Histology 1 Flashcards

0
Q

eosin

A

acidophilic, -, stains protein

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1
Q

hemotoxylin

A

stains nuclei. +, basophilic, DNA & RNA

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2
Q

H&E

A

hemotoxylin/eosin stain

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3
Q

silver

A

stains black. MTs, reticulum (as in spinal cord)

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4
Q

Van Gieson

A

Stains elastic fibers, as in aortic wall

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5
Q

PAS

A

stains carbs, GAGs, proteoglycans (apical brush border, mucin-containing cells)

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6
Q

trichrome

A

stains collagen blue, muscle red

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7
Q

india ink

A

paint tumor, see if malignant cells are on the exterior (margins)

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8
Q

iron hematoxylin

A

stains mitochondria

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9
Q

Ab: cytokeratins

A

IF, epithelial tumors

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10
Q

Ab: vimentin

A

IF: connective tissue tumors

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11
Q

Ab: desmin

A

IF: muscle cell tumors

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12
Q

Ab: glial fibrillary proteins

A

IF: glial cells

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13
Q

Why is Ab to IF proteins useful?

A

Different IFs are present in different cells

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14
Q

AAb to cell surface markers

A

lymphocytes, cell surface receptors

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15
Q

Her-2/neu

A

cell surface receptor found on breast cancer cells

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16
Q

Ab to nucleus markers

A

steroid receptors

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17
Q

PCNA + Ki67

A

nucleic marker on cells about to divide

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18
Q

Ab to cell specific proteins

A

differentiated cell products like hormones

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19
Q

Ab to what detects thyroid medullary cancer?

A

calcitonin

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20
Q

EM is useful for what?

A

kidney, uptake of radioactive tracers, organelles

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21
Q

freezing sections

A

useful in surgery (malignancy, margins), no change in lipid content

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22
Q

fixation

A

formalin aldehyde crosslinks proteins, no change in lipid content

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23
Q

fixation in parafin

A

tissue dehydrated in ethanol: no lipid

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24
Q

fixation for EM

A

glutaraldehyde, osmium tetraoxide, the embed in EPON plastic

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25
Q

apical addresses

A

from golgi: GpI linkage to lipid raft made of cholesterol and glycolipids

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26
Q

GpI recognition site

A

30 AA stretch, dominant signalling

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27
Q

apical proteins from basal-lateral side

A

pulse-trace shows that this occurs. mechanism unknown

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28
Q

VAC

A

vacuolar apical compartment. proteins are delivered to a pre-apical compartment vesicle for fast transport to apical surface

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29
Q

basolateral addresses

A

membrane proteins with cytoplasmic beta-turns that signal for basolateral placement

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30
Q

hydrophobic-X-X-tyrosine

A

signal for b/l placement. sticks out of golgi, is bound by APs.

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31
Q

APs in basolateral addressing

A

mu subunit binds h-X-X-tyrosine, beta binds clathrin to form vesicle

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32
Q

exocyst

A

ten protein complex, anchors b/l addressed visicle for V to T-snare apposition and fusion

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33
Q

selective retention

A

cell kissing creates homotypic plaques (TJs with claudin and occludin)

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34
Q

PIGR

A

example of selective destruction: IgG receptor, basal side membrane proteins. Binds lymphocytes used in mucosal immunity, takes them to cell surface, where PIGR is cleaved.

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35
Q

Pars

A

proteins that regulate basal/apic distribution. Conserved. (See diagram, H synopsis 2)

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36
Q

Zonab

A

with cyclin, carrier proteins in tight junction. respond to wounds by releasing cyclin to nucleus, signal cell proliferation

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37
Q

beta-catenin

A

reserved in adhesion junctions. accumulation in cytoplasm turns on 1000 genes

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38
Q

APC

A

degrades beta catenin in cytoplasm, unless inhibited by Wnt signalling

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39
Q

fibroblasts

A

Cells that make gels and collagens

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40
Q

fibrocytes

A

fibroblasts embedded in collagen fibers. thin, little cytoplasm

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41
Q

chondroblasts

A

make ground substances (cartilage)

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42
Q

chondrocytes

A

chondroblasts embedded in cartilage

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43
Q

osteoblasts

A

make ground substances and collagen. on bone surface

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44
Q

osteocytes

A

embedded in ground substances (bone?)

