Histopathology 10 - Upper GI disease Flashcards

1
Q

What is the “Z line” in the GI tract?

A

Normal appearance of squamo-columnar junction

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2
Q

Where is the cardia portion of the stomach?

A

Junction between oesophagus and stomach

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3
Q

What are the 3 layers of the stomach wall?

A
Gastric mucosa (columnar)
Lamina propria (containing glands) 
Muscularis mucosae

nb: difference between mucosa and mucosae

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4
Q

In a normal duodenum, what is the villous:crypt ratio?

A

2:1

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5
Q

Where are goblet cells usually found?

A

Intestine

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6
Q

What is the most common cause of acute oesophagitis?

A

GORD

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7
Q

If reflux oesophagitis causes a perforation of the oesophagus, what will be the result?

A

Mediastinitis

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8
Q

What are the most common complications to remember of most GI pathologies?

A

Ulceration
Haemorrhage
Perforation
Stricture

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9
Q

How is Barrett’s oesophagus different from metaplasia?

A

Reversible

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10
Q

What is gastric metaplasia?

A

Metaplastic change in oesophagus without goblet cells

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11
Q

What is intestinal type metaplasia?

A

Replacement of squamous epithelium with metaplastic columnar epithelium WITH goblet cells present

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12
Q

What is the most common sequence of pathological progression to cancer in the upper GIT?

A

Metaplasia –> dysplasia –> Cancer

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13
Q

What is the most common type of oesophageal carcinoma in developed coutries?

A

Adenocarcinoma

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14
Q

Where does adenocarcinoma of the oesophagus usually develop?

A

Lower oesophagus

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15
Q

Which type of oesophageal cancer is most strongly associated with GORD?

A

Adenocarcinoma

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16
Q

What is the most common type of oesophageal cancer in developing coutries?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

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17
Q

Which type of oesophageal cancer is most associated with smoking and alcohol?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

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18
Q

Where in the oesophagus does squamous cell carcinoma tend to present?

A

Mid/lower oesophagus

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19
Q

Why is prognosis for oesophageal cancer particularly poor?

A

Most patients are not suitable for resection surgery

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20
Q

What other condition are oesophageal varices particularly associated with?

A

Portal vein stenosis

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21
Q

What are the 3 main causes of acute gastritis?

A

Aspirin/NSAIDs
Alcohol
H pylori

22
Q

What are the 3 major causes of chronic gastritis?

A

ABC
Autoimmune (antiparietal cell Ig)
Bacterial (H pylori, affects antrum)
Chemical (NSAIDs, bile reflux, affects antrum)

23
Q

Which types of neoplasm is H pylori associated with?

A

Adenocarcinoma

Lymphoma (MALToma)

24
Q

How do H pylori inject toxin into the mucosa?

A

Via cag-A needle appendage

25
Which strain of H pylori is associated with more aggressive chronic gastritis?
cag-A positive
26
Why might you biopsy a gastric ulcer?
ALL gastric ulcers should be biopsied to exclude malignancy
27
What will be the result of a perforated gastric ulcer?
Peritonitis
28
What is gastric epithelial dysplasia?
Abnormal epithelial pattern of growth
29
What is the key cytological feature of gastric epithelial dysplasia?
High nuclear cytoplasmic ratio
30
What is the difference between gastic dysplasia and gastric Ca?
Invasion of basement membrane
31
What type of carcinoma is the most common type of gastric cancer?
Adenocarcinoma
32
Where is gastric cancer most common?
Japan, by far
33
What are the morphological categories of gastric cancer?
Intestinal | Diffuse
34
What is the intestinal pattern of gastric adenocarcinoma?
Well-differentiated
35
What is the diffuse pattern of gastric adenocarcinoma?
Signet ring cells | Poorly differentiated
36
What is linitis plastica?
No focal lesion in stomach, but whole thing is thickened and static - due to diffuse adenocarcinoma
37
What is a gastrointestinal stromal tumour? (GIST)
Tumour of the interstitial cells of Cajal in the stomach - a SARCOMA
38
What is the cause of gastric MALToma?
Chronic inflammation, usually due to H pylori
39
What are gastric MALTomas composed of?
B cells
40
What is the first-line treatment of gastric MALToma?
H pylori treatment
41
Which type of gastrointestinal tract ulcers are always benign?
Duodenal
42
What is cryptosporidiosis?
Protozoal GIT infection seen in immunosuppressed patients
43
Where does giardia lamblia infection cause pathology?
Villi of GIT
44
What is the route of transmission of giardia?
Faeco/oral route
45
How are the villi damaged in coeliac disease?
Cytotoxic T cells
46
In what condition are increased numbers of intraepithelial lymphocytes in the GIT seen?
Coeliac
47
What are the 3 main histological features of coeliac?
Crypt hyperplasia Villous atrophy Increased numbers of intraepithelial lymphocytes
48
Which two antibodies are required for diagnosis of coeliac disease?
``` Endomysial Tissue transglutaminase (TTG) ```
49
Where is MALToma associated with coeliac likely to be located?
Duodenum
50
What is the type of MALToma as a result of coeliac disease called?
Enteropathy associated T cell lymphoma