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Spinal Anatomy > Highlighted quiz questions > Flashcards

Highlighted quiz questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is the primary constituent of ground substance?

A

Glycosaminoglycans

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2
Q

What is the principal type of protein fiber in bone?

A

collagen type 1

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3
Q

what is the most frequently described deposit in bone?

A

Hydroxyapatite

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4
Q

What are the three responses of bone which allow it to be described as living?

A

It has the ability to heal, to remodel under stressors and to age

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5
Q

What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in mesenchyme?

A

Intramembranous ossification

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6
Q

what is the name given to the pattern of ossification in cartilage?

A

endochondral ossification

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7
Q

What is the timing for the appearance of ossification in cartilage?

A

from the second to fifth month in utero

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8
Q

What part of the skull is derived from endochondral ossification ?

A

chondocranium

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9
Q

What bone of the appendicular skeleton is formed by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?

A

the clavicle

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10
Q

What are the names given to the centers of ossification based on time of appearance?

A

primary centers of ossification appear before birthsecondary centers of ossification appear after birth

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11
Q

What are the primary sources of variation observed in bone?

A

gender variation (sexual dimorphism), ontogenetic variation, geographic or population based variation and idiosyncratic variation

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12
Q

What are the six more commonly used classifications of normal bone?

A

long bones, short bones, flat bones, irregular bones, paranasal sinus or pneumatic bones and sesamoid bones

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13
Q

what is the name given to bone formed in a non bone location?

A

heterotopic bone

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14
Q

what is the name given to bone formed from existing bone?

A

accessory bone

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15
Q

what the examples of short bones?

A

most of the bones of the carpus and tarsus

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16
Q

What is characteristic of pneumatic bone?

A

air spaces with the bone

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17
Q

What are examples of pneumatic bone?

A

frontal, ethmoid, maxilla, sphenoid, and temporal

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18
Q

What is the characteristic of sesamoid bone?

A

the bone develops within a tendon

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19
Q

What are consistent examples of sesamoid bones?

A

Patella and pisiform

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20
Q

what are examples of heterotopic bones?

A

calcific deposits in the pineal gland, heart, and ligaments

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21
Q

What are the four basic surface feature categories?

A

elevations, depressions, tunnels or passageways and facets

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22
Q

what are the types of osseus elevations?

A

linear, rounded and sharp

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23
Q

what are the types of rounded osseous elevations?

A

tubercle, protuberance, trochanter, tuber or tuberosity and malleolus

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24
Q

what are the categories of sharp osseus elevations?

A

spine and process

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25
Q

what are the categories of osseous depressions?

A

linear and rounded depressions

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26
Q

What are the categories of osseous linear depressions?

A

notch or incisure, groove, and sulcus

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27
Q

What are the categories of rounded osseus depressions?

A

the fovea and the fossa

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28
Q

What are the names given to openings on the surface of bone?

A

ostium or orifice and hiatus

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29
Q

what is the definition of an osseous ostium?

A

a round or oval opening on the surface of bone

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30
Q

what is the definition of an osseous hiatus?

A

an irregular opening on the surface of bone

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31
Q

what is the definition of an osseous foramen?

A

an ostium passing completely through a thin region of bone

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32
Q

what is the definition of an osseous canal?

A

an ostium passing completely through a thick region of bone

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33
Q

what is the name given to an ostium which does not completely penetrate tthrough a region of bone but appears as a blind ended passageway?

A

meatus

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34
Q

what is the definition of an osseous fissure?

A

an irregular slit like or crack like appearance between the surfaces of adjacent bones

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35
Q

what are the categories of osseus facets?

A

flat facets and rounded facets

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36
Q

what are the categories of rounded osseous facets?

A

articular heads and articular condyles

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37
Q

What is the definition of an osseous condyle?

A

A knuckle shaped surface on bone for osseus articulation

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38
Q

What are examples of an osseous condyle?

A

occipital condyle of the occipital bone, mandibular condyle of the mandible and the medial and lateral condyles of the femur

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39
Q

How many bones form the typical adult appendicular skeleton?

A

126 bones

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40
Q

What bones form the axial skeleton?

A

the skull, hyoid, vertebral column, sternum and ribs

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41
Q

What is the name given to the adult skull minus the mandible?

A

the cranium

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42
Q

What are the names given to the top of the adult skull?

A

the calvaria or calva

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43
Q

What are the categories of bone forming the typical adult skull?

A

The neurocranium, the facial skeleton (splanchnocranium or visceral skeleton) and the auditory ossicles

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44
Q

What is the total number of bones forming the typical adult skull?

A

28 bones

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45
Q

how many bones form the typical adult neurocranium?

A

8 bones

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46
Q

What is the facial skeleton (splanchnocranium or visceral skeleton)?

A

the bones that support the face

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47
Q

How many bones form the facial skeleton?

A

14 bones

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48
Q

By strict definition, what is the splanchnocranium?

A

the bones which support the face minus the mandible

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49
Q

How many bones comprise the typical adult auditory ossicles?

A

6 bones

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50
Q

how many bones are present in the adult hyoid?

A

1 bone

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51
Q

What bones comprise the typical adult vertebral column or spinal colum?

A

The cervical, thoracic, lumbar vertebrae and the sacrum and coccyx

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52
Q

What is the name given to the presacral region of the typical adult vertebral column or spinal column?

A

the spine

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53
Q

What is the total number of bones forming the typical adult spine?

A

24 bones

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54
Q

How many bones are present in the typical adult sternum?

A

1 bone

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55
Q

How many ribs are present in the typical adult skeleton?

A

12 pair or 24 ribs

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56
Q

What is the term used to identify the study of joints?

A

Arthrology

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57
Q

What term is used to identify the study of ligaments?

A

syndesmology

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58
Q

what is the classification of a plane or gliding synovial joint?

A

arthrodia

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59
Q

What is the classification of a hinge type sinovial joint?

A

ginglymus

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60
Q

what is the classification of a pivot type synovial joint?

A

trochoid

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61
Q

what is the classification of a knuckle type synovial joint?

A

condylar or bicondylar

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62
Q

what is the classificatoin of an oval like synovial joint?

A

ellipsoidal

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63
Q

What is the classification of a saddle type synovial joint?

A

Sellar

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64
Q

what is the classifiatoin of a ball and socket synovial joint?

A

cotyloid, spheroidal or enarthrosis

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65
Q

what fibrous connective tissue classically fills the joint space of a syndesmosis?

A

interosseous ligament

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66
Q

what are the examples of the typical syndesmosis from the vertebral column?

A

most of the ligamentous joints of the vertebral column and ligamentous sacro-iliac joints

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67
Q

what is the synonym for amphiarthrosis joints?

A

cartilage joint

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68
Q

which classfication of cartilage joint is the first to appear developmentally?

A

(amphiartrhosis) synchondrosis

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69
Q

which cartilage joint forms between ossification center within a cartilage template?

A

(amphiartrhosis) synchondrosis

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70
Q

which type of cartilage is characteristic of the (amphiartrhosis) synchondrosis?

A

hyaline cartilage

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71
Q

which classification of cartilage joint is primary, temporary and composed of hyaline cartilage?

A

(amphiartrhosis) synchondrosis

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72
Q

what are examples of temporary cartilage joints?

A

metaphysis, neuro-central joint, neural arch joint and chondocranium

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73
Q

what are examples of a permanent (amphiartrhosis) synchondrosis?

A

costochondral joints or the first sternochondral joint

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74
Q

what is the classification of a secondary cartilage joint?

A

(amphiartrhosis) symphysis

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75
Q

which cartilage joint occurs between bones formed by endochondral ossification?

A

(amphiartrhosis) symphysis

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76
Q

which classification of cartilage joint is permanent in its longevity?

A

(amphiartrhosis) symphysis

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77
Q

which cartilage joint has limited motion, lies in the medial plane and occurs between bones formed by endochondral ossification?

A

(amphiartrhosis) symphysis

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78
Q

what are the characteristics of an (amphiartrhosis) symphysis?

A

limited motion, median plane location, support ligaments both anterior and posterior to the joint, more permanent longevity that synchondrosis and they occur between bones developing by endochondral ossification

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79
Q

what are the classic examples of an (amphiartrhosis) symphysis?

A

intervertebral disc, pubic symphysis, sternal symphyses and symphysis menti

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80
Q

which example of an (amphiartrhosis) symphysis is temporary?

A

symphysis menti

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81
Q

what are the four consistent features of synovial (diarthrosis) jonts?

