HISTO: Bone Tumours Flashcards

1
Q

How common are bone tumours? When are primary malignant bone tumours more common?

A
  • Very rare
  • malignant tumours 60x less common than lung cancer
  • primary malignant bone tumours most common in children and young adults
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2
Q
A

Femur metaphysis

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3
Q

What type of site predilection is present in bone tumours?

A

Occur around the knee most commonly

BUT different tumours have different site and age predilection

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4
Q

What are the clinical features of bone tumours?

A
  • pain
  • swelling,
  • deformity,
  • fracture

Must ask about:

  • age, site, duration, ?hx of trauma
  • ?multiple lesions, ?associated disease
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5
Q

How do you diagnose bone tumours?

A

XR:

  • Evaluate site, size, margin
  • ?solitary or multiple, ?soft tissue extension
  • ?associated disease or fracture

Biopsy

  • Needle biopsy preferred option
  • Performed by radiologist usually with Jamshidi needle
  • +/- US or CT guidance
  • Open biopsy for sclerotic or inaccessible lesions
  • Imprint (cytology) preparations are very useful
  • Optimal treatment is early referral to specialist centre
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6
Q
A

Malignant - trabecular bone is irregular here, there is a mix of cartilagenous tissue which shouldn’t usually be there

Normal bone marrow is shown below

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7
Q

List some bone tumour-like conditions.

A
  • Fibrous dysplasia
  • Metaphyseal fibrous cortical defect/non-ossifying fibroma
  • Reparative giant cell granuloma
  • Ossifying fibroma
  • Simple bone cyst
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8
Q

List 5 benign bone tumours.

A
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9
Q

How common is fibrous dysplasia? Who is most affected?

A
  • F>M
  • Up to age 30yrs
  • Polyostotic disease can be associated with endocrine problems and rough border café au lait spots on skin (McCune Albright syndrome)
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10
Q

Which genetic mutation may be present in fibrous dysplasia?

A

Somatic mutation in guanine-nucleotide binding protein (G-protein). (GNAS mutation chr 20 q13)

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11
Q

Which syndrome can fibrous dysplasia be associated with?

A

McCune Albright syndrome

Polyostotic disease can be associated with endocrine problems and rough border café au lait spots on skin

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12
Q

What % of fibrous dysplasia undergoes malignant transformation?

A

<1%

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13
Q

What is shown?

A

Soap bubble osteolysis

Characteristic feature of fibrous dysplasia is that it will always be present in more than 1 bone whereas primary bone scarcoma would not, unless metastasis.

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14
Q

What are the histological features of fibrous dysplasia shown here?

A

Marrow replaced by fibrous stroma

Rounded and curved trabecular bone - called “Chinese letters”

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15
Q

With benign diagnosis of fibrous dysplasia, what is the treatment?

A

Resection with narrow margins can be used if cosmetically unacceptable

No aggressive treatment necessary

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16
Q

What deformity is shown here? What is the consequence? (left femur on image)

A

Fibrous dysplasia causing Shepherd’s crook deformity

Bone is weak and cystic so predisposed to fractures

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17
Q

What are the commonest sites of osteochondromas?

A
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18
Q

What is a feature of this osteochondroma?

A

This bone outgrowth has a stalk or stem that sticks out from the normal bone. If the tumor has a stalk, the structure is called pedunculated.

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19
Q

What are the histological features of osteochondromas?

A

Mimic tubular bone and will have a cartilagenous surface overlying the cortical and trabecular bone

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20
Q

What is an enchondroma? What are the most common sites?

A

Enchondroma - cartilagenous proliferation within the bone

Majority in the hands, some in feet, less in long bones

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21
Q

What is this sign in enchondroma?

A

Popcorn calcification

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22
Q

What is shown?

A

Enchondroma - well circumscribed proliferation so can use a narrow excision (this is a benign condition)

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23
Q

Is this tumour benign or malignant?

A

Benign - but can be locally aggressive. Features include that it is well demarcated and although it has gone through cortex it is still not leaving surface.

This is an example of a giant cell tumour (borderline malignancy)

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24
Q

What is the site of most giant cell tumours?

A

Epiphysis with metaphyseal extension

Ends of long bones, knees most affected

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25
Q

Who is most affected by giant cell tumours?

