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HS Exam 1 > Histology Exam 1 > Flashcards

Histology Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

what are the functions of cartilage?

A

provide flexible support
articular surfaces of joints
temporary template for skeleton

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2
Q

spaces chondrocytes sit in

A

lacunae

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3
Q

what are the ECM components of cartilage?

A

type 2 collagen
hyaluronic acid
GAGs

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4
Q

dense outer layer of cartilage- what are its two layers

A

perichondrium- outer fibrous layer and inner cell layer with progenitor cells

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5
Q

what is interstitial growth?

A

growth from within- chondrocytes make matrix around themselves and then get trapped

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6
Q

group of chondrocytes in a lacunae

A

isogenous group

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7
Q

what is appositional growth?

A

growth on a surface- progenitor cells in perichondrium differentiate into chondroblasts and make new matrix

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8
Q

how does cartilage develop?

A

interstitial growth to begin, then appositional is used for repair

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9
Q

where is hyaline cartilage?

A

upper airway (trachea, bronchii, larynx)
joints
ventral ribs
early skeleton

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10
Q

what is hyaline cartilage made of?

A

type 2 collagen

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11
Q

where is elastic cartilage?

A

epiglottis
larynx
ear
eustachian tube

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12
Q

what is elastic cartilage made of

A

type 2 collagen

elastin fibers

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13
Q

where is fibrocartilage

A

IVD

pubic symphysis

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14
Q

what is fibrocartilage made of

A

type 1 and 2 collagen

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15
Q

where does cartilage get nutrients from?

A

surrounding connective tissue

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16
Q

bone matrix

A

collage type 1
GAGs
proteoglycans
non collagenous proteins

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17
Q

where do osteoblasts come from?

A

osteoprogenitor cells

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18
Q

where do osteoclasts come from?

A

blood cell precursor, monocyte lineage

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19
Q

where do osteocytes come from?

A

osteoblasts that get stuck in the matrix

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20
Q

what type of marrow is active?

A

red

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21
Q

what type of marrow is inactive?

A

yellow

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22
Q

what layer of bone has progenitor cells in it? where is it?

A

endosteum- between compact and spongy bone

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23
Q

what is the layer on the outside of bone?

A

periosteum

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24
Q

where are osteoblasts found? what do they look like?

A

cells in a line on the surface- do appositional growth

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25
Q

what are the phases of osteocytes?

A

quiescent- resting
formative- signal bone deposition
resorptive- signal bone resorption

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26
Q

which type of bone cells is multinucleated?

A

osteoclasts

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27
Q

what are hawship canals?

A

holes osteoclasts sit in

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28
Q

how are osteoclasts made?

A

osteoblasts produce MCSF which recruits monocyte stem cells to bone and RANKL
osteoclast precursor cells have RANK, RANKL binds to RANK and induces differntiation

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29
Q

what is osteoprotegrin?

A

blocks RANK and inhibits osteoclast maturation

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30
Q

steps of bone resorption

A
  1. osteoclasts target bone via chemotaxis
  2. attach via cell adhering molecules
  3. seal to bone forming a resorptive cavity
  4. release H to dissolve minerals (acidic environment)
  5. lysosomes degrade collagen, MMPs degrade other things
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31
Q

what are lamellae?

A

concentric layers of bone surrounding Haversian cannals

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32
Q

steps of bone formation

A

osteiod is deposited (unmineralized bone)
osteoblasts release stuff that attracts Ca and PO4-
hydroxyapetite crystals form
continuous remodeling

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33
Q

what does osteoid look like

A

very irregularly arranged collagen

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34
Q

what happens to the osteoid?

A

reabsorbed by osteoclasts

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35
Q

what are the 2 types of bone formation?

A

intramembranous

endochondral

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36
Q

describe intramembranous bone formation

A

osteoblasts secrete matrix which is then mineralized

the bone is resorbed and reshaped

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37
Q

what is intramembranous bone formation used for?

A

flat bones

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38
Q

describe endochondral bone formation

A

cartilage forms first and then is replaced by bone

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39
Q

what is endochondral bone formation used for

A

long bones

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40
Q

steps in endochondral bone formation

A
  1. temporary hyaline cartilage skeleton formed which is surrounded by perichondrium
  2. bone formation starts in specific areas and moves outwards
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41
Q

where is the primary ossification center?

A

in the middle of the diaphysis

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42
Q

where is the secondary ossification center

A

epiphyses

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43
Q

what does parathyroid hormone related peptide do?

A

stimulates chondrocyte proliferation in the temporary cartilaginous skeleton

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44
Q

what causes dwarfism?

A

defects in Indian hedgehog protein- chondrocytes don’t proliferate enough so bones aren’t long eough

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45
Q

what does indian hedgehog protein do?

A

increases PHrP receptors on chondrocytes to delay hypertrophy until the bone gets to be the correct length

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46
Q

what does fibroblast growth factor do?