A

articular or fibrous capsule, synovial membrane, articular cartilage and synovial fluid

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82
Q

thickening of the fibrous capsule connective tissue will form the

A

capsular ligament

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83
Q

what generic accessory ligaments may accompany and support the capsular ligament?

A

intracapsular and extracapsular ligament

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84
Q

what is the generic function of ligaments?

A

stimulate reflex contraction of muscles around the joint

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85
Q

what are the characteristics of the type 1 articular receptors?

A

located in the superficial layer of the fibrous capsule, resemble ruffini endings, most numerous in cervical zygapophyses and they monitor the joints at rest

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86
Q

what are the characteristics of type ii articular receptors?

A

located in deeper strata of the fibrous capsule, resemble pacinian corpuscles, most numerous in the cervical spine and monitor the joint during normal range of motion

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87
Q

what are the characteristics of type 3 articular receptors?

A

present in collateral and intrinsic ligaments, resemble golgi tendon organs, not initially observed along the vertebral column and monitor extreme joint motion

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88
Q

what is the function of type 4 articular receptors?

A

nociceptive, they monitor pain

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89
Q

type 4b articular receptors would be present in what locations?

A

accessory ligaments in general, dense in the posterior longitudinal ligament of the spine

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90
Q

What are the three modifications of articular synovial membrane?

A
  1. synovial villi 2. Articular fat pads or haversian glands (3) synovial menisci and intra articular discs
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91
Q

what is the generic function of modificatoins of articular synovial membrane?

A

aid in spreading synovial fluid

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92
Q

what is the apparent function of synovial villi?

A

increase the surface of synovial membrane available for secretion- absorption phenomena

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93
Q

articular fat pads are most numerous in what location along the vertebral column?

A

Lumbar zygapophyses

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94
Q

what is the unique name of the inner or lumenal layer of the synovial membrane?

A

synovial lamina intima

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95
Q

what are the specific functions of type A synovial cells?

A

are phagocytic

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96
Q

What is the specific functions of type B synovial cells?

A

secrete proteinaceous substances and hyaluronic acid

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97
Q

What are examples of glycosaminoglycans important in articular cartilage?

A

hyaluronic acid, chondroitin sulfates and keratin sulfate

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98
Q

what is the primary function of bound glycosaminoglycans in articular cartilage?

A

form a network for water retention

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99
Q

what is implied when cartilage is said to have elastic properties?

A

cartilage can deform and returns to original volume rapidly, a time independent property

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100
Q

What is implied when cartilage is said to have viscoelastic properties?

A

cartilage can deform but returns to original volume slowly, a time dependent property

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101
Q

which theory of joint lubrication implies a loss of fluid from the cartilage into the joint space during compression results in increased viscosity of the synovial fluid?

A

weeping theory

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102
Q

which theory of joint lubrication implies water loss from the synovial fluid increases viscosity of the remaining synovial fluid?

A

boosted theory

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103
Q

which theory of joint lubrication implies an adsorption of lubricant onto cartilage surfaces is responsible for the low-friction observed during movement?

A

boundary theory

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104
Q

What are the properties of synovial fluid?

A

it is yellow white, viscous, slightly alkaline and tastes salty

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105
Q

which substance is synovial fluid was first thought to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior?

A

hyaluronate

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106
Q

What substance of synovial fluid has been proposed to be resposinble for its viscosity and lubricating behavior ?

A

lubricin

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107
Q

What is the function of synovial fluid?

A

provides a nutritive source for articular cartilage and supply the lubricant for the cartilage surface

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108
Q

What is a simple synovial joint?

A

only one pair of articulating surfaces is observed

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109
Q

what is a compound synovial joint?

A

more than two articulating surfaces are presetn in the same synovial joint

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110
Q

What is a complex synovial joint ?

A

within the simple join or the compound joint, the articulating surfaces are separated by an articular disc or meniscus

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111
Q

what morphological classification of synovial joints is classified as nonaxial?

A

plane

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112
Q

what morphological classifications of synovial joints would be classified as uniaxial?

A

hinge and pivot

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113
Q

what morphological classifications of synovial joints would be classified as biaxial?

A

bicondylar, condylar, ellipsoidal and saddle

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114
Q

what morphological classification of synovial joints would be classified as multiaxial?

A

ball and socket, diarthrosis spheroidal, diarthrosis cotyloid are all classifications given to the same joint

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115
Q

what are examples of synovial plane joints?

A

most zygapophyses of the vertebral column Intercarpal, carpometacarpal and intermetacarpal joints of the handintercuneiform, tarsometatarsal and intermetatarsal joints of the foot

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116
Q

what are examples of synovial hinge joints?

A

humero ulnar joint of the elbow and interphalangeal joints of the fingers and toes

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117
Q

what are the examples of synovial pivot joints?

A

median atlanto axial joint and proximal radio ulnar joint

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118
Q

What are examples of diarthrosis condylar or diarthrosis bicondylar joints?

A

temporomandibular joint and femur tibia joint of the knee

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119
Q

what are examples of diarhtrosis ellipsoidal joints?

A

radiocarpal joint of the wrist, metacarpo phalangeal joints of the hand, metatarsal phalangeal joints of the foot and the atlanto occipital joint of the vertebral column

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120
Q

which synovial joint classifications are now often interchanged in textbooks?

A

ellipsoidal and condylar synovial joints

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121
Q

What are examples of synovial saddle (diarthrosis sellar) joints?

A

carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, talocrural joint of the ankle and the calcaneocuboid joint of the foot

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122
Q

What are examples of diarthrosis enarthrosis joints?

A

femur acetabulum of the innominate articulation at the hip and the humerus-glenoid cavity of the scapula articulation at the shoulder

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123
Q

What is the number of vertebrae in a typical adult?

A

26 segments

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124
Q

What is the number of vertebrae in a typical spine?

A

24 segments

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125
Q

What constitutes the spine?

A

the 24 presacral segments; the cervical, thoracic and lumbar vertebrae

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126
Q

which mammals have more than seven cervical vertebrae?

A

the ant bear and the three toed sloth

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127
Q

which mammals have less than seven cervical vertebrae?

A

the manatee and the two toed sloth

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128
Q

what other term is often used to identify the vertebral segments of the chest?

A

the dorsal segments; the dorsals

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129
Q

What does the term lumbar refer to?

A

the loin; the region between the rib and the hip

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130
Q

what does the term sacrum refer to?

A

the holy bone or holy region

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131
Q

what does the term coccyx refer to?

A

a cuckoo birds bill or cuckoo birds beak

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132
Q

What is the length of a typical male spinal column?

A

about 70 centimeters or 28 inches

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133
Q

what is the length of a typical female spinal column?

A

about 60 centimeter or 25 inches

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134
Q

What is the length difference between a typical male and a typical female spinal column?

A

about 3 inches

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135
Q

What is the length of a the male cervical region (both measurements)?

A

about 12 centimeters or 5 inches

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136
Q

What is the length of the male thoracic region?

A

about 28 centimeters or 11 inches

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137
Q

what is the length of the male lumbar region?

A

about 18 centimeters or 7 inches

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138
Q

What is the length of the male sacrum?

A

about 12 centimeters or 5 inches

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139
Q

how does the vertebral column participate in skeletal formation?

A

ribs are formed from the costal process of the embryonic vertebral template

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140
Q

what levels of the vertebral column specifically accommodate weight bearing transfer?

A

s1-s3 at the auricular surface

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141
Q

distinguish between motion and locomotion

A

motion is movement without travel and locomotion is movement to a new site or location

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142
Q

what organs are specifically associated with the horizontal axis of the skull?

A

the eye and the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear

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143
Q

What are the three basic osseus parts of a vertebra?

A

the vertebral body, vertebral arch and the apophyseal region

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144
Q

what is formed by the vertebral body and vertebral arch?

A

the vertebral foramen

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145
Q

what is the general shape of the vertebral body at each region of the spine?

A

cervical - rectangular; thoracic - triangular; lumbar is reniform

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146
Q

what is the name given to the compact bone at the superior and inferior surfaces of the vertebral body?

A

superior epiphyseal rim, inferior epiphyseal rim

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147
Q

what are the names of the openings found around the margins of the vertebral body?

A

the basivertebral venous foramen

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148
Q

what is the name given to the anterior part of the vertebral arch?

A

the pedicle

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149
Q

what is the name given to the posterior part of the vertebral arch?

A

the lamina

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150
Q

what is the name given to the intermediate part of the vertebral arch where the transverse process and the articular process attach?