A

20-40yo

F>M

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26
Q

Are the XR and histological features of giant cell tumours?

A

XR: lytic

Histo: osteoclasts on background of spindle/ovoid cells, locally aggressive, may recuur and can metastasise

NB: this is borderline malignancy

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27
Q

What are the giant cells in giant cell tumours of bone?

A

Sheets of osteoclasts

28
Q

What is the commonest malignant bone tumour?

A

Metastatic

29
Q

Which sites would you not expect metastatic malignant bone tumours not to occur?

A

Below elbow and below knee is not expected

30
Q

Which tumours in adults commonly metastasise to bone?

A
  • Breast
  • Prostate
  • Lung
  • Kidney
  • Thyroid
31
Q

Which tumours in children commonly metastasise to bone?

A
  • Neuroblastoma
  • Wilm’s tumour
  • Osteosarcoma
  • Ewings
  • Rhabdomyosarcoma
32
Q

Name 3 types of primary malignant bone tumours.

A

Osteosarcoma - bone forming tumour

Chondrosarcoma - cartilage forming tumour

Ewing’s sarcoma/PNET (primitive peripheral neuroectodermal tumour) - undifferentiated mesenchymal tumour

33
Q

What are the most common sited of osteosarcomas? What ages are affected and what sex?

A

Peak in adolescence (75% <20yo)

60% occur in knee

34
Q

What are the XR and histological features of osteosarcoma?

A

X-ray: usually metaphyseal, lytic, permeative, elevated periosteum(Codman’s Triangle)

Histo: malignant mesenchymal cells +/- bone and cartilage formation

35
Q

What is the prognosis for osteosarcomas and why?

A

Prognosis: poor- 60% 5 year survival.

Treatment is usually chemo and limb salvage surgery but chemo is poor as tumours are poorly vascularised

36
Q

How are osteosarcomas classified?

A

1. According to site within bone:- i.e. intramedullary, intracortical, surface

2.Degree of differentiation:- i.e. high, intermediate or low grade

3. Multicentricity:- i.e. synchronous or metachronous

4.Primary or secondary

37
Q

What sign of osteosarcoma is seen on this XR?

A

Codman’s triangle (periosteal)

Sclerotic and lytic lesions are seen. There is invasion of the soft tissue which has pushed the periosteum off.

38
Q

What are these red cytoplasm osteosarcoma cells seen to be positive for?

A

Cytology imprint of osteosarcoma cells positive for alkaline phosphatase (red cytoplasm).

39
Q

What does this slide of osteosarcoma show?

A

H&E stained section of osteosarcoma

showing mixed histological pattern malignant bone (purple)

in background of less cellular chondroid areas and cellular mesenchymal tumour.

40
Q

What is a chondrosarcoma?

A

Malignant cartilage producing tumour

Prognosis: 70% 5y survival (depends on grade & size)

41
Q

What ages are most affected by chondrosarcoma? Where do they usually occur?

A

Age: 40y and over

Site: pelvis, axial skeleton, prox femur, prox tibia

42
Q

What are the XR and histological features of chondrosarcomas?

A

X-ray: lytic with fluffy calcification

Histo: malignant chondrocytes +/- chondroid matrix may dedifferentiate to high grade sarcoma

43
Q

How are chondrosarcomas classified?

A
  1. According to site - intramedullary, juxtacortical
  2. Histologically - conventional (myxoid or hyaline), clear cell, dedifferentiated, mesenchymal
44
Q

Is this the arm or leg?

A

Arm

45
Q

Is this benign or malignant?

A

Chondrosarcoma so malignant

46
Q

What is Ewing’s sarcoma/PPNET? What is the prognosis?

A

Highly malignant small round cell tumour

Prognosis : - 75% 5y survival 50% longterm

47
Q

What ages are most affected by Ewing’s? What sites are most affected?

A

Age: usually < 20y (80%)

Site: diaphysis/metaphysis of long bones, pelvis

48
Q

What are the XR and histological features of Ewing’s sarcoma?

A

X-ray: onion skinning of periosteum, lytic +/- sclerosis (shown below to be affecting the fibula and soft tissue)

Histo: sheets of small round cells

49
Q

What is a molecular feature of Ewing’s sarcoma which is useful in diagnosis?

