Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Neuro > Histology > Flashcards

Histology Flashcards

Week 1

1
Q

Where is the most common NTD?

A

ant and/or post neuropore

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are NTD associated with during conception and early pregnancy?

A

low maternal folate (vit. B)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Cranial NTD including brain.

A

meningoencephalocele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Cranial NTD with only a cranium bifida

A

meningocele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Cranial NTD with part of the ventricle and brain.

A

meningohydroencephalocele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Spina bifida occulta

A

tuft of hair; unfused neural arch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Spina bifida cystic w/ meningocele

A

CSF protudes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Spina bifida cystic with meningomyelocele

A

displaced spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Spina bifida cystic with myeloschisis

A

open spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Meroencephaly (anencephaly)

A

no brain, not compatible with life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Craniorachischisis

A

NTD when the entire neural tube doesnt form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Iniencephaly

A

cervicle vertebrae don’t develop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

True nerves

A

CN 3-12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

CNs that are tracts of the CNS/1st order afferent neurons; where are their cell bodies located?

A

CN 1 and 2; in olfactory epithelium and retina respectively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

All sypathetic ganglion are derive from what?

A

neural crest cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What zone is formed when the marginal and ventricular zone migrate out?

A

intermediate zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does the spinal cord sensory nuclei derive from?

A

alar plate (column)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does the lower motor nuclei/gray matter derive from?

A

basal plate (column)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does the ependyma derive from?

A

ventricular zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the ependyma?

A

lining of the central canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The spinal cord extends further or shorter on the vertebral column in an adult compared to a neonate?

A

shorter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

This syndrome causes tension on the spinal cord and nerves, accompanies spina bifida and can present with pain in back and LE, numbness/paresthesia, weakenss and bowel and bladder issues.

A

tethered cord syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What primary and secondary vesicle does the cerebral hemiphseres and lateral ventricles derive from?

A

forebrain (prosencephalon); telencephalon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What primary and secondary vesicle does the thalami derive from?

A

forebrain (proencephalon); diencephalon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What primary and secondary vesicle does the midbrain and aquaduct derive from?

A

midbrain (mesencephalon) for both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What primary and secondary vesicle does the pons, cerebellum and upper part of 4th ventricle derive from?

A

hindbrain (rhombencephalon); metencephalon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What primary and secondary vesicle does the medulla derive from?

A

hindbrain (rhombencephalon); myelencephalon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the upper part of the 4th vent. associated with?

A

pons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the lower part of the 4th vent. associated with?

A

medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What wall is the 3rd ventricle associated with?

A

cerebral hemisphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the 3 primary vesicles?

A

forebrain (prosencephalon), midbrain (mesencephalon), hindbrain (rhombencephalon)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What does the foramen of luschka and megendie derive from?

A

met- and myelencephalon (rhombencephalon)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What does the interventricular foramen derive from?

A

telencephalon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Congenital anomaly that is the enlargemnt of the ventricular system and thinning of cerebral lobes that has symptoms of enlarged neurocranium, thinning calvaria and mental deficiencies

A

hydroencephaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Non-communicating hydroencephaly

A

obstructive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Communicating hydroencephaly

A

non-obstructive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the congenital anomaly that involves the cerebellum herniating through the foramen magnum?

A

chiari malformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Headache and neck pain, hearing and balance problems, loss of coordination and syringomyelia and/or syringobulbia are manifestations of what anomaly?

A

chiari malformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Syringobulbia/myelia

A

fluid filled cavities in the brain/spinal cord respectively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Clinical manifestations include macrocephaly, delayed motor devo, and ataxia (loss of motor control)

A

Dandy Walker malformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Dandy Walker malformation involves what malformations?

A

hyoplasia of verebellar vermis, cystic dilation of 4th ventricle and hydrocephaly

42
Q

Microencephaly has what kind of structural abnormalities?

A

underdeveloped brain, large single ventricles in forebrain, redimentary development of corpus callosum, thalamus and forebrain structures,

43
Q

What anomalie does not develop the septum pellucidum?

A

microencephaly and holoencephaly

44
Q

A small neurocranium and severe mental deficiencies are clinical manifestations of what?

A

microencephaly

45
Q

Failure of the prosencephalon to properly undergo cleavage is what anomaly?

A

holoprocephaly

46
Q

What structural malformations does holoprocephaly involve?

A

large, single ventricle in forebrain, rudimentary development/absence of corpus callosum, thalamus and forebrain structures

47
Q

What clinical manifestations does hypotelorism to cyclopia/synopthalmia, proboscis, cleft lips/palates and cognitive deficiencies describe?

A

holoproencephaly

48
Q

hypotelorism

A

dec. in distance btwn 2 organs (eyes)

49
Q

proboscis

A

mobile nose

50
Q

cyclopia/synopthalmia

A

failure of the embryonic prosencephalon to properly divide the orbits of the eye into two cavities.

51
Q

What are the 5 functions of astrocytes?

A

forms BBB, regulates interstitial fluid composition, support/organizes CNS, assists neuronal devo, replicates to occupy space of dying neurons

52
Q

What are the 2 functions of ependymal cells?

A

line ventricles of brain and central canal and assists in production and circulation of CSF

53
Q

What are the 2 functions of microglial cells?

A

phagocytic cells that move through CNS, protect CNS by engulfing infectious agents and other potential harmful substances

54
Q

What are the 2 functions of oligodendrocytes?