A

the lamina - pedicle junction

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151
Q

what is the name given to the feature located at the upper and lower surfaces of the pedicle?

A

the superior vertebral notch or incisures; the inferior vertebral notch or incisure

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152
Q

what is the generic orientation of the pedicle at each region of the spine?

A

cervical - posterolateralthoracic- posterior, slight laterallumbar - posterior

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153
Q

what ligament will attach to the lamina?

A

the ligamentum flavum

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154
Q

what is the name given to abnormal bone at the attachment site of the ligamentum flavum?

A

para articular process

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155
Q

what classification of bone will para articular processes represent?

A

accessory bone

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156
Q

what is the name given to the overlap of laminae seen on xray?

A

shingling

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157
Q

what is the name given to the lamina - pedicle junction at each region of the spine?

A

cervical -articular pillar; thoracic and lumbar - pars interarticularis

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158
Q

what is the name given to the junction of the vertebral arch spinous process on lateral xray?

A

the spinolaminar junction

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159
Q

what is the name given to the tubular bone growth regions of the vertebral arch?

A

the apophyseal region

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160
Q

what names may be given to each apophysis of the spine?

A

the transverse apophysis or transverse process; articular apophysis or articular process; spinous apophysis or spinous process

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161
Q

what is the generic orientation of the transverse process or transverse apophysis at each region of the spine?

A

cervical - anterolateral; thoracic - postero lateral; lumbar - lateral

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162
Q

all non rib bearing vertebra of the spine retain what equivalent feature?

A

the costal element

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163
Q

what is the name given to the rounded elevation at the end of the transverse apophysis or transverse process?

A

the transverse tubercle

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164
Q

what will cause the transverse process/ transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the cervical region?

A

cervical spinal nerves are pulled forward to form the cervical and brachial nerve plexuses thus remodeling the transverse process to accommodate their new position

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165
Q

what will cause the transverse process/ transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the thoracic region?

A

the growth of the lungs remodel the shape of the ribs which in turn push the transverse processes backward

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166
Q

What is the name given to the joint formed between articular facets of a vertebral couple?

A

the zygapophysis

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167
Q

what is the name given to the bone surface at the fron of a zygapophysis?

A

the superior articular facet

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168
Q

what is the name given to the bone surface at the back of a zygapophysis?

A

the inferior articular facet

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169
Q

what names are given to the part of the vertebra which supports the front of the zygapophysis?

A

the superior articular apophysis, the superior articular process, or the prezygapophysis

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170
Q

what names are given to the part of the vertebra which supports the back of the zygapophysis?

A

the inferior articular apophysis, the inferior articular process, or the post- zygapophysis

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171
Q

what will form the posterior boundary of a typical IVF?

A

the inferior articular process/ post zygapophysis, the superior articular process/ pre zygapophysis, the capsular ligament, and the ligamentum flavum

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172
Q

What will form the superior boundary of a typical IVF?

A

the inferior vertebral notch or inferior vertebral incisure

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173
Q

what will form the inferior boundary of a typical IVF?

A

the superior vertebral notch or incisure

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174
Q

what will form the anterior boundary of a typical IVF?

A

the vertebral body of the segment above, the vertebral body of the segment below, the intervertebral disc, and the posterior longitudinal ligament

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175
Q

what is the method of calculating the angle of the spinous process/spinous apophysis?

A

calculate the angle formed between the undersurface of the spinous process/spinous apophysis and the horizontal plane

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176
Q

What is the name given to the normal overlap of spinous processes or spinous apophyses as seen on xray?

A

imbrication

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177
Q

What is the name given to the rounded elevation at the tip of the spinous process/spinous apophysis?

A

the spinous tubercle

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178
Q

what is the orientation of the spinous process/spinous apophysis at each region of the spine?

A

cervical- slight angle inferiorlythoracic - noticeable angle inferiorlylumbar- no inferior angle

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179
Q

What name is given to the opening located within the vertebral body - vertebral arch enclosure?

A

the vertebral foramen

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180
Q

What is the name given to the union of all vertebral foramina into an apparent vertical cylinder?

A

the vertebral canal or spinal canal

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181
Q

what is the typical shape/outline of the vertebral foramen at each region of the spinal column/vertebral column?

A

cervical - triangular; thoracic - oval; lumbar - triangular; sacrum- triangular

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182
Q

what are the segmental arteries?

A

the arteries whose branches supply the vertebra or segment

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183
Q

what are the segmental arteries of the cervical spine?

A

the vertebral artery, ascending cervical artery and deep cervical artery

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184
Q

what are the segmental arteries of the thoracic spine?

A

the deep cervical artery, superior intercostal artery, posterior intercostal artery and subcostal artery

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185
Q

what are the segmental arteries of the lumbar spine?

A

the lumbar arteries, iliolumbar arty, lateral sacral artery and median sacral artery

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186
Q

what are the segmental arteries of the fifth lumbar vertebra?

A

the iliolumbar artery ,lateral sacral artery and median sacral artery

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187
Q

what are the segmental arteries of the sacrum?

A

lateral sacral artery and medial sacral artery as well as the iliolumbar artery

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188
Q

which branche of the dorsopinal artery will penetrate the meninges to enter subarachnoid space?

A

spinal artery

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189
Q

what are the branches of the spinal artery?

A

osseous arteries, anterior spinal canal artery, posterior spinal canal arteires anterior medullary feeder artery, posterior medullary feeder artery, anterior radicular artery, posterior radicular

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190
Q

what arteries are observed in the epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

osseous arteries, anterior spinal canal artery, posterior spinal canal artery

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191
Q

what arteries are observed in the epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

anterior spinal canal artery & plexus

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192
Q

what arteries are observed in the epidural space near the ligamentum flavum?

A

posterior spinal canal artery and plexus

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193
Q

which vessel will supply the ventral/anterior nerve rootlet and root?

A

anterior radicular artery

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194
Q

which vessel will supply the dorsal nerve rootlets, nerve root and nerve root ganglion?

A

posterior radicular artery

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195
Q

what is the name given to the artery which lies in front of the spinal cord along its length?

A

anterior spinal artery

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196
Q

the anterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?

A

the vertebral artery

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197
Q

is the anterior spinal artery a single, continuous artery along the spinal cord?

A

no

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198
Q

as the anterior spinal artery continues along the spinal cord, which arteries unite along its length to give the appearance of a single continous vessel?

A

anterior medullary feeder arteries

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199
Q

the posterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?

A

the posterior inferior cerebellar artery

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200
Q

what is the position of the posterior spinal artery relative to the spinal cord?

A

it lies in the posterolateral sulcus along the spinal cord

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201
Q

what forms the arterial vasa corona above C3?

A

right and left anterior spinal arteries, right and left posterior spinal arteries, and 4 communicating arteries

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202
Q

what forms the arterial vasa corona below C6?

A

a median anterior spinal artery, righ and left posterior spinal arteries, and 3 communicating arteries

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203
Q

what are the intramedullary brances of the arterial vasa corona?

A

pial perforating arteries, central/ventral/sulcal perforating arteries

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204
Q

what arterial vasa corona branches supply gray matter and most of the spinal cord?

A

central peforating arteries

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205
Q

what is the primary artery supplementing the arterial vasa corona?

A

anterior medullary feeders and posterior medullary feeders

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206
Q

what vessels drain the spinal cord?

A

pial veins

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207
Q

what will pial veins drain into?

A

venous vasa corona

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208
Q

which vessels form the venous vasa corona?

A

right and left anterior longitudinal veins, right and left posterior communicating veins

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209
Q

what vessels will drain the dorsal/posterior nerve root ganglion?

A

posterior radicular veins

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210
Q

what veins will lie in the subarachnoid space?

A

pial veins, venous vasa corona, anterior longitudinal veins, posterior longitudinal veins, communicating veins, anterior medullary veins, posterior medullary veins, anterior radicular veins, posterior radicular veins

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211
Q

what veins are observed in the epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

anterior internal vertebral venous plexus, basivertebral vein

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212
Q

what veins are observed in the epidural space near the ligamentum flavum?

A

posterior internal vertebral venous plexus

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213
Q

what venous vessels are identified in the IVF?

A

intervertebral veins

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214
Q

identify the meninges of the spinal cord and the commonly accepted meaning of each

A

Dura mater- tough mother; arachnoid mater - spider mother; pia mater - tender or delicate mother

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215
Q

name and located each space formed between the osseous vertebral foramen and the spinal cord

A

epidural space - between the vertebral foramen and dura matersubdural space - between the dura and arachnoid matersubarachnoid space - between the arachnoid and pia maters

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216
Q

what is the name given to the fluid within the epidural space?

