HAEM: Myeloproliferative disorders Flashcards

1
Q

Summarise the normal haematopoiesis.

A

Common myeloid progenitor is where most disorders in relation to this topic arise.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe the function of growth factors in haematopoiesis. Which receptors play the most important role in normal/abnormal haematopoiesis?

A

Growth factors

GFs interact with receptors–> activation of kinases–> transfer of phosphate from ATP and phosphorylation of molecules in cells

Of these receptors, the tyrosine kinases play an important part in normal and abnormal haematopoiesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the function of Janus Kinases (JAK)?

A

They are a family of 4 tyrosine kinases associated with haemopoeitic cell growth factor receptors

Conformational changes occur when growth factors/cytokines interact with their receptor–> phosphorylation of the kinases –> activation of the STAT pathway ultimately –> cell proliferation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Briefly, what happens to this pathway when a JAK is mutated?

A

They act constitutively i.e. they do not require the presence of GF to be activated

JAK2 V617F mutation causes inactivation of the pseudokinase domain thereby removing an inhibition of activation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which cell types is JAK most implicated in?

A

JAK 2 is mainly implicated in myeloid cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What mutation is found in most MNPs?

A

Identical JAK2 kinase gene mutations seen in:

  • Most PV cases
  • About 50% of ET and less myelofibrosis cases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What two mutations of JAK2 are associated with MPNs?

A
  • Exon 12 - associated with IE
  • Exon 14 - PV

NB:

  • BUT JAK2 mutation V617F is not found in all MNPs and some may be associated with mutations in thrombopoietic receptors in MF and ET cases.*
  • MNPs are usually caused by intrinsic activation of tyrosine kinases so small inhibitory molecules are being developed to treat it.*
  • The mutation can have variable penetrance (mainly homozygous in PV but less so in others)*
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a chronic myeloproliferative neoplasm?

A

A group of neoplastic/clonal disorders of haemopoeitic stem cells

characterised by the overproduction of one or more of the mature myeloid cellular elements of the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What happens to the bone marrow in MPN?

A

Increased fibrosis in BM most extreme in idiopathic myelofibrosis

Often accompanied by various degrees of non-clonal reactive fibrosis in the bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What can MNPs progress to?

A

A proportion of cases progress to an acute leukaemia like picture (but usually after ~15 years)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are some clinical features of MNPs?

A

Clinical presentations include greater preponderance to thrombosis (arterial) and sometimes splenomegaly and less frequency haemorrhage

Variability in clinical course

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What happens to blood of MNP patients if you try to grow it without growth factors?

A

There is still spontaneous colony growth in cultures without added EPO or TPO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Give 4 examples of chronic MNPs.

A
  1. Polycythaemia vera (PV)
  2. Essential Thrombocythaemia (ET)
  3. Idiopathic Myelofibrosis
  4. Idiopathic erythrocytosis
  5. Chronic granulocytic leukaemia (discussed in a separate lecture)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe the differences between MPN, MDS and leukaemia in terms of proliferation and differentiation.

A

There is some overlap as you can get progression from MPN to leukaemia or sometimes MDS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the laboratory features of PV?

A
  • High haemoglobin
  • High haematocrit
  • Low serum of erythropoietin i.e. proliferation is independent of usual mechanisms
  • WCC normal/high
  • Increased RBC mass
  • Increased plasma volume - compensatory increase in blood volume
  • Usually increased platetets
  • Slight to moderate reticulin fibrosis and megakaryocyte abnormalities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How common is PV?

A

More common in males 1.2:1

~2/100,000

Age ~60 at diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the clinical presentation of PV?

A

Incidental diagnosis on routine blood testing or

  • Symptoms of increased hyper viscosity:
    • Headaches, light-headedness, stroke
    • Visual disturbances
    • Fatigue, dyspnoea
  • Increased histamine release:
    • Aquagenic pruritus - itching after shower
    • Peptic ulceration

Other:

  • May have splenomeagaly
  • Plethora
  • Erythromelalgia: red painful extremeties
  • Thrombosis
  • Retinal vein engorgement -
  • Gout - due to increased red cell turnover and overproduction of uric acid

+absence of other causes of increased haematocrit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the bone marrow features in PV?