A

myelinate and insulate CNS axons and allows faster AP propogation along axons in CNS

55
Q

The cells that project from basket cells in the cerebellum are?

A

purkinje cells

56
Q

What is the order of layers in the cerebellum?

A

(superficial) molecular layer>purkinje cell layer>granular>subcortical white matter (deep)

57
Q

Mossy and climbing fibers are in what layer of the cerebellum?

A

subcortical white matter

58
Q

What do mossy fibers synapse onto?

A

granule cells in the granular layer

59
Q

What part of purkinje cells are associated with climbing fibers?

A

dendrites of perkinje cells

60
Q

What do the external granular layer, ext. pyramidal layer and internal pyramidal layer of the cerebral cortex all have in common?

A

have pyramidal neurons

61
Q

What are the layers of the cerebral cortex from superficial to deep?

A

molecular layer>ext. granular layer>ext. pyramidal layer>int. granular layer>internal pyramidal layer>multiform layer

62
Q

What layer of the cerebral cortex are pyramidal neurons not located in? What are they most numerous in?

A

layer I; 2,3, 5

63
Q

What does most of the output from the cerebral cortex?

A

axons of pyramidal neurons

64
Q

Association fibers from pyramidal cells go where?

A

ipsilateral cerebral hemisphere

65
Q

Callosal fibers of pyramidal neurons go where?

A

contralateral cerebral hemisphere

66
Q

Projection fibers of the pyramidal neurons go where?

A

targets in the forebrain, brainstem, cerebellum and spinal cord

67
Q

The most common type of neuron? Number of axons and dendrites?

A

multipolar; single, 2+

68
Q

Where are multipolar neurons located?

A

all motor neurons of CNS and PNS, all CNS interneurons

69
Q

What are the primary sensory neurons with the exception to the retina, olfactory epithelium and inner ear?

A

pseudounipolar

70
Q

How many axons does a pseudounipolar have?

A

only one that bifurcates to extend to peripheral sensory targets and centrally to CNS

71
Q

A bipolar neuron has how many axons and dendrites?

A

1 of each

72
Q

Where are bipolar neurons?

A

retina, olfactory epithelium and inner ear; primary sensory neurons

73
Q

How many axons and dendrites does a anaxonic neuron have?

A

no axon, many dendrites

74
Q

AP of an anaxonic neuron and location

A

no AP, amacrine cells of retina

75
Q

Most abundant glial cells

A

astrocytes

76
Q

What type of astrocyte is in gray matter?

A

protoplasmic astrocytes

77
Q

What type of astrocyte predominates in white matter?

A

fibrous astrocytes

78
Q

What cells relate the ionic concentration around neurons esp. K+?

A

astrocytes

79
Q

What cells support movemnet and locations of differentiating neurons during CNS development?

A

astrocytes

80
Q

What cells cover capillary cells to modulate blood flow and help move nutrients, wastes and metabolites btwen neurons and capillaries?

A

astrocytes

81
Q

What cells form the glial limiting membrane?

A

astrocytes

82
Q

What is the glial limiting membrane?

A

lines the meninges at the external CNS surface

83
Q

What fills tissue defects after CNS injury by proliferation that forms a scar?

A

astrocytes

84
Q

What cell type forms the tela choroidea that gives rise to the choroid plexuses, projections of the tela choroidea and capillary tufts into ventricles that produces CSF?

A

ependyma cells

85
Q

Where are glial cells derived from?

A

neuroepithelium of neural tube (except microglial cells)

86
Q

What are PNS glial cells derived from?

A

neural crest

87
Q

Function of satellite cells of PNS?

A

supportive, protective and insulating layer around cell bodies

88
Q

Function of schwann cells (neurolemmacytes)

A

protect and insulate sheath around axons in PNS

89
Q

What do schwann cells form?

A

myelinated and unmyelinated axons

90
Q

Conduction is faster in what kind of axons?

A

myelinated

91
Q

What is the space btwn neighboring schwann cells where the axolemma is exposed to the ECM?

A

nodes of Ranvier

92
Q

Layer of nerves in PNS.

A

epineurium (each nerve)>perineurium (fasicles of bundles of axon fibers)>endoneurium (each fiber=axon and schwann cell)

93
Q

What neuronal cells are in CN 5, 7, 8 and 9?

A

pseudounipolar cell bodies

94
Q

What type of neurons are in the viscera?

A

multipolar

95
Q

Organization of the spinal cord

A

peripheral white matter with ascending/descending tracts; internal gray matter- dorsal horn, anterior horn and lateral horn

96
Q

Dorsal horn of gray matter in spinal cord

A

sensory

97
Q

Anterior horn of gray matter in spinal cord

A

motor, exit to form ventral root

98
Q

Lateral horn of gray matter in spinal cord function? Where is the lateral horn located?

A

thoracolumbar; in thoracolumnar (T1-L2/3) and sacral region (S2-3) pre-sympathetic and contributes to ventral root

99
Q

Function of mossy fibers

A

coordinating smooth and controlled movement

100
Q

Where do climbing fibers get their input?

A

inferior olivary nuclei

101
Q

Function of climbing fibers

A

learning motor skills like riding a bike, fade away shot, etc.

102
Q

The layers of the cerebral cortex act to facilitate what process?

A

decision making process

Neuro (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions