipase
76
2 hormones that increase the receptors for LH
FSH and estrogen
77
These enzymes for mineralocorticoid synthesis are only found in the zona glomerulosa
18-hydroxylase | 18-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase
78
These are the most potent regulators of aldosterone
K+ levels and Angiotensin II
79
These are mitochondrial enzymes encountered by pregnenolone to convert it to progesterone
3β-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase (converts to ketone) and Δ5,4-isomerase (transfers double bond from C5 to C4)
80
This adrenal cortical enzyme has both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid activity
21-hydroxylase (converts progesterone/17-hydroxyprogesterone to 11-DOC
81
A mitochondrial enzyme that converts 11-DOC to corticosterone
11β-hydroxylase
82
What are the enzymes required for glucocorticoid synthesis?
17-, 21-, 11β-hydroxylases
83
The action of this enzyme on pregnenolone will set the path of steroidogenesis to glucocorticoid synthesis
17α-hydroxylase (attaches a hydroxyl group at C17 to yield 17-hydroxypregnenolone)
84
The main transport protein for glucocorticoids
Cortisol-binding globulin (Transcortin) the other is albumin
85
Hormone that increases the synthesis of CBG in the liver
Estrogen
86
Steroid hormones that will bind with high affinity on CBG
DOC (deoxycorticosterone) and Progesterone
87
Steroid that weakly binds with CBG
Gonadal steroids: | Estradiol, estrone, testosterone, DHT
88
DHEA being acted on by 3β-HD and Δ5,4-Isomerase will yield the more potent:
Androstenedione
89
This double-function enzyme converts the pregnenolone to the major androgen, DHEA
17-hydroxylase (with 17, 20-lyase function)
90
Enzyme that converts Androstenedione into Testosterone in the testis
17β-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase
91
2 pathways for testicular steroidogenesis:
Progesterone (Delta-4 pathway) and | DHEA (Delta-5 pathway)
92
Which enzyme will set the path of testicular steroidogenesis to delta-4 pathway?
3β-HD and Δ5,4-isomerase
93
The predominant pathway of testicular steroidogenesis
Delta-5 or DHEA pathway
94
``` What reaction inactivates Testosterone? A. Oxidation of C17 B. Reduction of C17 C. Oxidation of the A-ring double bond D. Reduction of the A-ring double bone ```
A. Oxidation of C17
95
Conversion of Testosterone to the more potent Dihydrotestosterone (DHT) is by the action of the enzyme:
5α-reductase (NADPH-dependent)
96
Precursor for the most potent type of estrogen
Testosterone | precursor to 17β-estradiol
97
Precursor to the post-menopausal type of estrogen
Androstenedione (precursor to estrone)
98
This is the estrogen of adrenal origin
Estrone
99
The estrogen of pregnancy is produced by the:
placenta
100
What catalyzes the formation of estrogens via peripheral aromatization of androgens
Aromatase Enzyme Complex
101
``` The synthesis of estrogen from androgens requires the following, except: A. 3 hydroxylation steps B. Oxygen C. NADPH D.NADH E. Aromatase Enzyme Complex ```
D. NADH
102
Which cells of the ovary is the Aromatase Enzyme Complex found?
Granulosa cells
103
What enzyme is produced by the placenta to convert estrone to estriol?
16α-hydroxylase
104
Cell source of testosterone and androstenedione in Female
Theca cells
105
``` Which of the following organs is not a source of aromatase? A. Liver B. Skin C. Adipose tissue D. Uterus E. Breast ```
D. Uterus
106
In which structure is the progesterone the end product due to its lack of enzymes for the progression of steroidogenesis?
Corpus luteum
107
Hormone that increases the production of Sex Hormone Binding Globulin
Estrogen
108
True or False: | TEBG has higher affinity to estrogen than testosterone
False: | Testosterone-Estrogen Binding globulin has higher affinity with testosterone
109
Which hormone helps the body absorb calcium from the GIT?
Calcitriol
110
Between a light and dark-skinned individual, who has more Vitamin D?
Lighter skinned because melanin shields the skin from UV rays
111
Precursor of Vitamin D3 produced with exposure to UV light
7-dehydrocholesterol
112
Which liver enzyme converts cholecalciferol to 25-hydroxycholecalciferol?