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45
Q

-blast cells

A

have euchromatin nuclei, lots of ER

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46
Q

smooth muscle cells

A

in walls of great vessels, synthasize elastin, locate in lamella of elastin

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47
Q

myoepithelial cells

A

contractile smooth muscle cells, surround duct systems

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48
Q

T-lymphocytes

A

WBCs, many types, including natural killer cells

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49
Q

Natural Killer cells

A

recognize proteins and perform as helperTs and cytotoxic Ts.

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50
Q

macrophages

A

engulf and digest debris and pathogens

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51
Q

adipocytes

A

signet ring, on elipid droplet, energy storage and endocrine signalling.

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52
Q

cell matrix

A

sulfated and non-sulfated GAGs, proteoglycans. associated with water and NaCl to resist comprssion, deliver force

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53
Q

collagen fibers

A

triple alpha helix (glycine-X-X-glycine-X-X) post translational hydroxylation of proline and lysine makes interchain H bonds

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54
Q

Post-translational hydroxylation of proline and lysine requires

A

vitamin c! or scurvy. collagen defects

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55
Q

lysyl oxidase

A

extracellular, cross-links collagen triple helices to form fibrils

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56
Q

types of collagen fibers

A

42 possible, 40 known. skin/tendon/bone, cartilage, basal lamina.

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57
Q

elastin

A

crosslinked and coiled. elasticity limited by fibrillin

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58
Q

areolar loose connective tissue

A

Irregular loose CT, as in skin, mucous membrane
matrix gel materials (GAGs, proteoglycans)
abundant water and nutrients, not many fibers

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59
Q

hormone stimulated lipase

A

epi/NORepi -> fat cell beta adrenergic receptors -> alpha G -> cAMP -> protein kinase A -> perilipin

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60
Q

perilipin

A

disinhibits hormone stimulated lipase. triglycerides are split to fatty acids

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61
Q

insulin blocks lipase how?

A

increasing phospodiesterase, which degrades cAMP and inhibits perilipin

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62
Q

leptin

A

released from adipocytes, regulates hunger and food metabolism

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63
Q

Ob-Rb

A

receptor for leptin, found in the brain

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64
Q

brown fat cells produce heat how?

A

conductive channel degrades H+ gradient, generating heat rather than ATP. (Needs huge O2 supply to dispose of electrons)

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65
Q

mesenchyme

A

embryonic connective tissue, few fibers, loosely attached mesenchymic-type cells

66
Q

hyaluronic acid

A

dominant GAG in mesenchyme

67
Q

wharton’s jelly

A

mucus surrounding umbilical cord

68
Q

dense connective tissue

A

fiber dominant, cell poor. tensile strength, no compressive resistance, but tensile resistance (resists pulling apart)

69
Q

regularly arranged dense connective tissue

A

directional tensile strength (tendons, kidney capsule, ligaments), very eosinophlic (lots of extacellular filaments)

70
Q

tendons

A

muscle to bone

71
Q

ligaments

A

bone to bone

72
Q

irregular dense connective tissue

A

tensile strength in any direction. dense collagen, elastin, fibrillin.

73
Q

Marfan syndrome

A

defects in fibrillin I

74
Q

ground substance

A

amorphous extracellular matrix

75
Q

4 types of connective tissue

A

CT proper, cartilage, bone & dentin, blood and lymph

76
Q

reticular connective tissue

A

supporting framework for spleen, lymph nodes, bone marrow, liver, glands, striated muscle. COLLAGEN III!

77
Q

dense irregular connective tissue: two types

A

collegenous

elastic

78
Q

collagenous dense irregular connective tissue

A

dermis, capsule of spleen, prostate gland

79
Q

elastic dense irregular connective tissue

A

elastic membrane of large arteries

80
Q

dense regular connective tissue: 2 types

A

collagenous and elastic

81
Q

collagenous dense regular connective tissue

A

tendons, ligaments, cornea

82
Q

elastic dense regular connective tissue

A

elastic ligaments (nuchal flavate, interspinate) true vocal chords

83
Q

loose connective tissue in colon

A

called lamina propria.

between epithelium and muscularis mucosae

84
Q

subcutaneous connective tissue

A

largely adipose

85
Q

mast cell

A

rich in histamine and heparin
role in allergy and anaphylaxis
resembles a basophil

86
Q

are reticular fibers distiguishable in H&E?