A

inhibits cartilage growth

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47
Q

what causes achondroplastic dwarfism?

A

gain of function mutation in FGF- increased FGF binding inhibits cartilage growth, so bones aren’t correct length

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48
Q

what regulates periosteal collar formation?

A

indian hedgehog protein

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49
Q

what is rickets?

A

vitamin D defiency in children resulting in soft bones due to defects in mineralization

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50
Q

what is osteomalacia?

A

vitamin D deficicy in adults resulting in demineralization of bone–>soft bones

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51
Q

what is osteoporosis?

A

increased bone fragility due to estrogen deficiency–> increased bone resorption without increased formation

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52
Q

what is Paget’s disease

A

osteoblasts overcompensate for high osteoclast activity by laying down a lot of woven bone resulting in abnormally large bones that are prone to fracture because the osteoid isn’t mineralized

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53
Q

synarthrosis?

A

immovable joint

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54
Q

amphiarthrosis

A

slightly movable joint

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55
Q

diarthrosis

A

movement

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56
Q

osteoarthritis

A

excessive wear of articular cartilage with secondary inflammation

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57
Q

rheumatoid arthritis

A

chronic systemic inflammation leading to thickening of synovial membrane

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58
Q

what is a pannus?

A

folds in synovial membrane from rheumatoid arthritis

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59
Q

what is bone fusion?

A

ankylosis

60
Q

what is gout?

A

crystals deposits in joints

61
Q

where is skeletal muscle?

A

typical muscles

extraocular muscles of eye

62
Q

where is visceral striated muscle?

A

in soft tissue- tongue, pharynx, lumbar diaphragm, upper esophagus

63
Q

where is cardiac muscle?

A

heart

large veins that drain into heart

64
Q

why is connective tissue required for force transduction

A

ends attach muscles to other organ systems
forms tendon attachment
nerves and blood vessels are in it

65
Q

type 1 fibers

A 
slow oxidative
most metabolically active
high mitochondria
high myoglobin and cytochrome c
fatigue resistant
small red
66
Q

type 2a fibers

A 
fast oxidative glycolytic
middle size and color
high myoglobin and glycogen
anaerobic glycolysis
fatigue resistant
generate peak tension
67
Q

type 2b fibers

A 
fast glycolytic
large white fibers
fatiguable
high anaerobic activity
highest ATPase activity
generate high peak tension
used for precise movements
high nerve innervation
68
Q

H band

A

myosin only- shrinks with contraction

69
Q

A band

A

whole myosin filament- stays constant

70
Q

I band

A

actin only- shrinks with contraction

71
Q

what does alpha actinic do

A

bundles actin and anchors it to z line

72
Q

what does nebulin do

A

helps alpha actinic anchor actin to z line

73
Q

what does tropomodulin do

A

caps actin filaments for stabilization

74
Q

what does tropomyosin do

A

regulates muscle contraction- 3 binding sites

75
Q

what is titin

A

anchors myosin to z line

76
Q

what is myomesin

A

holds thick filaments in order at m line

77
Q

what is c protein

A

holds thick filaments in order at M line

78
Q

what is the smallest contractile unit

A

sarcomere- z line to z line

79
Q

what do muscle spindles do?

A

provide proprioception information

80
Q

what innervates muscle spindle fibers?

A

gamma efferent neurons

81
Q

where are the nuclei in skeletal muscle fibers?

A

pushed out of fiber

82
Q

where are the nuclei in cardiac muscle fibers?

A

in center of fiber

83
Q

what makes cardiac muscle look different from skeletal muscle?

A

nuclei are in center of fibers
intercalated discs
fibers branch

84
Q

what type of muscle has terminal cisternae

A

skeletal muscle

85
Q

what are purkinje fibers

A

specialized cardiac muscle cell that propagates signal through ventricles

86
Q

what do purkinje fibers look like?

A

large nuclei that don’t stain well
lots of glycogen
intercalated discs

87
Q

what are the things in an intercalated disc?

A

desmosome
adherent junctions
gap junctions

88
Q

what regulates smooth muscle contraction?

A

ca and calmodulin and MLCK

89
Q

what are dense bodies?

A

attach thin and intermediate filaments to the membrane, connected by alpha actinin

90
Q

3 layers of skin

A

epidermis
dermis
hypodermis

91
Q

what is the tissue that makes up the epidermis?

A

keratinized stratified squamous epithelium

92
Q

what cells are in the epidermis?