A

interstitial fluid

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217
Q

which of the contents of the epidural space will be found near the vertebral body?

A

anterior spinal canal artery and plexusanterior internal vertebral venous plexusbasivertebral veinrecurrent meningeal nerveposterior longitudinal ligamentHofmann ligaments

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218
Q

which of the contents of the epidural space are more likely located near or around the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

anterior spinal canal artery and plexusanterior internal vertebral venous plexusbasivertebral veinrecurrent meningeal nerveHofmann ligaments

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219
Q

which of the contents of the epidural space will be found near the lamina?

A

posterior spinal canal artery and plexusposterior internal vertebral venous plexusligamentum flavum

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220
Q

what is the name given to the fluid present within the subdural space?

A

serous fluid

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221
Q

what is the name given to the fluid with the subarachnoid space?

A

cerebrospinal fluid

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222
Q

what contents of the subarachnoid space are changed below the level C6?

A

the arterial vasa corona consists of 1 anterior spinal artery, 2 posterior spinal arteries and 3 communicating arteries

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223
Q

what is the name given to the lateral extension of pia mater along the spinal cord?

A

Dentate or denticulate ligaments

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224
Q

what is the unique feature of veins along the spinal canal?

A

they lack the bicuspid valve of typical veins

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225
Q

in horizontal view, what direction of the spinal cord tends to be largest?

A

transverse

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226
Q

what are the spinal cord enlargement locations and the name given to each?

A

c3- t1, the cervical enlargement; t9-t12, the lumbar enlargement

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227
Q

Where is the greatest transverse diameter of the spinal cord?

A

C6

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228
Q

in which plane or direction will the diameter of the spinal decrease from c2-t1?

A

midsagittal or anterior posterior plane

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229
Q

what spinal nerves originate from the lumbar enlargement>

A

L1-S3 spinal nerves

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230
Q

what is a generic cord level of origin - vertebral level combination for the lumbar enlargement?

A

L1, L2 Cord levels in T9 vertebrae; L3, L4 cord levels in T10 vertebra; L5, S1 cord levels in T11 Vertebra; S2, S3 cord levels in t 12 vertebra

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231
Q

what is the caudal end of the spinal cord called?

A

conus medullaris

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232
Q

what spinal nerves originate from the conus medullaris?

A

Typically S4, S5 and Co1

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233
Q

in which vertebral foramen will the conus medullaris typically be observed?

A

L1

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234
Q

What is the name given to the nerve roots below L1

A

Cauda Equina

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235
Q

what is the continuation of pia mater below the conus medullaris called?

A

filum terminale internum

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236
Q

what is the location and name given to the area where all meninges first converge at the caudal part of the vertebral column?

A

Typically S2, the dural cul de sac

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237
Q

Neural tissue has been identified in what part of the filum terminale?

A

proximal part of the filum terminale internum

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238
Q

what is the fate of the neural tissue identified along the filum terminale internum?

A

it joins peripheral nerve roots of spinal nerves as high as L3 and as low as S4

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239
Q

what does the neural tissue associated with the FTE appear to innervate?

A

lower limbs and the external anal sphincter

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240
Q

the last arterial vasa corona create what feature on angiogram?

A

cruciate anastomosis

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241
Q

what is the name given to the condensation of meninges below S2?

A

Filum terminale externum

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242
Q

What is the name given to the caudal attachment of the meninges?

A

coccygeal medullary vestige

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243
Q

what is the name given to the condition in which the conus medullaris is located below L1 and the filum terminale is thickened?

A

Tethered cord syndrome

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244
Q

What is the relationship between scoliosis and tethered cord syndrome?

A

it is suggested that the column will change normal curvatures to mitigate damage to the spinal cord

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245
Q

What is the relationship between spinal nerve number, rib number, and vertebral number in a thoracic IVF?

A

the spinal nerve number relates to the upper segment number in the vertebral couple the rib number relates to the lower segment number in the vertebral couple

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246
Q

which mammals have more than seven cervical vertebrae?

A

ant bear, three toed sloth

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247
Q

which mammals have less than seven cervical vertebrae?

A

Two toed sloth, manatee

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248
Q

which vertebrae are typical cervicals?

A

C3-C6

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249
Q

which vertebrae are atypical cervicals?

A

C1, C2, and C7

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250
Q

what is the shape of the typical cervical vertebral body from the cranial view?

A

rectangular

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251
Q

what is the appearance of the typical cervical vertebral body from the lateral view?

A

posterior height is greater than anterior height by a few milimeters

252
Q

What would be the direction of the cervical curve based on osseous features?

A

Posterior or kyphotic

253
Q

what accounts for the direction of the typical cervical curve?

A

the IVD height

254
Q

what is the direction of the typical cervical curve?

A

anterior or lordotic

255
Q

at which vertebral couple will the cervical curve again increase IVD height?

A

C5/C6

256
Q

What is the effect of aging on the cervical vertebral body?

A

it diminishes the overall height of the vertebral body

257
Q

what are the modifications of the superior epiphyseal rim?

A

anterior groove, posterior groove, right and left uncinate processes

258
Q

what are the names of the lateral modification of the superior epiphyseal rim?

A

uncinate process, unciform process, uncovertebral process, uncus or lateral lip

259
Q

what are the modifications of the inferior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical?

A

anterior lip, posterior lip, right and left lateral grooves

260
Q

what are the names given to the lateral modifications of the inferior epiphyseal rim|?

A

lateral groove or enchancrure

261
Q

What is the joint classification for the posterior lip- posterior groove articulation?

A

firbous syndesmosis

262
Q

What is the joint classification for the uncinate process lateral groove articulation?

A

modified synovial saddle

263
Q

what is the joint classifcation for the spongy bone IVD articulation?

A

cartilaginous symphysis

264
Q

how many joint surfaces are present on the upper surface of a typical cervical vertebral body?

A

five

265
Q

how many joint surfaces are present on the lower surface of a typical cervical vertebral body?

A

five

266
Q

how many joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical cervical?

A

ten

267
Q

how many synovial joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical cervical ?

A

four

268
Q

what is the name given to the uncinate process lateral groove articulation?

A

joint of luschka or uncovertebral joint

269
Q

what does the recent literature suggest as to the nature of the joint of luschka?

A

the joint is representative of IVD while accomodating flexion - extension and requiring coupled motion in the cervical spine

270
Q

what muscle attaches to the typical cervical boyd?

A

The longus colli muscle

271
Q

what is the orientation and angulation of the pedicle of a typical cervical?

A

posterolateral, 45 degree

272
Q

what ligament attaches to the lamina of a typical cervical?

A

ligamentum flavum

273
Q

What joint classification will be associated with the ligamentum flavum and its attachments?

A

fibrous syndesmosis

274
Q

Ossification of the ligamentum flavum at the attachment site on the lamina will result in what feature?

A

para-articular process

275
Q

ossification of the ligamentum flavum at the attachment site on the lamina will be associated with which classification of bone?

A

accessory bone

276
Q

ossification within the length of the ligamentum flavum will be associated with which classification of bone?

A

heterotopic bone

277
Q

what is the outline of the vertebral foramen of a typical cervical vertebrae?

A

heart shaped or triangular

278
Q

which is the greatest diameter of the vertebral foramen of typical cervicals?

A

transverse

279
Q

what soft tissue diameter mimics the outline of the typical cervical vertebral foramen?

A

the transverse diameter of the cervical enlargement of the spinal cord

280
Q

the greatest transverse diameter of the typical cervical vertebra occurs at ?

A

C6

281
Q

the greatest frequency of osteophytes associated with the vertebral body occurs at which typical cervical vertebral couple?

A

C5/C6

282
Q

what muscles will attach to the anterior tubercle of a typical cervical vertebra?

A

anterior scalene, longus capitis, longus colli, anterior intertrasversarii

283
Q

what is the distal modification of the true transverse process of typical cervicals?

A

the posterior tubercle

284
Q

what muscles may attach to the posterior tubercle of a typical cervical verterbra?

A

splenius cervicis, iliocostalis cervicis, logissimus cervicis, levator scapula, middle scalene, posterior scalene, rotators and posterior intertransversarii

285
Q

what muscles will attach to the costotransverse bar?

A

middle scalene and posterior intertransversarii

286
Q

what is the name given to the collective rib forming region?