A

Often increased cellularity mainly affecting erythroid cells but may also be seen in other series

Usually many fat spaces are present whereas here the spaces are occupied by cells; in contrast to other conditions, these cells are all mature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What feature of PV is shown?

A

Erythromelalgia - painful and red extremities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What mutation is diagnostic in the presence of the clinical picture in PV?

A

JAK 2 V617F mutation present (diagnostic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How is blood volume investigated in PV? Describe the differences in blood volume between PV, pseudopolycythaemia and normal.

A

In true PV there is increase in RBC mass and plasma volume with an increase in Hct too.

Measured by isotope dilution method: red cell mass measured by incubating patient’s RBC with radioactive chromium and plasma volume by incubating plasma with radioactive iodine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the difference between erythrocytosis and PV?

A

Erythrocytosis =

  • JAK2 exon 12 mutation (vs V617 JAK2 mutation on exon 14 in PV)
  • No increase in platelets or WBC
  • Purely raised RBCs
23
Q

What if the patient has a raised haematocrit but no JAK2 mutation? What are the possibel diagnoses?

A
24
Q

What is the current diagnostic criteria for PV?

A

Diagnostic criteria:

  1. Increased RBC production and usually also increased platelets and sometimes neuutrophils
  2. Most patients will have the JAK2 V617F mutation

Historical criteria shown below, but this was used before the JAK2 mutation was found in 2006.

25
Q

What is the management of PV?

A

Aim to reduce viscosity as blood viscosity rises expenonentially with rising HCT : keep HCT <45%

  • Venesection
  • +/- Cytoreductive therapy for maintenance - to reduce the haematopoiesis

Aim to reduce risks of thrombosis

  • Aspirin
  • Keep platelets below 400x109/l (using cytoreductive tx)
26
Q

What happens to the blood after venesection?

A

There is an increases in plasma volume to compensate for volume loss

Fe deficiency results

Unfortunately leads to increased megakaryopoeisus and increased platelets so this needs to be reduced by cytoreductive therapies to reduce haematopoiesis

27
Q

What are the main features od idiopathic erythrocytosis? Is there a JAK2 mutation?

A
  • Isolated erythrocytosis
  • Low EPO

Absence of JAK2 V617 mutation but some cases there is a mutation in exon 12 of JAK2 (as previously shown)

28
Q

What is the main management of idiopathic erythrocytosis?

A

Venesection only

29
Q

What is the risk of progression to MF/AML in IE?

A

Less likely to transform to MF or AML

30
Q

What is the prognosis with IE vs PV?

A

Erythrocytosis alone : no adverse prognosis if HCT maintained

Polycythaemia vera: most survive 10 years . 65% 15 years - risk of thrombosis is 30% if platelets not reduced

31
Q

What is essential thrombocythaemia?

A

Chronic MPN mainly involving megakaryocytic lineage

Sustained thrombocytosis >600x109/L

32
Q

How common is ET?

A

1.5 per 100,000

Peaks at age 55 and 30 (equal incidence at first peak but more common in females in second peak)

33
Q

What are the clinical features of ET?

A

Incidental finding in half the patients, otherwise.. .

  • Thrombosis:
    • arterial or venous
    • CVA, gangrene, TIA
    • DVT or PE
  • Bleeding: mucous membrane and cutaneous
  • Minor: headaches, dizziness visual disturbances
  • Splenomegaly usually modest
34
Q

What are the diagnostic featurs of ET? What must be excluded?

A

Platelets consistently >600x109/L

Megakaryocyte abnormalities and clustering

JAK 2 V617F mutation

Exclude:

  • Reactive thrombocytosis (normal ESR and CRP)
    • Inflammation and infection
    • Neoplasia
    • Splenectomy
  • Preceding or coincidental myeloproliferative disorder or dysplasia
35
Q

What are the features of BM in ET?

A

Normal or slightly increased BM cellularity - usually only megakaryocytes increased

More fat spaces unlike PV, but some clustering of megakaryocytes seen some of which are less mature

36
Q

What is the management of ET?