A

keratinocytes

93
Q

layers of the epidermis superficial to deep

A 
stratum corneum
stratum lucidum
stratum granulosum
stratum spinosum
stratum basale
94
Q

describe stratum basale

A

attached to basal lamina via hemidesmosomes
cells attached to each other via desmosomes
highest proliferation rate

95
Q

describe stratum spinosum

A

spiny cells with processes filled with keratin
moderate cell proliferation
processes connected by desmosomes

96
Q

describe stratum granulosum

A

thin layer with keratinosomes (lamellar bodies) that release phospholipids to coat keratinocytes to make them waterproof

97
Q

stratum lucidum

A

cells lose organelles as they move up and die
plasma membrane is packed with keratin
**only in thick skin

98
Q

stratum corneum

A

keratinocytes filled with keratin filaments cross link with other proteins
layer in which shedding occurs- rates vary by location

99
Q

what is unique about thick skin?

A

thick stratum corneosum

hairless

100
Q

where is thick skin?

A

palms and soles

101
Q

what is unique about thin skin?

A

has hair

thin stratum corneosum

102
Q

what are finger and toe prints?

A

epidermal ridges

103
Q

where is hard keratin?

A

hair

104
Q

where is soft keratin?

A

skin

105
Q

what are other cells in the epidermis?

A

melanocytes
langerhan cells
merkel cells

106
Q

what are melanocytes derived from?

A

neural crest

107
Q

what do melanocytes do?

A

make melanin

108
Q

what determines pigmentation?

A

rate of melanin synthesis, transfer, and degradation

109
Q

what are the 3 types of melanin?

A

eumelanin- black or brown
pheomelanin- red
neuromelanin- brain

110
Q

what causes gray hair?

A

decreased melanin synthesis and increased H2O2 due to decreased catalase

111
Q

what is the science word for moles?

A

navi

112
Q

what is tyrosine kinase used for in skin?

A

melanin synthesis

113
Q

albanism

A

defect in melanin synthesis

114
Q

vitiligo

A

decreased number of melanocytes per area

115
Q

melanoma

A

neoplastic transformation of melanocytes

116
Q

purpose of langerhan cells

A

immune- antigen presenting

117
Q

purpose of merkel cells

A

specialized cell receptor that synapses with sensory neurons for touch

118
Q

what are the layers of the dermis?

A 
papillary layer (top)
reticular layer (bottom)
119
Q

what is in the papillary layer?

A

loose CT
blood vessels
receptor endings
type 7 collagen and fibrillian

120
Q

what is in the reticular layer?

A

dense irregular CT
elastic fibers
reticular fibers, type 1 collagen

121
Q

what is in the hypodermic?

A

loose connective tissue

adipose

122
Q

what is the nail equivalent to?

A

stratum corneum

123
Q

what is the nail bed equivalent to?

A

stratum basale and spinosum

124
Q

what layer are hair follicles from?

A

epidermis

125
Q

parts of a hair follicle

A 
hair bulb
dermal papilla
hair shaft
inner root
external root
hair cuticle
126
Q

what is the hair bulb?

A

produces the hair shaft and internal root sheath

127
Q

what is the dermal papilla

A

bulb base from CT

128
Q

how do sebaceous glands secrete

A

holocrine secretion onto hair follicles or epidermis surface

129
Q

what are the types of sweat glands

A

merocrine
apocrine
modified apocrine

130
Q

describe merocrine sweat glands

A

secrete a watery/salty solution liver most of body, used for thermoregulation

131
Q

describe apocrine sweat glands

A

viscous secretion triggered by external stimulus

located in perineum, anus, and axilla

132
Q

where are modified apocrine sweat glands?

A

external ear

eyelids

133
Q

where are arrestor pilli muscles?

A

smooth muscle bundles between the epidermis and the hair bulb

134
Q

what are free nerve endings for

A

thermal
pain
light tough

135
Q

what are merle discs for

A

touch

136
Q

what are meissner’s corpuscles for, where are they, what do they look like

A

touch
in the papillary dermis
round

137
Q

what are pacinian corpuscles for, where are they, what do they look like?

A

pressure
hypodermis
encapsulated- onion like

138
Q

what are rufini organs for and where are they

A

stretch

dermis

139
Q

what is hyperkeratosis

A

thickening of corneum and granulosum

140
Q

what is parakeratosis

A

corneum cells keep their nuclei–normal in oral cavity but also associated with pathological conditions

141
Q

what is acanthosis

A

abnormal epidermal thickening (spinosum)
long epidermal extensions into papillary layer of dermis
associated with chronic inflammatory conditions
“sugar line”

142
Q

what is intraepidural edema

A

fluid accumulation in epidermis

associated with trauma

143
Q

eczema

A

inflammatory, allergic component

144
Q

psoriasis

A

chronic inflammatory disease characterized by rapid keratinocyte proliferation with fast upward movement resulting in surface cells not having enough keratin
scaly white regions an dmicroabcesses in dermis

145
Q

basal cell carcinoma

A

invades dermis, but rarely metastasizes

neoplastic transformation of stratum basale

146
Q

squamous cell carcinoma

A

well demarcated highly keratinized tumors that invade the dermis and regional lump nodes

HS Exam 1 (8 decks)

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