A

the pleurapophysis

287
Q

what is the name given to the superior margin of the costotransverse bar?

A

sulcus for the ventral primary ramus of a cervical spinal nerve

288
Q

what is the orientation and angulation of a typical cervical transverse process?

A

60 degrees anterolaterally, 15 degrees inferiorly

289
Q

what is the name given to the modification of the anterior tubercle of the C6 transverse process?

A

the carotid tubercle

290
Q

what will occupy the typical cervical vertebra transverse foramen?

A

the vertebral artery, vertebral venous plexus and postganglionic sympathetic motor nerve fibers

291
Q

what is the name of the lamina pedicle junction of typical cervical vertebrae?

A

the articular pillar

292
Q

what is the name of the surface feature observed between the ends of the articular pillar?

A

the groove/sulcus for the dorsal ramus of a cervical spinal nerve

293
Q

what nerve indents the articular pillar of typical cervical vertebra?

A

the medial branch of the dorsal ramus of a cervical spinal nerve

294
Q

what is the classic angulation of typical cervical articular facets?

A

40 to 45 degrees from the coronal plane

295
Q

what is the orientation of the typical cervical superior articular facet?

A

backward, upward, medial

296
Q

what is the orientation of the typical cervical inferior articular facet

A

forward, lateral, downward

297
Q

what muscles will attach to typical cervical articular processes?

A

the longissimus capitis, longissimus cervicis, semispinalis capitis, semispinalis cervicis, multifidis and rotators

298
Q

what muscles blend with the capsular ligament of cervical zygapophysis?

A

the semispinalis capitis, multifidis and rotator longus

299
Q

what modifications of the synovial joint are observed in the cervical spine?

A

meniscoidal folds

300
Q

The greatest range of flexion - extension among the typical cervical vertebrae occurs at which vertebral couple?

A

typically C5/C6

301
Q

what motions are coupled in the cervical spine?

A

lateral bending and axial rotation

302
Q

ranges of coupled motion among the typical cervical vertebrae will be similar fot what cervical vertebral couples?

A

The C2/C3, C3/C4, C4/C5 vertebral couples

303
Q

ranges of coupled motion among the typical cervical vertebrae will begin to decrease at what cervical vertebral couple?

A

The C5/C6 vertebral couple

304
Q

What muscles may attach to the typical cervical spinous process?

A

the spinalis cervicis, semispinalis cervicis, semispinalis thoracis, multifidis, rotators and interspinalis

305
Q

What is the name for the first cervical vertebra?

A

Atlas

306
Q

What features are lacking at c1?

A

vertebral body, pedicles, a spinous process and the intervertebral disc

307
Q

what is thought to represent the pedicle at C1?

A

the anterior arch

308
Q

What muscle attaches to the anterior arch of C1 ?

A

longus colli

309
Q

What ligaments will attach to the anterior arch of C1 ?

A

the anterior longitudinal,anterior atlanto-occipital and anterior atlanto-axial ligaments

310
Q

What is observed on the back of the anterior arch of C1?

A

Fovea dentis

311
Q

What joint classifications are observed on the anterior arch of C1 ?

A

fibrous (amphiarthrosis) syndesmosis joint and synovial pivot (diarthrosis trochoid) joint

312
Q

What is the morphology of the superior articular facet of C1?

A

they are elliptical, closer together in front and often demonstrate an elevation subdividing the facet surface into two separate surfaces

313
Q

What is the orientation of the superior articular facet of C1 ?

A

backward, upward, medial (BUM)

314
Q

What is the orientation of the superior articular facet of C1 ?

A

backward, upward, medial (BUM)

315
Q

what is the joint classification of the atlanto-occipital zygapophysis?

A

synovial (diarthrosis) ellipsoidal joint

316
Q

what are the morphological characteristics of the inferior articular facet of C1?

A

asymmetrical, slightly concave or flattened

317
Q

What is the orientation of the inferior articular facet of C1 ?

A

backward, medial, downward (BMD)

318
Q

What is the joint classification of the atlanto-axial zygapophysis?

A

synovial plane (diarthrosis arthrodia) joint

319
Q

What is the name of the rounded elevation on the medial aspect of the lateral mass of C1 ?

A

tubercle for the transverse atlantal ligament

320
Q

What muscles attach to the lateral mass of C1 ?

A

levator scapula, splenius cervicis and rectus capitis anterior

321
Q

What part of C1 represents the spinous process?

A

posterior tubercle of the posterior arch

322
Q

What is the distance from the posterior tubercle of the posterior arch to the skin in each gender?

A

males: about fifty millimeters; females: about thirty-seven millimeters

323
Q

What attaches to the posterior tubercle of the posterior arch of C1 ?

A

rectus capitis posterior minor muscle and ligamentum nuchae

324
Q

What superior surface modifications of the posterior arch of C1 are present?

A

groove/sulcus for the vertebral artery and arcuate rim

325
Q

What attaches to the arcuate rim of C1 ?

A

the posterior atlanto-occipital ligament

326
Q

/Vhat is the earliest age of development where ossification of the anterior free margin of the posterior atlanto-occipital ligament was observed?

A

about age 7 years old

327
Q

Based on the amount of ossification of the anterior free margin of the posterior atlanto-occipital ligament what structures will form?

A

an incomplete ponticulus posticus or a complete ponticulus posticus

328
Q

What forms the types of ponticulus posticus?

A

ossification of the anterior free margin of the posterior atlanto-occipital ligament

329
Q

What are the attachment sites of the ponticulus posticus?

A

it is attached to the arcuate rim of the posterior arch of atlas and to the superior articular process of the lateral mass of atlas

330
Q

What other name may be used to identify a ponticulus posticus?

A

Kimmerle’s anomaly

331
Q

What names are given to the opening formed by the ponticulus posticus?

A

arcuate foramen or retroarticular canal

332
Q

onticulus posticus has observed in what ethnic populations?

A

all ethnic populations studied thus far

333
Q

What is the gender bias now associated with ponticulus posticus?

A

female

334
Q

What are the osseous parts of the transverse process of c1>

A

costal element, posterior tubercle, true transverse process

335
Q

What osseous parts of the tranverse process are absent at c1?

A

anterior tubercle and costotransverse bar

336
Q

What muscles attach to the transverse process of C1?

A

rectus capitis anterior, rectus capitis lateralis, middle scalene,levator scapula, splenius cervicis, obliquus capitis superior, obliquus capitis inferior, and intertransversarii uscles

337
Q

what suboccipital muscles are known to have fascial projections attaching to the spinal dura?

A

rectus capitis posterior minor, rectus capitis posterior major, obllquus capitis inferior

338
Q

What are the connections between suboccipital muscles and the spinal dura called?

A

myodural bridges

339
Q

What are the lateral bridges of atlas connected to?

A

the lateral mass and the transverse process of atlas

340
Q

What opening is identified when a complete lateral bridge is formed?

A

the retrotransverse foramen

341
Q

What are the possible contents of the retrotransverse foramen?

A

the vertebral artery, a branch from the suboccipital nerve and veins communicating with the venous sinuses of the neck

342
Q

Which of the ponticles (bridges) of atlas is most numerous?

A

ponticulus posticus

343
Q

Which of the ponticles (bridges) of atlas is only observed in humans?

A

lateral bridges

344
Q

What is the gender variation for measurements of the transverse diameter of CI?

A

males: 78 millimeters and females: 72 millimeters

345
Q

What is the distance from the posterior tubercle of the transverse process of C1 to the skin for each gender?

A

a little over 30 millimeters for both males and females

346
Q

What joint classifications are observed at C1 ?

A

fibrous (amphiarthrosis) syndesmosis joint, synovial (diarthrosis) ellipsoidal joint, synovial pivot (diarthrosis trochoid) joint and synovial plane (diarthrosis arthrodia) joint

347
Q

How many synovial joint surfaces are observed at C1?

A

five

348
Q

What synovial joint surfaces are observed at C1?

A

two superior articular facets, two inferior articular facets and the fovea dentis

349
Q

What names are given to C2?

A

axis or epistropheus

350
Q

What unique vertebral body modification is characteristic of C2?

A

the dens or odontoid process

351
Q

How many joint surfaces are present on the odontoid process of C2?

A

five

352
Q

Which joint classifications are represented at the odontoid process of C2?

A

fibrous (amphiarthrosis) syndesmosis joint and synovial pivot (diarthrosis trochoid) joint

353
Q

What is the name given to the odontoid process when the facet for the fovea dentis lies above the groove for the transverse atlantal ligament and the attachment sites for the apical-dental and alar ligaments appear to be directed posterior?