A
  • Aspirin: to prevent thrombosis
  • Hydroxycarbamide (main): antimetabolite. Suppression of other cells as well. Possible mildly leukaemogenic.
  • Anagrelide (2nd line): specific inhibition of platelet formation, side effects include palpitations and flushing BUT may accelerate myelofibrosis

Other:

  • Alpha interferon: may have a place in the treatment of patients below 40 years of age. Useful in pregnancy as it is not teratogenic but not used otherwise.
  • *They do not have high Hct so no need for venesection*
37
Q

How do you stratify ET patients in terms of risk?

A

Low risk - e.g. you only need to treat patients <40yr if plt are >1500x109/L

  • Age less than 40
  • Platelets less than 1500x109/l
  • Asymptomatic
  • Intermediate risk
  • Age 40-60

High risk

  • Age >60
  • Thrombosis, ischaemic or haemorrhagic symptoms
  • Platelets > 1000x109/l
  • Other thrombotic risk factors
38
Q

What is the prognosis with ET?

A

Normal lifespan

Leukaemic transformation in 5%

Myelofibrosis uncommon

39
Q

What is chronic idiopathic myelofibrosis (CIMF)?

A

A clonal myeloproliferative disease with proliferation mainly of megakaryocytes and granulocytic cells, associated with reactive bone marrow fibrosis and extramedullary haematopoieisis

40
Q

Which myeloproliferative disorders can progress to cause secondary CIMF?

A

PV

ET

41
Q

How common is primary CIMF?

A

1 per 100,000

M=F

Usually in aged 70s

42
Q

What is the clinical presentation of CIMF?

A

Incidental in 30%, otherwise:

  • Cytopenias: anaemia or thrombocytopenia
  • Thrombocytosis
  • Splenomegaly: may be massive
  • Budd-Chiari syndrome
  • Hepatomegaly
  • Hypermetabolic state
43
Q

What are the features of the hypermetabolic state seen in CIMF?

A
  • Weight loss
  • Fatigue and dyspnoea
  • Night sweats
  • Hyperuricaemia
44
Q

What are the two stages of myelofibrosis? Describe each .

A

Prefibrotic phase - blood changes mild but may be confused with ET, hypercellular marrow

Fibrotic stage - splenomegaly and blood changes, dry tap, prominent collagen fibrosis, later osteosclerosis

45
Q

What are the blood film features in CIMF?

A

Blood film:

  • Leucoerythroblastic picture
  • Tear drop poikilocytes
  • Giant platelets
  • Circulating megakaryocytes
46
Q

What are the bone marrow features in CIMF?

A

‘Dry tap’

Trephine biopsy:

  • Increased reticulin or collagen fibrosis
  • Prominent megakaryocyte hyperplasia and clustering with abnormalities
  • New bone formation
47
Q

Give 2 organs in which extramedullary haematopoiesis may occur in CIMF.

A

Liver and spleen

48
Q

What features of CIMF are shown here?

A

A - tear drop cells

B - nucleated RBC

C - basophilia

49
Q

What feature of CIMF is shown here?

A

Increased platelet production

50
Q

What features are seen in this BM biopsy in myelofibrosis/CIMF?

A

Collagen fibrosis

Reduced cellularity

51
Q

What is the management of CIMF?

A

Symptomatic

  • Anaemia- transfusions; may become increasingly difficult because of splenomegaly
  • Platelet transfusions - often ineffective
  • Splenectomy - for symptomatic relief;often hazardous and followed by worsening of condition

Cytoreductive therapy: hydroxycarbamide for thrombocytosis, but may lead to worsening anaemia

Thalidomide +/- prednisolone: useful in only selected patients about 20% response rate with improvement of thrombocytopenia and anaemia

Bone marrow transplant in young patients may be curative (experimental)

52
Q

What is the prognosis with CIMF?What are soem bad prognostic factors?

A

Median 3-5 year survival

Bad prognostic factors

  • Severe anaemia <10g/dL
  • Thrombocytopenia <100x109/l
  • Massive splenomegaly
53
Q

True or false: BM examination is essential for the diagnosis of MPNs including PV.

A

False - not necessary in PV where there JAK2 mutation is detected BUT BM always needed in myelofibrosis diagnosis.