HIV Flashcards
efavirenz/TDF/emtricitabine
Atripla
bictegravir/emtricitabine/TAF
Biktarvy
rilpivirine/TDF/emtricitabine
Complera
doravirine/TDF/lamivudine
Delstrigo
dolutegravir/lamivudine
Dovato
elvitegravir/cobicistat/TAF/emtricitabine
Genvoya
dolutegravir/rilpivirine
Juluca
rilpivirine/emtricitabine/TAF
Odefsey
elvitegravir/cobicistat/TDF/emtricitabine
Stribild
efavirenz/TDF/lamivudine
Symfi, Symfi Lo
darunavir/cobicistat/TAF/emtricitabine
Symtuza
dolutegravir/abacavir/lamivudine
Triumeq
lamivudine/TDF
Cimduo
zidovudine/lamivudine
Combivir
TAF/emtricitabine
Descovy
emtricitabine
Emtriva
lamivudine
Epivir
abacavir/lamivudine
Epzicom
zidovudine
Retrovir
TDF/emtricitabine
Truvada
TDF
Viread
abacavir
Ziagen
raltegravir
Isentress, Isentress HD
dolutegravir
Tivicay
rilpivirine
Edurant
etravirine
Intelence
doravirine
Pifeltro
efavirenz
Sustiva
nevirapine
Viramune, Viramune XR
maraviroc
Selzentry
enfuvirtide
Fuzeon
ibalizumab-uiyk
Trogarzo
ritonavir
Norvir
darunavir
Prezista
atazanavir
Reyataz
A phlebotomist had an accidental needlestick injury while drawing a blood sample from an HIV-positive patient. Which drug combo is the preferred regimen for PEP?
raltegravir + TDF + emtricitabine
KD is 35 y/o female with no known PMH. She is married to an HIV-positive man. She has received a Rx for pre-exposure prophylaxis. Which labs must be performed before beginning therapy?
HIV Ab test, hepatitis B, STDs
Which antiretroviral drug is available as an IV formulation that is used to prevent perinatal transmission of HIV?
zidovudine
Which medication requires screening to determine HIV tropism before starting treatment?
maraviroc (only effective in CCR5-tropic disease)
The pharmacist should contact the medical provider about which of the following interaction(s)?
simvastatin and ritonavir; Prezista and simvastatin
What are the recommended first-line treatments for a patient with newly diagnosed HIV?
Dovato
What are the recommended first-line treatments for a patient with newly diagnosed HIV?
Biktarvy, Triumeq, Dovato
EM has been on ART for 3 years and has been adherent. His doctor recently noticed some s/e from the medicines he is taking. EM is experiencing dyslipidemia, an abnormal fat deposit at the base of his neck and high blood sugar. These s/e most commonly occur with the following class of medications:
Protease inhibitors
Which ARTs could cause an allergic rxn in a patient with a sulfa allergy?
darunavir, fosamprenavir, tipranavir
Stribild is contraindicated in which of the following conditions?
CrCl< 50 mL/min. Stribild contains TDF, which is nephrotoxic. It should be discontinued when the CrCl <50 mL/min. Do not start treatment if the CrCl <70 mL/min.
How should efavirenz be administered to decrease CNS effects?
at bedtime on an empty stomach
Testing for the HLA-B*5701 allele is required before prescribing which medication?
abacavir
KD is a 35-year-old female who is HIV-negative and is married to an HIV-positive man. She is interested in a medication that will decrease her chances of contracting HIV. Which of the following is an appropriate recommendation?
emtricitabine + TDF (Truvada)
Indicated as PrEP for women.
Which of the following ARTs is given via SQ injection?
enfuvirtide
Which antiretroviral class should be given separately from antacids?
Integrase strand transfer inhibitors. Take 2 hours before or 6 hours after cation-containing products, including antacids.
LA is a 31-year old female who started ART 2 months ago when she was found to be HIV-positive. She now presents with s/s of immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (IRIS). What is an appropriate course of action?
Continue her current ART.
*Treatment of IRIS includes treating the underlying pathogen, continuing ART and, in select cases, the addition of corticosteroids to ART.
The initial evaluation for a new HIV diagnosis should include testing for which of the following?
CD4 count, HIV viral load, drug resistance genotypic testing, CMP, hepatitis B and C testing, pregnancy testing (in women)
Which of the following is a significant side effect of zidovudine?
anemia
What is the minimum amount of time that a patient should wait after an HIV exposure before using the OraQuick In-Home HIV test?
3 months (testing sooner can lead to a false-negative result)
A healthcare worker has started PEP therapy for a needlestick injury. How long should the treatment be continued?
28 days (4 weeks)
PS is a 65-year old male who has been HIV positive for 20 years. He complains that for the past 6 months he has not had an appetite and has lost significant muscle mass. Which of the following drugs could be recommended to address PS’s concerns?
nabilone, Megace ES, dronabinol
PS is likely experiencing HIV Wasting Syndrome. These meds can help to increase appetite.
Which of the following is a major benefit of TAF when compared to TDF?
Lower risk of nephrotoxicity. However, both formulations are nephrotoxic and require renal dose adjustment.
A 39-year-old-female presents to the pharmacy reporting that her OraQuick test was positive. What should the pharmacist recommend as the next step?
Refer to follow-up testing to confirm the diagnosis
Cobicistat is used in ART regimens as a/an:
PK booster (CYP450 3A4 inhibitor)
What are warnings associated with all NRTIs?
lactic acidosis, hepatomegaly with steatosis
For ART to be effective long-term, the adherence rate must be at least…
95% (meaning patient cannot miss more than one dose/month)
CS is a 37-year-old female presenting to the HIV clinic for a routine appointment. During the physical exam, it is noted that her skin and sclera appear yellow. Which medication is she likely receiving that is causing this side effect?
atazanavir (aka “bananavir”)
Which medication has a boxed warning due to a risk of serious hypersensitivity reactions?
abacavir (do not rechallenge if the patient experiences a reaction)
Which risks are associated with didanosine?
Pancreatitis, severe hepatomegaly, peripheral neuropathy
All NNRTIs are associated with…? hint: end in -ine, except efavirenz
BBW: hepatoxicity, rash (including SJS/TENS)
Rilpivirine is associated with what side effects?
depression, mood changes, insomnia, QT prolongation, serious skin reactions, DRESS