A

nope.

87
Q

3 types of adult cartilage

A

hyaline (trachea)
elastic (external ear)
fibrocartilage (transitional, where tensile strength is needed: TMJ, pubic symphysis, intervertebral discs)

88
Q

hyaline in trachea

A

the incomplete ring

89
Q

Wiegart’s stain

A

stains elastin particularly (black)

90
Q

elastic cartilage

A

outer ear, eustachian tube (nose->middle ear) and epiglottis (flap at larynx entrance

91
Q

interstitial lamellae

A

partially reabsorbed haversian systems visible in bone as remnants

92
Q

periosteum

A

dense cortical bone on surface, spongy bone centrally.

93
Q

trabeculae

A

partitions formed by bands or columns of connective tissue

94
Q

bone lining cells

A

retired osteoblasts, talk to osteocytes, determine new bone

95
Q

cartilage

A

resists compressions, 50% fibrous matrix, collagen II, IX, XI, some elastin

96
Q

Collagen roles in cartilage:

___ is intercalated between fibrils of ____.

A

Collagen XI between fibrils of collagen II

97
Q

Which collagen type terminates fibril formation?

A

IX. lies on surface and prevents microfibril from forming thicker fibrils.

98
Q

cartilage ground substance

A

aggregan (hyaluronic acid monomers in mass) along a a core protein decorated with GAGs (chondroitin sulfate and keratin sulfate)

99
Q

how do aggregans in collagen resist compression?

A

with (-) electrostatic repulsion. charges hold water in feathered domains.

100
Q

chondrocytes

A

outside cartilage, in lacunal spaces of extracellular matrix. communicate with eachother through matrix

101
Q

resistance in bone

A

tensile (not compressive) loading. 99.6% fibrils, .4% ground substance

102
Q

hydroxyapatite

A

mineral that stiffens bone by nucleating in holes between fibrils of collagen.

103
Q

fibrils

A

mostly collagen I, some collagen V. heterotypic fibrils, collagen V allows collagen I polymerization

104
Q

canaliculi

A

processes of osteocytes. extend to neighbors via gap junctions, interact with matrix

105
Q

SOX9/RunXI

A

expression causes mesenchyme condensation

106
Q

BMP2,4,7 then runX2 + osterix

A

activates osteocalcin, drives bone formation in areas of high oxygen and some tensile stress.

107
Q

Indian hedgehog and FGF

A

activate Sox9,5,6 to drive progenitor cells to chondrocytes in areas of low oxygen and intermittent compression

108
Q

hyaline cartilage

A

starts all growth of cartilage and bone. lacunae w/surrounding ground substances.

109
Q

hyaline cartilage, appositional growth

A

lay down matrix within perichondrium/periosteum (fibrous envelope)

110
Q

hyaline cartilage, interstitial growth

A

only in cartilage, from a nest of isogenous cells

111
Q

hypertrophic chondrocytes

A

hyaline cartilage blocks under mechanical stress. Secrete VEGF and attract blood vessels

112
Q

type X collagen

A

secreted by hypertrophic chondrocytes, prepares surrounding matrix (north and south) for mineralization

113
Q

diaphysis

A

bone collar mid-shaft where hypertrophic chondrocytes first formed

114
Q

growth plate

A

proliferative zone of hypertrophic chondrocytes at diaphysis. stem cells enter, make IHH to stimulate proliferation.

115
Q

appositional growth in surface periosteum

A

also signalled by IHH, but releases PTHrP

116
Q

PTHrP

A

parathyroid-like hormone, inhibits ossification/maturation of bone

117
Q

Endochondrial ossification conversion ends when?

A

When hypertrophic bone deposits collagen X

118
Q

anatomical mature bone types

A

compact bone in shafts

cancellous (trabecular, web) in heads

119
Q

histological bone types

A

woven and lamellar

120
Q

woven bone

A

prenatal.

random collagen and canaliculi, osteoblasts outside, removed during maturation

121
Q

lamellar bone

A

sheets of bone stacked like plywood. canaliculi have same orientation.