A

lordotic dens

354
Q

What is the name given to the odontoid process when the facet for the fovea dentis lies below the groove for the transverse atlantal ligament and the attachment sites for the apical-dental and alar ligaments appear to be directed anterior?

A

kyphotic dens

355
Q

What ligament forms the anterior boundary for the spinal canal above C2?

A

membrana tectoria

356
Q

What ligament forms the anterior boundary for the spinal canal below C2?

A

posterior longitudinal ligament

357
Q

What lies on the upper surface of the pedicle of C2?

A

the superior articular process

358
Q

What attaches to the lamina of C2?

A

obliquus capitis inferior muscle, posterior atlanto-axial ligament, ligamentum flavum

359
Q

What is the appearance of the superior articular facets of C2?

A

they are asymmetrical and slightly convex

360
Q

What is the facet orientation of the superior articular facet of C2?

A

backward, upward, and lateral (BUD

361
Q

What is the orientation of the inferior articular facets of C2?

A

forward, lateral, and down (FoLD)

362
Q

What is the classification of the zygapophyseal joints of C2?

A

synovial plane (diarthrosis arthrodia) joint

363
Q

What muscle attaches to the articular processes of C2?

A

longissimus cervicis

364
Q

What is the gender variation for the transverse diameter of C2?

A

males: fifty-seven millimeters and females: about fifty millimeters

365
Q

What muscles attach to the transverse process at C2?

A

levator scapulae, middle scalene, splenius cervicis, longissimus cervicis and intertransversarii

366
Q

What muscles attach to the spinous process of C2?

A

rectus capitis posterior major, obliquus capitis inferior, spinalis cervicis semispinalis cervicis, multifidis, rotators and interspinalis muscles

367
Q

what names may be given to C7?

A

vertebra prominens and vertebral prominence

368
Q

What is the name given to the topographical elevation observed at the base of the neck?

A

vertebral prominence

369
Q

What is the name given only to C7?

A

vertebra prominens

370
Q

What is the segment and gender bias for vertebrae other than C7 becoming the vertebral “O prominence?

A

C6 is more common in females and T1 is more common in males

371
Q

pHow many joint surfaces are present at the vertebral body of C7?

A

eight

372
Q

What joint classifications are observed at the vertebral body of C7?

A

fibrous (amphiarthrosis) syndesmosis, cartilaginous (amphiarthrosis) symphysis and modified synovial saddle (diarthrosis sellar) joint

373
Q

51 What muscle(s) attaches to the vertebral body of C7?

A

longus colli muscle

374
Q

What features are typically present in the transverse foramen of C7?

A

vertebral venous plexus, postganglionic sympathetic motor fibers

375
Q

What muscles attach to the transverse process of C7?

A

middle scalene, iliocostalis thoracis, longissimus cervicis, semispinalis capitis, rotators, intertransversarii and levator costarum brevis

376
Q

What is the orientation of the superior articular facet of C7?

A

backward, upward, medial (BUM

377
Q

What is the orientation of the inferior articular facet of C7?

A

forward, medial, downward (ForMeD)

378
Q

What muscles will attach to the articular process of C7?

A

longissimus cervicis, longissimus capitis, semispinalis cervicis and multifidis

379
Q

What are the features of the spinous process of C7?

A

long, horizontal, nonbifid (

380
Q

what muscles attach to the spinous process of C7?

A

trapezius, rhomboid minor, serratus posterior superior, splenius capitis, spinalis capitis, spinalis cervicis, semispinalis thoracis, multifidis, rotators and interspinalis

381
Q

What ligaments attach to the spinous process of C7?

A

ligamentum nuchae and interspinous ligaments

382
Q

The vertebral artery on which side is typically larger?

A

left vertebral artery

383
Q

What is the gender bias regarding the size of the vertebral artery?

A

men have larger vertebral arteries than women

384
Q

what was the name of the physical exam used to determine vertebral artery patency?

A

the vertebrobasilar artery insufficiency test

385
Q

which side artery was tested during the course of the vertebrobasilar artery insufficiency exam?

A

the ipsilateral artery on the side of rotation

386
Q

What are the symptoms of failure of the vertebral artery to compensate during the vertebrobasilar artery insufficiency exam?

A

dizziness, vertigo, nausea are common complaints

387
Q

The vertebral artery is typically a branch of which artery?

A

subclavian artery

388
Q

Typically, at what vertebral level will the vertebral artery first become located in the transverse foramen?

A

C6

389
Q

what location will the vertebral artery form its first compensatory loop?

A

the atlanto-axial interspace

390
Q

what location will the vertebral artery form its second compensatory loop?

A

the atlanto-occipital interspace

391
Q

\ At what segments will the vertebral artery be firmly attached to the transverse foramen?

A

both C1 and C2

392
Q

what is the purpose of the vertebral artery loops between C2, C1, and occiput

A

the increased length will accommodate the greater rotation at these locations

393
Q

What happens to the vertebral artery as it enters the vertebral foramen of C1 ?

A

the adventitia of the artery blends with the dura mater and arachnoid mater; as a result the artery lies in the subarachnoid space

394
Q

at happens to the vertebral artery after it enters the subarachnoid space at C1 ?

A

NS: the vertebral artery ascends along the medulla oblongata to the pontine- medullary junction where the right and left arteries unite to form the basilar artery

395
Q

What joint classifications are present at C7?

A

synovial pr)lane (diarthrosis arthrodia), modified synovial saddle (diarthrosis sellar), fibrous (amphiarthrosis) syndesmosis and cartilaginous (amphiarthrosis) symphysis

396
Q

What forms the boundaries for the exit of the C1 nerve from the spinal canal?

A

occipital condyle, superior articular process of CI, capsular ligament, arcuate rim, groove for the vertebral artery, posterior atlanto-occipital ligament

397
Q

What forms the anterior boundary for the C2 nerve exit from the spinal canal?

A

inferior articular process of C1, superior articular process of C2, capsular ligament

398
Q

What forms the posterior boundary for the C2 nerve exit from the spinal canal?

A

the posterior arch of C1, lamina of C2 and posterior atlanto-axial ligament

399
Q

What forms the anterior boundary for the C3-C7 nerve exit from the spinal canal?

A

the vertebral bodies, intervertebral disc, posterior longitudinal ligament, uncinate process, lateral groove

400
Q

What forms the anterior boundary for the C8 nerve exit from the spinal canal?

A

the vertebral bodies of C7 and T1, intervertebral disc, posterior longitudinal ligament, capsular ligament of the costocentral joint, superior costal facet of T1 and articular surface of the first rib

401
Q

What are the superior articular facet orientations for the cervical vertebrae?

A

C1 is backward, upward, medial (BUM), C2 is backward, upward, lateral (BUD C3-C7 is backward, upward, medial (BUM)

402
Q

What are the inferior articular facet orientations for the cervical vertebrae?

A

C1 is backward, downward, medial (BMD), C2-C6 is forward, downward, lateral (FoLD), C7 is forward, downward, medial (ForMeD)

403
Q

How many synovial joints are identified for each cervical vertebra?

A

C1 = five, C2 = eight, C3-6 = eight, C7 = six

404
Q

how many joints are identified at the vertebral body of each cervical vertebra?

A

C1 = none, C2= ten, C3-6 = ten, C7 = eight

405
Q

what features will allow discrimination between T2-T4 and T5-T8 segmental groups?

A

the vertebral body, transverse process, articular process and spinous process

406
Q

what is the outline of the vertebral body of a typical thoracic from superior view?

A

triangular

407
Q

on cranial view, what is the outline of the vertebral body for the T2-T4 group?

A

the vertebral body will have bilaterally convex sides

408
Q

what is the name given to the left side appearance of the vertebral body of T5-T8?

A

the aortic impression

409
Q

What part of the vertebral body is most influenced by the aorta at T5-T8?

A

the left side superior and inferior epiphyseal rims

410
Q

What is the height pattern of the typical thoracic vertebral body?

A

the posterior height is greater than the anterior height by one to two millimeters

411
Q

What is the principal cause of the posterior curve of the thoracic spine?

A

the vertebral body height differences

412
Q

In terms of the anterior-posterior curves of the vertebral column, what direction will the thoracic spine face?

A

posterior

413
Q

What is another way of naming a posterior curve pattern?

A

a kyphotic curve

414
Q

What joint classifications are identified at the vertebral body of a typical thoracic?