A

Specific chromosome translocation 11:22 (EWS/Fli1)

50
Q

Immunostaining can be used to exclude other diagnoses and to confirm Ewing’s sarcoma.

A

NG: ES will be positive for neuroendocrine markers (S100 and synaptophysin) and CD99 but nothing else.

51
Q

What fusion protein is present in Ewing’s sarcoma?

A

EWSR1-FL11 fusion protein

rearrangement t(22;22)(q24;q12)

This can be therapeutically exploited

52
Q

Define soft tissue tumours.

A

Defined as mesenchymal proliferations which occur in the extraskeletal, non-epithelial tissues of the body - excluding meninges and lymphoreticular system

53
Q

What sites do soft tissue tumours occur in?

A

Anywhere. Majority occur in large muscles of extremities, chest wall, mediastinum, retroperitoneum

54
Q

Does age/sex and ethnicity affect soft tissue tumour incidence?

A

Age:

  • Any age. Majority older patients
  • 15% < 15yrs
  • 50% > 55yrs

Sex:

  • M>F overall, but sex and age varies between histological types

Ethnicity:

  • No proven variation
  • Ewing’s and clear cell sarcoma rare in Afrocaribbean population
55
Q

What is the aetiology of soft tissue tumours? What are the risk factors?

A

Aetiology unknown

RF:

  • Genetic Predisposition
  • Chemical carcinogens
  • Physical ( asbestos, foreign body )
  • Viruses
  • Immunodeficiency
56
Q

What are the types of soft tissue tumours?

A

Liposarcoma/myxoid

Pleiomorphic

Spindle cell tumour

57
Q

What type of soft tissue tumour is this?

A

Liposarcoma/myxoid

58
Q

What are the diffrentials for liposarcoma/myxoid soft tissue tumour?

A
  • Myxoid DFSP
  • Embryonal ( Botryoid ) Rhabdo
  • Myxoid Chondrosarcoma
  • Chordoma
  • Signet Ring Lymphoma
  • “Balloon Cell” Melanoma
  • Mucinous Adenocarcinoma
59
Q

What type of soft tissue tumour is shown?

A

Spindle cell sarcoma

60
Q

What are the differentials for a spindle cell sarcoma soft tissue tumour?

A
  • Fibrosarcoma
  • MPNST
  • Monophasic Synovial Sarcoma
  • MFH
  • Leiomyosarcoma
  • GIST
  • Spindle cell forms of rhabdo, liposarcoma,
  • malignant melanoma, Carcinoma
61
Q

What type of soft tissue tumour is shown?

A

Pleomorphic tumour

62
Q

What are the differentials for pleomorphic sarcomas?

A
  • MFH
  • Rhabdomyosarcoma
  • Leiomyosarcoma
  • Liposarcoma
  • Malignant Melanoma
63
Q

Why is this called a “biphasic tumour”?

A

Synovial sarcomas have epithelial and spindle cell areas.

64
Q

List some special diagnostic tests that canbe used to help diagnose soft tissue tumours, if histology alone does not suffice.

A
  • Immunohistochemistry
  • EM
  • Cytogenetics (conventional & interphase)
  • FISH
  • M-FISH
  • SKY
  • CGH
  • PCR
  • RT-PCR
65
Q
A
66
Q

What are the good and bad prognostic factors for a soft tissue tumour?

A

Good:

  • <5cm
  • Superficial to deep fascia
  • Low histological grade
  • Clear excision margin
  • Vascular invasion absent
  • Diploid
  • Low proliferation index
  • Present tumour suppressor gene/absent tumour promoter gene

Bad:

  • >5cm
  • Deep to deep fascia
  • High histological grade
  • Involved excision margin
  • Vascular invasion
  • Aneuploid/hyperploid
  • High proliferation index
  • Absent tumour suppressor gene/present tumour promoter gene
67
Q

Summarise soft tissue sarcoma staging.

A

Staging based on prognostic factors and metastasis.

  • 0 = 3 good prognostic signs
  • 1 = 2 good 1 bad
  • 2 = 1 good 2+ bad
  • 3 = 3+ bad
  • 4 = metastases, regional or distant