HIS 2016-2017 MCQ - Flashcards

1
Q

Q1. A patient suffering from dehydration is given an infusion of isotonic saline. What effect will the introduction of this solution have on the body’s fluids?

increase ECF (extracellular fluid) volume while decreasing ECF osmolarity

increase ECF volume without altering ECF osmolarity

increase ICF (intracellular fluid) volume without altering ECF osmolarity

increase ECF volume while increasing ECF osmolarity

increase ICF volume without altering ICF osmolarity

A

A. Increase ECF volume without altering ECF osmolarity

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2
Q

Q2. A 16-year-old girl presents to the Emergency department after fainting in school. Her mother informs the doctor that she suffers from fatigue, breathlessness and menorrhagia (heavy, regular menstruation). Her physical examination is notable for pallor. Following analysis of her full blood count and blood film, the girl is diagnosed with iron deficiency anaemia. In terms of haemoglobin levels and red blood cell size, how would you best describe her anaemia?

Hyperchromic, macrocytic

Hyperchromic, microcytic

Hypochromic, microcytic

Hypochromic, normocytic

Normochromic, microcytic

A

C. Hypochromic, microcytic

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3
Q

Q3. Prior to performing a blood transfusion, blood grouping of the donor’s blood is determined. The illustration below highlights the results of this blood group analysis. What is the blood group of the donor?

A Rhesus negative

A Rhesus positive

AB Rhesus positive

B Rhesus negative

B Rhesus positive

A

B. A rhesus positive

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4
Q

Q4. A man goes to his GP after a scratch on his leg has become painful and swollen. The GP diagnoses a bacterial infection. What cells of the immune system use a process of phagocytosis to engulf bacteria?

Eosinophils

Macrophages

Mast cells

Secretory cells

T cells

A

B. Macrophages

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5
Q

Q5. Approximately 60 minutes after being bitten by an insect, a 45-year-old woman noticed localised swelling, itching and redness to the affected area. A likely contributor to this reaction is histamine, released by mast cells in an acute inflammatory response. What is the main role of histamine in this case?

It acts as a chemoattractant

It causes constriction of blood vessels

It increases the permeability of blood vessels

It activates neutrophils

It mediates direct killing of a microbe

A

C. It increases the permeability of blood vessels

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6
Q

Q6. A 26-year-old man presented to the Emergency Department of a hospital with severe swelling to his face mainly around the lips. There was no itching and no evidence of hives. The doctor suspected anaphylaxis but adrenaline failed to have a significant effect. Based on a family history of similar events, hereditary angioedema was considered more likely. What defect in the immune system contributes to this disease?

Complement disorder

Cytokine deficiency

Defects in antigen presentation

MHC deficiency

Phagocyte disorder

A

A. Complement disorder - hereditary angioedema - overactivation due to a lack of complement inhibitors.

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7
Q

Q7. Where do precursor T cells develop into fully competent but not yet activated T cells?

Bone marrow

Lymph nodes

Peripheral tissue

Spleen

Thymus

A

E. Thymus -

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8
Q

Q8. A 15-month-old girl was admitted to hospital with diarrhoea, vomiting, dehydration and abdominal pain. She was also noted to have significant weight loss, irritability and a distended stomach over the last 3 months. Clinical presentation, serologic testing and biopsy analysis confirmed coeliac disease. What antibody isotype would be highly elevated in the serology result?

IgA

IgD

IgE

IgG

IgM

A

D. IgG

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9
Q

Q9. Following a trip to East Asia, and the consumption of unwashed vegetables there, a 32-year-old man developed intestinal symptoms consistent with an extracellular helminth (worm) infection. What subset of helper T cells drives the immune response responsible for clearing worm infections?

Th0

Th1

Th2

Th17

Treg

A

C. Th2

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10
Q

Q10. It is flu season, and a media campaign has been launched to advise vulnerable groups of society to get the flu vaccine. What cytokine is primarily associated with the immune response to viral infection, via functions including the following: shutting down viral replication, activating cytotoxic T cells, activating antigen-presenting cells and up regulating Class I MHC?

Interferon alpha

Interleukin 1 beta

Interleukin 2

Interleukin 8

Tumour necrosis factor alpha

A

B. interleukin 1 beta

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11
Q

Q11. A woman presents to her general practitioner with symptoms including persistent skin rashes, joint pain, oedema and chronic fatigue. Based on a combination of physical exam, history and lab tests, the autoimmune disease systemic lupus erythematosus is diagnosed. The patient later develops severe kidney inflammation (lupus nephritis) as a consequence of immune complex deposition in the kidneys. What type of hypersensitivity reaction involves immune complex deposition in tissues or organs?