NADPH-dependent cytochrome P450 reductase and CytP450 Vitamin D3-25-hydroxylase
113
Which renal enzyme converts 25-hydroxycholcalciferol to the active form of Vitamin D?
1α-hydroxylase
114
The predominant form of Vitamin D in the plasma
25-hydroxycholecalciferol or Vitamin D3
115
The active form of vitamin D
1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol or Calcitriol
116
Calcitriol will increase absorption of which substances in the intestine? (2) answers
Calcium and Phosphate
117
In which layer/s of the epidermis is the 7-dehydrocholesterol found?
Malpighian layer of the epidermis
118
In which organelle does the conversion of Vit D3 to 25(OH)-D3 occur?
ER
119
``` The following is required in the conversion of D3 to 25(OH)-D3, except: A. Fe++ B. Mg++ C. NADPH D. O2 E. uncharacterized cytoplasmic factor ```
A. Fe++
120
In which organelle does the conversion of 25(OH)-D3 to calcitriol occur?
mitochondria hydroxylation of C1
121
What are the enzymes involved in the final step of calcitriol synthesis?
``` Renal Ferredoxin reductase (flavoprotein) Renal Ferredoxin (Iron-sulfur protein) Cytochrome P450 ```
122
The major adrenal medulla product
Epinephrine
123
Catecholamines are derived from which amino acid?
Tyrosine
124
Which of the following is the correct sequence of catecholamine synthesis? A. Side chain hydroxylation > Ring hydroxylation > Side chain decarboxylation > Side chain N-methylation B. Ring hydroxylation > Side chain decarboxylation > Side chain hydroxylation > Side chain N-methylation C. Side chain N-methylation > Side chain hydroxylation > Ring hydroxylation > Side chain decarboxylation
B. Ring hydroxylation > Side chain decarboxylation > Side chain hydroxylation > Side chain N-methylation
125
The rate-limiting enzyme of catecholamine synthesis
Tyrosine hydroxylase
126
Cofactor needed in the first step of catecholamine synthesis
Tetrahydrobiopterin
127
The first 2 steps of catecholamine synthesis occur in which part of the chromaffin cell?
cytoplasm
128
The decarboxylation of side chain in catecholamine biosynthesis requires which coenzyme?
Pyridoxal phosphat
129
The decarboxylation of side chain in catecholamine biosynthesis requires which coenzyme?
Pyridoxal phosphate
130
The last 2 steps of catecholamine synthesis occur in which compartment of the chromaffin cells?
chromaffin granules
131
the action of dopamine-β-hydroxylase requires which compounds?
Ascorbate Copper Fumarate
132
Modulator compound in the synthesis of NE
Fumarate
133
Compound found in the active site of the enzyme responsible for the formation of NE
Copper
134
Electron donor in the production of NE
Ascorbate
135
Which hormone promotes the conversion of NE to Epinephrine?
Cortisol
136
Enzyme activated by the stimulation of cortisol to produce EPI
Phenylethanolamine-N-methyltransferase (PNMT)
137
Which enzyme is inhibited by the presence of epinephrine?
tyrosine hydroxylase
138
The degradation of catecholamines is catalyzed by which enzymes?
Monoamine oxidase and | Catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT)
139
The end product of catecholamine degradation
vanillylmandelic acid (VMA)
140
Which product is expected to increase in the urine with pheochromocytoma?
VMA
141
The glycosylated protein precursor of thyroid hormones
thyroglobulin
142
The majority of iodine in thyroglobulin are found in its inactive precursors:
Monoiodotyrosine and Diiodotyrosine
143
Stimulation by ___ increases all aspects of thyroid hormone biosynthesis
Thyroid Stimulating Hormone
144
The prohormone released by the thyroid gland
Thyroxine
145
Which of the 2 thyroid hormones has higher affinity to transport proteins?