A

fibrous (amphiarthrosis) syndesmosis, cartilaginous (amphiarthrosis) symphysis and synovial plane (diarthrosis arthrodia)

415
Q

How many synovial joints are formed at the vertebral body of a typical thoracic?

A

four

416
Q

How many symphysis joints are formed with the vertebral body of a typical thoracic?

A

two

417
Q

how many joints are formed at the vertebral body of a typical thoracic?

A

typically ten (fourteen if the costocentral stellate/radiate ligaments are included)

418
Q

What is the name given to the joint formed between the vertebral body and rib?

A

costocentral joint

419
Q

/hich of the demi-facets on the vertebral body of a typical thoracic is larger?

A

the superior costal demi-facet

420
Q

What ligaments support the costocentral joint?

A

the costocentral stellate/ radiate ligament and the costocentral interarticular or intra-articular ligament

421
Q

What does the costocentral intra-articular or interarticular ligament connect to?

A

the interarticular or intra-articular crest of the head of the rib and the intervertebral disc

422
Q

What is the size relationship between the articulating surface of the head of the rib and the y*r costal demi-facet surface?

A

the rib surface is greater than the costal demi-facet surface

423
Q

Which muscle(s) is attached to the vertebral body of T2 or T3?

A

the longus colli

424
Q

What is the position and direction of the pedicle from the typical thoracic vertebral body?

A

The pedicle arises from the upper third of the vertebral body and projects posterior and slightly laterally

425
Q

what is the angulation of the pedicle in the typical thoracic region?

A

ten to fifteen degrees posterolateral from the sagittal plane

426
Q

which X-ray view is used to see into the intervertebral foramen of a typical thoracic?

A

the lateral view

427
Q

Which vertebral notch or incisure is said to be prominent?

A

the inferior vertebral notch or inferior vertebral incisure

428
Q

What is overlap of the lamina called in the typical thoracic region?

A

shingling

429
Q

What is the outline of the vertebral foramen in the typical thoracic region?

A

oval to circular

430
Q

*ln which plane will the size of the vertebral foramen of a typical thoracic be greatest?

A

the transverse plane, the vertebral transverse diameter

431
Q

what is s present on the transverse tubercle of a typical thoracic?

A

the transverse costal facet

432
Q

What are the osseous parts of the costotransverse joint?

A

the transverse costal facet and the articular surface of the tubercle of a rib

433
Q

what ligaments support the costotransverse joint of a typical thoracic?

A

the superior costotransverse, inferior costotransverse, and lateral costotransverse ligaments

434
Q

Which muscles may attach to the transverse process of a typical thoracic?

A

the longissimus thoracis, longissimus cervicis, longissimus capitis semispinalis thoracis, semispinalis cervicis, semispinalis capitis multifidis, rotator longus, rotator brevis, intertransversarii, levator costarum longus and levator costarum brevis

435
Q

How can you distinguish between a T2-T4 from T5-T8 segment using the articular process?

A

at T2-T4 the width between the superior articular processes is greater than the width between the inferior articular processes of that vertebra at T5-T8 the width between the superior articular processes is equal to or the same as the width between the inferior articular processes of that vertebra

436
Q

What is the angulation of the articular facet of a typical thoracic?

A

about ten to twenty degrees from the coronal plane;sixty degrees from the horizontal plane

437
Q

What is the orientation of the superior articular facet of a typical thoracic?

A

they face backward, upward, and lateral (BUL)

438
Q

What is the orientation of the inferior articular facet of a typical thoracic?

A

they face forward, downward, and medial (ForMed)

439
Q

how many synovial joints are present at a typical thoracic?

A

Ten

440
Q

How many synovial joint surfaces for ribs are present on a typical thoracic?

A

six

441
Q

What name is given to the region between the superior and inferior articular processes in the typical thoracics?

A

the pars interarticularis

442
Q

What is the angulation of the spinous process in the typical thoracic region?

A

the undersurface of T2-T4 spinous processes will angle up to forty degrees from the horizontal plane the undersurface of T5-T8 spinous processes will angle up to sixty degrees from the horizontal plane

443
Q

Which muscles may attach to the spinous process of a typical thoracic?

A

the trapezius, latissimus dorsi, rhomboid major, serratus posterior superior, splenius cervicis, splenius capitis, spinalis thoracis, spinalis cervicis, spinalis capitis semispinalis thoracis, multifidis, rotator longus. rotator brevis and interspinals

444
Q

what muscles are associated with the five muscle layers of the true back?

A

layer one consists of the trapezius and latissimus dorsi layer two consists of the rhomboids and levator scapulae layer three consists of the serratus posterior layer four consists of the erector spinae layer five consists of the transversospinalis

445
Q

How many synovial joints are formed at the vertebral body of T1 ?

A

four normally

446
Q

How many symphysis joints are formed with the vertebral body of T1?

A

two

447
Q

How many joints are formed at the vertebral body of T1?

A

typically ten (fourteen if the rib ligaments are included)

448
Q

What ligament is absent at the costotransverse joint of T1 ?

A

the superior costotransverse ligament

449
Q

What ligaments attach to the transverse process of T1?

A

intertransverse, capsular costotransverse, superior costotransverse. Inferior costotransverse and lateral costotransverse

450
Q

What muscles attach to the spinous process of T1?

A

the trapezius, rhomboid minor, serratus posterior superior, splenius capitis, spinalis thoracis, spinalis cervicis, spinalis capitis semispinalis thoracis, multifidis, rotator longus, rotator brevis, interspinalis

451
Q

How many synovial joints are formed at the vertebral body of T9?

A

four

452
Q

How many symphysis joints are formed with the vertebral body of T9?

A

two

453
Q

How many joints are typically formed at the vertebral body of T9?

A

typically ten (fourteen if the costocentral stellate/radiate ligaments are included)

454
Q

What ligaments attach to the transverse process of T9?

A

intertransverse, capsular costotransverse, superior costotransverse, inferior costotransverse and lateral costotransverse ligaments

455
Q

What muscles attach to the spinous process of T9?

A

the trapezius, latissimus dorsi, multifidis, rotator longus, rotator brevis and interspinalis

456
Q

How many synovial joints are formed at the vertebral body of T10?

A

two

457
Q

how many symphysis joints are formed with the vertebral body of T10?

A

two

458
Q

How many syndesmosis joints are formed at the vertebral body of T10?

A

typically four are identified (as many as eight if the costocentral stellate/radiate ligaments are included)

459
Q

How many joints are typically formed at the vertebral body of T10?

A

typically eight (twelve if the costocentral stellate/radiate ligaments are included)

460
Q

Which synovial joint surface is absent from the vertebral body of T10?

A

inferior costal demi-facets

461
Q

Para-articular processes are more commonly observed on which segment of the spine?

A

T10

462
Q

What muscles attach to the transverse process of T10?

A

longissimus thoracis semispinalis thoracis, multifidis, rotator longus and rotator brevis intertransversarii, levator costarum longus and levator costarum brevis

463
Q

A dimpling or depression of the skin in the thoracic region is often characteristic of ( y the location of which segment?

A

T10

464
Q

what name is given to T11 ?

A

the anticlinal vertebra

465
Q

what is the outline of the vertebral body of T11 on superior view?

A

kidney-shaped or reniform

466
Q

what joint classifications are identified at the vertebral body of T11?

A

fibrous (amphiarthrosis) syndesmosis, cartilaginous (amphiarthrosis) symphysis and synovial plane (diarthrosis arthrodia) joint

467
Q

r /hich ligament of the costocentral joint is absent for the eleventh rib?

A

the costocentral interarticular or intra-articular ligament

468
Q

What part of the transverse process is absent present on T11?

A

the transverse costal facet

469
Q

What ligaments form the costotransverse joint of T11?

A

the superior costotransverse, and slightly developed inferior costotransverse and lateral costotransverse ligaments

470
Q

What muscles attach to the transverse process of T11 ?

A

longissimus thoracis semispinalis thoracis, multifidis, rotator longus and rotator brevis intertransversarii and levator costarum brevis

471
Q

How many synovial joints are typically present at T11 ?

A

six

472
Q

What muscles attach to the spinous process of T11?

A

trapezius, latissimus dorsi, serratus posterior inferior, iliocostalis lumborum, spinalis thoracis, multifidis, rotator longus, rotator brevis, and interspinalis

473
Q

At which segments of the thoracic spine will the spinalis muscle not attach?

A

T9,T10

474
Q

hat is the outline of the vertebral body of T12 on superior view?

A

kidney-shaped or reniform

475
Q

How many synovial joints are formed at the vertebral body of T12?