Immediate hypersensitivity

Type I

Type II

Type III

Type IV

A

C. Type 3

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12
Q

Q12. A new immunotherapy for cancer is being tested in a Phase II clinical trial in combination with the standard-of-care cytotoxic drugs. Part of the acquired (specific) immune response towards clearing tumour cells mimics the way in which virally infected cells are disposed of. What cell type and immune mediator combination is commonly used by both the anti-tumour and anti-viral immune response?

Cytotoxic T lymphocytes / perforin

Helper T lymphocytes / complement

Helper T lymphocytes / granzyme

Natural killer cells / interleukin-1 beta

Neutrophil / defensins

A

D. Natural Killer Cells/Interleukin 1 beta

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13
Q

Q14. A 40-year-old man is admitted with a chest infection, which is subsequently identified as Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia. He was diagnosed with HIV 8 years earlier and had been treated with a combination of a nucleoside and non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor as well as a protease inhibitor. A decision is taken to start treatment with maraviroc.

What test must be performed before using maraviroc?

CD4+ cell count

CD8+ cell count

Liver function test

Renal function test

Viral tropism test

A

Viral tropism test

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14
Q

Q13. A surgical patient developed a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus infection and was started on a combination of linezolid and daptomycin and subsequently improved. What is the mechanism of action of daptomycin?

Cell depolarization

Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

Inhibition of DNA synthesis

Inhibition of ribosomal complex formation

Inhibition of RNA synthesis

A

A . Cell depolarization

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15
Q

Q15. A liver transplant patient is started on tacrolimus to prevent organ rejection. How does tacrolimus prevent organ rejection?

It inhibits IL-2 production

It inhibits IL-2 signalling

It inhibits lymphocyte entry to blood stream

It inhibits nucleotide synthesis

It is cytotoxic to dividing cells

A

It inhibits IL-2 production

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16
Q

Q16. A 38-year-old woman presents with a number of neurological deficits that occur sporadically. These symptoms have been occurring more frequently and with greater severity. She is diagnosed with multiple sclerosis and started on treatment with fingolimod. What is the mechanism of action of the immunosuppressant fingolimod?

Increase the levels of anti-inflammatory cytokines

Inhibition of IL-2 signalling

Inhibition of IL-2 production

Inhibition of lymphocyte entry to the blood stream

Inhibition of nucleotide synthesis

A

Inhibition of lymphocyte entry to the blood stream

17
Q

Q17. A runner is doing multiple sprints while training. This leads to a shift in the oxygen dissociation curve to the right and therefore more oxygen delivery to the tissues. What is the major contributor to this shift in the curve?

A decrease in 2,3 bisphosphoglycerate

An increase in 2,3 bisphosphoglycerate

An increase in erythropoietin

Haem-haem interactions

The Bohr effect

A

B. An increase in 2,3 Bisphosphoglycerate

18
Q

Q18. A patient is being treated with hydroxyurea for sickle cell anaemia. This causes an increase in expression of the foetal haemoglobin leading to a decrease in haemoglobin multimer formation, which is responsible for the sickling of erythrocytes. What haemoglobin chain is increased with hydroxyurea treatment?

Alpha chain

Beta chain

Gamma chain

Epsilon chain

Zeta chain

A

C. Gamma chain - b/c it induces fetal haemoglobin

19
Q

Q19. A young boy arrives in the clinic in haemolytic crisis after taking an antibiotic. His mother explains that he has glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency. Patients with G6PD deficiency are sensitive to oxidative stress and in this case, the drug was an oxidizing agent. What are these patients unable to neutralize?

Hydrogen peroxide

Hydroxyl radical

Nitric oxide

Peroxynitrite

Superoxide

A

A. Hydrogen peroxide

20
Q

Q20. A 25-year-old woman arrives in the emergency department with chest pain. Her creatine kinase test results reveal CKMM is elevated while CKMB and CKBB are normal. What conclusion can you draw from these results?

She has damaged her heart muscle

She has damaged her skeletal muscle

She has damaged her spleen

She has a tumour in her liver.

You can’t draw any conclusions using creatine kinase only

A

b.She has damaged her skeletal muscle

21
Q

Q21. Maryam, an RCSI Medical student receives a paper cut to her hand while studying for her exams and begins to bleed. In normal haemostasis, which clotting factor is released from damaged tissue, and initiates a chain of clotting events?