122
Q

haversian canal

A

osteon with blood vessel in center. surrounded by concentric lamellar structures

123
Q

lamellar bone in cancellar bone

A

no central canal, stacked like plywood

124
Q

osteoid

A

unmineralized material osteoblast lay down. become bone lining cells or midbone osteocytes. this growth triggers growth on the outside of the bone

125
Q

how do osteolytic processes sense stress?

A

via integrins and stress activated Ca channels

126
Q

sclerostin

A

blocks Wnt signalling. amount of sclerostin inversely related to pressure loading.

127
Q

Wnt signalling

A

stimulates osteoblast proliferation

128
Q

RANK

A

in osteoclasts. a receptor for RANKL from osteoblasts

129
Q

RANKL

A

signals osteoclasts to mature, begin to dissolve bone.

130
Q

H+ATPase

A

from osteoclasts, dissolves hydroxyapatite

131
Q

activated TGF beta

A

released by bone degradation by osteoclasts: stimulates new bone formation

132
Q

cement line

A

discontinuity of old and new bone produced by osteoclasts

133
Q

osteoclasts are active where?

A

on surface of bone, and

in center of osteon, where bone vessels lie.

134
Q

OPG

A

soluble inhibitor of RANKL made by osteoblasts. limits osteoclast maturation

135
Q

in contraction, I bands

A

get smaller

136
Q

in contraction, H bands

A

disappear as two bands approach eachother

137
Q

in contraction, A bands

A

remain invariant

138
Q

alpha actin and Cap 2

A

insert (+) end of actin into Z disc

139
Q

nebulin

A

controls length of actin filament

35 repeating AAs, wrap filament end to end

140
Q

tropomodulin

A

caps actin to keep monomers from dissociating

141
Q

myosin

A

two heavy chains, four light.

centrally in H zone, heads in actin zone

142
Q

titan

A

anchors myosin into Z disk to maintain alignment

like cap Z to actin?

143
Q

depolarization of T-tubes

A

forces conformational changes in ryanodine receptors, releases Ca

144
Q

Troponin C/I/T

A

bind Ca to start contraction cycle

145
Q

troponin I

A

binds actin, inhibits actin’s bind to myosin

146
Q

troponin T

A

binds tropomyosin

147
Q

troponin C

A

swivels complex where Ca is bound, causes tropomyosin to move in actin groove
thusly, opens myosin binding site

148
Q

contraction cycle

A

review the contraction cycle!

149
Q

tetanus

A

continuous high frequency stimulation of muscle. continuous crossbridges, high force.

150
Q

calsequestrin & calreticulin

A

bind Ca in sarcoplasmic reticulum

151
Q

intercalated discs

A

fascia adherens, desmosomes, + gap junctions between cardiac cells.

152
Q

are cardiac muscle signals mechanically coupled?

A

nope. just L-type Ca channels in t-tubes, no ryanodine receptors.

153
Q

multiunit smooth muscle

A

1:1 nerve to cell. temporally precise

154
Q

unitary smooth muscle

A

most smooth muscle. has gap junctions, less innervation. slow, wide-spread contractions

155
Q

phospholipase C

A

activates IP3, which opens Ca channels without an action potential

156
Q

tropomyosin in smooth muscle?

A

no. Ca binds to calmodulin (CaM)

157
Q

Ca-CaM complex

A

binds and activates myosin light-chain kinase (MLCK)

158
Q

MLCK

A

myosin light-chain kinase, phosphorylates calponin & caldesmon ( which otherwise inhibit myosin-actin) & myosin II light chain, contracts smooth muscle.

159
Q

terminating smooth muscle contraction

A

dephosphorylate myosin light chain

160
Q

crossbridges in skeletal muscle

A

preformed in cytosol, waiting for relief of rigor

161
Q

cross-bridges in smooth muscle

A

myosin-acctin pulls on dense bodies, flattening and contracting
not directional

162
Q

myoepithelial cells

A

branched cells made from epithelia, under hormonal regulation for contraction. found in excretory glands