Thyroxine (T4)
146
This is considered as the active thyroid hormone
Triiodothyronine
147
``` The peripheral deiodinase is found in the following organs except: A. Pituitary B. Parathyroid gland C. Liver D. Kidneys E. NOTA ```
B. Parathyroid gland
148
The sequential steps to Thyroid Hormone Biosynthesis
Iodide trapping > Oxidation of Iodide to Iodine > Organification/Iodination of Tyr residues in thyroglobulin > Coupling/ Conjugation
149
``` Which of the following is not a peptide hormone? A. Insulin B. PTH C. Angiotensin D. LPH E. NOTA ```
E. NOTA
150
This is the 15 hydrophobic amino acids at the N-terminal of the insulin
Leader sequence/ signal sequence
151
In the ER, removal of the signal sequence in insulin biosynthesis will result to the product:
preinsulin
152
The 2 amino acids in the site-specific cleavage sites of proinsulin
Arginine and Lysine
153
``` How many amino acids form the A and B chain of insulin, respectively? A. 20, 31 B. 21, 30 C. 22, 33 D. 23, 40 ```
B. 21 - A chain; 30 - B chain
154
``` The intradisulfide chain of insulin is found at: A. amino acid 5-15 of B chain B. amino acid 7-14 of B chain C. amino acid 19-20 of A chain D. amino acid 6-11 of A chain ```
D. amino acid 6-11 of A chain
155
Where are the interdisulfide chains of isulin found?
- between amino acid 7 (B chain) and 7 (A chain) | - between amino acid 19 (B chain) and 20 (A chain)
156
This conformation allows the formation of critical structures within insulin for it to reach maturity
INTRA and INTER chain disulfide links
157
Primary gene product in PTH biosynthesis
Prepro-PTH
158
Immediate precursor of PTH
Pro-PTH
159
The synthesis and secretion of PTH are regulated by:
Plasma ionized calcium levels
160
Calcium molecules attach to ________ in Parathyroid gland surface, which allows this protein to monitor and regulate the amount of calcium in the blood
Calcium-sensing receptor
161
The full biologic activity site of PTH is numbered:
1-34 residue
162
The region for receptor binding sites of PTH is numbered:
24-34
163
The PTH site-specific cleavage sites are marked by which amino acids?
Arginine, Lysine and Valine
164
Which cells of the kidney produce Renin?
Juxtaglomerular cells at the afferent arteriole
165
Which of Angiotensin is a decapeptide or an octapeptide?
``` Decapeptide = Ang I Octapeptide = Ang II ```
166
Which enzyme of the lungs cleaver Ang I to Ang II?
Angiotensin Converting Enzyme
167
How does Angiotensin II stimulate aldosterone | synthesis
Activates cAMP to increase conversion of cholesterol to pregnenolone via Cyt 11A1 and conversion of corticosterone to 18-hydroxycorticosterone via 18-hydroxylase
168
Which alpha-2-globulin produced by the liver is cleaved by a proteolytic enzyme from the kidneys in response to decreased blood pressure?
Angiotensinogen (alpha-2-globulin produced by the livers) | Renin (proteolytic enzymes produced by the kidneys)
169
Class of anti-hypertensive drugs: Captopril, Lisinopril
ACE-inhibitors
170
Class of anti-hypertensive drugs: Losartan
Angiotensin II receptor blockers
171
The long polypeptide chain, located in the anterior and intermediate lobes of the pituitary, that consists of peptides that act as hormones and neurotransmitters
Proopiomelanocortin
172
Hormones that come from POMC
ACTH, LPH, MSH
173
Neurotransmitters that come from POMC
Enkephalins and Endorphins
174
POMC has how many amino acids?
285
175
``` Which of the following does not have POMC? A. brain B. placenta C. reproductive tract D. GIT E. lungs ```
None of those
176
The amino-terminal fragment of POMC produces which Hormone?
gamma-MSH
177
What hormone and peptide is generated from cleavage of ACTH?
alpha-MSH: hormone | Corticotrophin-like Intermediate Peptide (CLIP): peptide
178
Which POMC fragment is the source of β-MSH
β-Lipotropin cleaved to form the C-terminal of γ-Lipotropin
179
Cleavage of β-Lipotropin fragments will produce
γ-Lipotropin and β-Endorphin
180
β-Endorphin is the source of which neurotransmitter?
Met-enkephalin
181
``` Which facilitates the proximation of disulfide chains of active insulin? a. Leader sequence b. C peptide c. Disulfide bonds itself d. Formation of pro-insulin ```
d. Formation of pro-insulin