Factor XIIa

Fibrinogen (Factor I)

Prekinninogen (PK)

Thrombin (Factor II)

Tissue factor (TF)

A

E.Tissue factor (TF)

22
Q

Questions 22-23

A 24-year-old man with poor English, presented to the emergency department with excessive and prolonged bleeding from an accidental domestic knife cut while chopping vegetables. His poor command of English prevented any detailed family history from being taken. A coagulation screen was requested and the results, shown in the table below, demonstrated that he appeared to suffer from a bleeding disorder. What type of blood sample is used to assess blood coagulation?

A blood sample collected from the bleeding wound

A blood sample collected in a vaccutainer containing heparin as the anticoagulant

A blood sample collected in a vaccutainer containing sodium citrate as the anticoagulant

A blood sample collected in a vaccutainer containing no anticoagulant

A serum sample obtained after centrifugation of the clotted blood

Q23. What is the likely cause of the bleeding disorder in this patient?

Deficiency of Factor VIII or Factor IX

Deficiency of Factor VII

Deficiency of Prothrombin, fibrinogen or Factor X

Incorrectly synthesised Factors II, VII, IX and X

Presence of an inhibitor of Prothrombin, Fibrinogen or Factor X

A

c. A blood sample collected in a vaccutainer containing sodium citrate as the anticoagulant?

23
Q

Q24. James, 67 years of age, was diagnosed with acute coronary syndrome (ACS) following presentation in the emergency department with severe chest pain. His initial blood analysis indicated a platelet count of 179 X 109/L (range 150-400 X 109/L). Following primary angioplasty to clear the thrombus from his cardiac artery, he was treated with a heparin infusion (800 units), aspirin (325mg) and clopidogrel (60mg). 24-hours post-procedure, routine tests showed a platelet count of 12 X 109/L. He had no signs of bleeding and all other blood results were stable and within normal ranges.

What adverse drug reaction is James likely to be experiencing?

Aspirin-induced hypersensitivity (AIH)

Clopidogrel resistance (CR)

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)

None, as this is normal in ACS patients

A

D. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)

24
Q

Q25. A 23-year-old suffering with sneezing, nasal congestion and red watery eyes is diagnosed with allergic rhinitis (hay fever). Analysis of this patient’s blood after staining with haematoxylin and eosin revealed increased levels of the leukocyte indicated by an arrow in the photomicrograph below. What is this cell type called?

Eosinophil

Erythrocyte

Lymphocyte

Monocyte

Neutrophil

A

E. Eosinophil

25
Q

Questions 26 & 27

A 45-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis has been treated with methotrexate for a number of years. However, recently her condition has been worsening and she presents with pain in her joints. You prescribe aspirin to provide immediate pain relief and decide to start her on a targeted therapy using etanercept.

Q26. What does aspirin inhibit?

cyclooxygenase

prostaglandin receptors

prostaglandin reductase

prostaglandin synthetase

thromboxane synthetase

Q27. What is the target of etanercept.

B7

Tumour necrosis factor alpha

Interleukin 1

Interleukin 2

Interleukin 6

A
  1. cyclooxygenase
  2. TNF alpha
26
Q

Q28. A patient with community-acquired pneumonia is started on levofloxacin, a fluoroquinolone antibiotic. What is the mechanism of action of levofloxacin?

Cell depolarization

Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

Inhibition of DNA synthesis

Inhibition of RNA synthesis

Inhibition of ribosomal complex formation

A

C. Inhibition of DNA synthesis

27
Q

Q29. Under normal circumstance the T cell is activated through interaction of the T-cell receptor with antigen bound to the major histocompatibility complex and by the interaction of a co-stimulatory molecule on its cell surface. What is this co-stimulatory molecule found on T cells called?

CD28

CD80

CTLA4

IL-2 receptor

LFA-1

A

A. CD28

28
Q

Q30. A 36-year-old man presented with pain and swelling in his calf, 2 days after completing a long-haul flight from California to Dublin. After confirmation of the presence of a deep vein thrombosis by a D-Dimer test and a CT scan, he was treated first with daily heparin injections and then slowly changed to treatment with a recently approved oral anti-coagulant that did not require regular monitoring. What drug is this most likely to be?

Aspirin

Dabigatran

Fondaparinux

Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)

Warfarin

A

B. Dabigatran