HMMS Flashcards

1
Q

Primary difference between SAL and RFA missiles?

A

SAL: tracks laser energy
RF: tracks reflected RF energy, has a guidance section

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2
Q

The the M36 training missile is detected, all live missiles on board the aircraft will display what?

A

NA

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3
Q

How many g’s approx to arm missile?

A

10gs

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4
Q

AGM -114R minimum arming distance?

A

375m

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5
Q

Mitssiles arm at approx what distance after launch?

A

181m

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6
Q

What amount of thrust is required for the missile to launch from rails?

A

600-830lbs

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7
Q

The thrust duration is what?
What’s the max velocity?

A

2.5-3.5
435m/s

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8
Q

Which component of the M299 launcher contains the training missile emulator which replicates area missile operation?

A

Launcher Electronic Assembly

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9
Q

Which MPD page allows the aircrew to electronically arm the M299 missile launcher?

A

WPN UTIL

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10
Q

Normal pylon articulation limits when the missiles or rockets are actioned?

A

+4 to -15

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11
Q

What is the minimum altitude to launch a SAL missile?

A

32 ft

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12
Q

A Sal missile that has not been coded will display what inside the missile icon?

A

L

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13
Q

RF missiles have what instead of a straight line at the seeker?

A

V

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14
Q

An RF missile that has an over temp condition will display what in the missile icon?

A

OT

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15
Q

What is displayed in the missile icon in the event of a hang fire?
How long will HANGFIRE be displayed in the HDU?

A

MH
6 sec

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16
Q

The SAL missile LOBLnconstraints symbology represents +/- ____ degrees and is being driven by the _____ in the crewmembers display?

A

20
Missile seeker

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17
Q

To prevent video washout 5e aircraft should be positioned _______ to the side from which the missile will be launched?

A

3-5 degrees

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18
Q

The ALT channel is only available after a ——- channel has been selected?

A

PRIORITY channel

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19
Q

The missile quantity defaults to what. For both channels if sufficient missiles are available of the selected warhead.

A

3

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20
Q

What button is used to maintain the missile in a LOAL flight trajectory

A

LOBL INHIBIT

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21
Q

What is the tri-service PRF code range?

A

1111-1788

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22
Q

The R missile main warhead defaults at power up for anti-armor with which fuse selection?

A

SQ (Discrete code of 1755]

23
Q

What negative factor during target illumination will cause the laser energy to be masked within the target?

A

Entrapment

24
Q

That are the 3 LOAL trajectory modes for the R missile?

A

Flat
DIR
Loft

25
Q

When the TADS LOS and the missile seeker LOSS differ by more that ____ of back scatter message will be displayed in the weapons inhibit selection of the HAD?

A

2 degrees

26
Q

Is backscatter a safety or performance inhibit? Can it be over ridden?

A

Safety, no

27
Q

Minimum and maximum ranges of a K and R missile?

A

Min: 500m
Max: 7.1k

28
Q

Which trajectory should be used to engage a bunker?

A

Flat

29
Q

When laser designating a 5000m target for a R missile, the last ____ seconds of the TOF is required to be on 5he target?

A

6 (terminal guidance)

30
Q

The R missile LOFT constraints box is being driven in the crewmembers displayed by the _____ or _____

A

Stored coordinate data or SEL LOS

31
Q

The remote designator should not displace more than how many degrees in azimuth from the launch aircraft to target line?

A

60

32
Q

Max autonomous designation range is limited by what?

A

TADS ability to maintain the total laser spot on target

33
Q

During a remote designation employing a K missile, the remote designator must be outside what safety fan either side of the gunner shot line?

A

43 degrees

34
Q

5k engagement, the max separation between targets should not exceed_____ meters with a _____ second separation between missile launches

A

100m
8sec

35
Q

The ripple mode after the primary channel missile is launched the alternate channel missile may be launched ____sec separation

A

1.5 sec

36
Q

For autonomous engagements the aircraft should be oriented ________ to he side from which the missile will be launched

A

3-5 degrees

37
Q

The L missile mode selections are _____ in each crew station.

A

Common

38
Q

In the AUTO power mode the missiles are powered up at _____ min intervals

A

10 min

39
Q

2nd target inhibit selections is used for engagements against what kind of targets only?

A

Stationary

40
Q

The RF missile can OT if it is tracking a target for more than how many minutes?

A

3 min

41
Q

With 6 L missiles loaded, the AUTO power mode selection will power up how many RF missiles?

A

2

42
Q

The L missile allowable constraints is +/- ______ degrees when tracking the NTS target when the range is less than 1k.

A

5 degrees

43
Q

What are the 3 RF missile modes?

A

STBY, prelaunch, post launch

44
Q

Transfer alignment occurs in which missile mode?

A

Stby

45
Q

In the pre-launch mode, what are the 3 methods of target handover to the RF missile?

A

FCR, TADS, RFHO/IDM

46
Q

Doppler beam sharpening uses a curved trajectory to induce a relative motion for stationary targets to enhance the probability of detection and tracking between what ranges?

A

2500-8000m

47
Q

At what range are targets too close for LOAL engagement and a “NO AQUIRE” message will be displayed

A

500-1000m

48
Q

3 RF missile acquisition modes

A

Terminal track
Pre terminal track
Moving target

49
Q

What is the RF missile radiation hazard area to be avoided?

A

1m 45*

50
Q

When in training mode all tactical missiles will display what inside the missile icon?

A

NA

51
Q

The TME allows for thermal management of the missiles by allowing for the cumulative time once, of how many minutes?

A

30

52
Q

With the train mode selected, and a weapon system is actioned, the weapons inhibit field will display what?

A

Training

53
Q

With the train mode selected and the missile system is actioned, the missile constraints box will display what in the center of the box?

A

T