A

two

476
Q

how many symphysis joints are formed with the vertebral body of T12?

A

Two

477
Q

How many syndesmosis joints are formed at the vertebral body of T12?

A

four are typically identified (as many as six if the costocentral stellate/radiate ligaments are included)

478
Q

which muscle(s) is attached to the vertebral body of T12?

A

psoas major and psoas minor

479
Q

What hat does the superior tubercle of T1 2 represent?

A

the mammillary process of lumbar vertebrae

480
Q

hat does the inferior tubercle of T12 represent?

A

the accessory process of lumbar vertebrae

481
Q

What ligaments form the costotransverse joint of the twelfth rib?

A

the superior costotransverse ligament from T1 land the lumbocostal ligament from L1

482
Q

icb costotransverse ligament(s) are attached at T12

A

none; the capsular, superior, inferior, and lateral costotransverse ligaments lack an attachment to T12

483
Q

which costotransverse ligament(s) lack an attachment to T1 2?

A

capsular costotransverse, superior costotransverse, inferior costotransverse and lateral costrotransverse ligaments

484
Q

what muscles attach to the transverse process region of T1 2?

A

the longissimus thoracis, semispinalis thoracis, multifidis, rotator longus. rotator brevis and intertransversarii

485
Q

Which segment is the last to demonstrate a levator costarum brevis attachment?

A

T11

486
Q

Which segment is the last to demonstrate a levator costarum longus attachment?

A

T10

487
Q

What is the orientation of the superior articular facets of T12?

A

they face backward, upward, and lateral (BUD

488
Q

What is the orientation of the inferior articular facets of T12?

A

they face forward, downward, and lateral (FoLD)

489
Q

How many synovial joints are typically present at T12?

A

six

490
Q

What is the generic appearance of the spinous process of T12?

A

lumbar-like, similar in length to T11

491
Q

What muscles attach to the spinous process of T12?

A

the trapezius, latissimus dorsi, serratus posterior inferior, iliocostalis lumborum, spinalis thoracis, multifidis, rotator longus, rotator brevis and interspinalis

492
Q

What accounts for the direction of the lumbar curve?

A

the vertebral body and intervertebral disc have a greater anterior height than posterior height

493
Q

What is the effect of aging on the vertebral body of a lumbar vertebra?

A

decrease in height, increase in circumference

494
Q

How many joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical lumbar?

A

Six

495
Q

What muscles may attach to a typical lumbar vertebral body?

A

psoas major and psoas minor

496
Q

“soas minor will only attach to the vertebral body of which segments?

A

T12, L1

497
Q

What is the name given to ligaments which attach the vertebral body to articular process?

A

transforaminal ligaments

498
Q

Hofmann ligaments are identified in which regions along the vertebral column?

A

cervical - upper thoracic region and lumbar region

499
Q

Cervical - upper thoracic Hofmann ligaments will attach what structures together?

A

dura mater to segments above

500
Q

What is the highest level known to demonstrate Hofmann ligaments?

A

C6

501
Q

What is the proposed function of the cervical - upper thoracic Hofmann ligaments?

A

resist caudal movement of the dural sac; resist gravitational forces on the dura and cord

502
Q

Lumbar Hofmann ligaments will attach what structures together?

A

dura mater to lower segmental levels

503
Q

What is the proposed function of the lumbar Hofmann ligaments?

A

resist cranial movement of the dural sac during flexion

504
Q

What osseous conditions of lumbar vertebrae facilitate a spinal tap in this region?

A

overlap of the laminae, shingling, diminishes; overlap of spinous processes, imbrication, diminishes

505
Q

Beginning with the L1 transverse process, what is the generic direction and relative length of each succeeding lumbar transverse process?

A

each transverse process is directed straight lateral and increases in length from L1-L3, L4 then begins to decrease in length

506
Q

What is the name of the elevation near the origin of the lumbar transverse process?

A

accessory process

507
Q

Congenital elongation of the lumbar accessory process results in what feature?

A

styloid process

508
Q

Congenital elongation of the lumbar accessory process occurs with what frequency?

A

7% occurrence

509
Q

What ligament(s) will attach to the lumbar accessory process?

A

mammillo-accessory ligament

510
Q

What was believed to be entrapped by the mammillo-accessory ligament?

A

the medial branch of the dorsal ramus of a lumbar spinal nerve

511
Q

What muscle(s) attach to the lumbar accessory process?

A

longissimus thoracis and intertransversarii

512
Q

What ligament attaches the twelfth rib to the transverse process of L1?

A

the lumbocostal ligament

513
Q

What muscles may attach to the transverse process of a typical lumbar vertebra?

A

psoas major, quadratus lumborum, longissimus thoracis, rotator brevis, rotator longus and intertransversarii

514
Q

What ligaments attach to the transverse process of a typical lumbar vertebra?

A

the lumbocostal, mammillo-accessory and intertransverse ligaments

515
Q

What is the orientation of the typical lumbar superior articular facet?

A

backward, upward, medial (BUM); typically concave

516
Q

What is the orientation of the typical lumbar inferior articular facet?

A

forward, lateral, downward (FoLD); significant convexity

517
Q

What is the name given to the projection on the lumbar superior articular process.

A

mammillary process

518
Q

What muscle(s) will attach to the mammillary process?

A

multifidis and intertransversarii

519
Q

How many synovial joints are present on a typical lumbar vertebra?

A

four

520
Q

What is the position of the lumbar zygapophysis in children?

A

the zygapophysis lies in the coronal plane

521
Q

What is the position of the lumbar zygapophysis in adults?

A

the zygapophysis lies in the sagittal plane for L1/L2, L2/L3 and L3/L4; the zygapophysis lies in the coronal plane for L4/L5 and L5/S1

522
Q

What rvtrnM ato given to the condition in which one zygapophysis of a vertobral couple lies in tho coronal plane or position and the other zygapophysis lies in the sagittal plane or position?

A

joint asymmetry or joint tropism

523
Q

What is Banstrup’s syndrome?

A

elongation of the lumbar spinous process as a result of aging

524
Q

what muscles will attach to the typical lumbar spinous process?

A

latissimus dorsi, serratus posterior inferior, iliocostalis lumborum, longissimus thoracis, spinalis thoracis, multifidis, rotator longus, rotator brevis and interspinalis

525
Q

What characteristic of the L1-L4 pedicle may be used to differentiate it from the L5 segment?

A

On cranial view, the lateral surface of the pedicle is apparent on a L1-L4 segment. At L5 the transverse process originates from the vertebral body, pedicle and lamina-pedicle region.

526
Q

What muscles may attach to the transverse process of the fifth thoracic vertebra?

A

psoas major, quadratus lumborum, longissimus thoracis, rotator brevis, rotator longus, and intertransversarii

527
Q

What ligaments traditionally attach to the transverse process of the fifth lumbar vertebra.

A

lumbosacral, iliolumbar and mammillo-accessory ligaments

528
Q

hat is the name(s) of the condition in which the L5 spinous process increases in length due to the aging process?

A

Baastrup’s syndrome or “kissing spines”

529
Q

What is the name given to the congenital condition in which the fifth lumbar spinous process is elongated, the sacrum exhibits spina bifida, and dorsiflexion produces pain?

A

Knife Clasp Syndrome

530
Q

What muscles will attach to the fifth lumbar spinous process?

A

latissimus dorsi, iliocostalis lumborum, longissimus thoracis, multifidis, rotator longus, rotator brevis and interspinalis

531
Q

What is the position of the sacral zygapophysis in adults?

A

the zygapophysis lies In the coronal plane for L5/S1

532
Q

What is the orientation of tho first sacral superior articular facot?

A

backward, upward, medial (BUM); typically concave

533
Q

from the anterior view, the intervertebral discs of sacrum will be replaced by what feature?

A

transverse ridges

534
Q

What forms the median sacral crest?

A

fused spinous processes and their spinous tubercles

535
Q

What forms the intermediate sacral crest?

A

fused articular processes and their facets

536
Q

What features may be identified along the intermediate sacral crest?

A

the mammillary process of SI and the sacral cornu of S5

537
Q

What is the sacral hiatus?

A

the inferior opening of the sacral spinal canal

538
Q

An imaginary line drawn from the transverse process of S1 to the inferior lateral sacral angle will form what feature?

A

the lateral sacral crest

539
Q

What is the sacral tuberosity?

A

the enlarged transverse tubercle of S2

540
Q

What is the name of the joint formed by the sacral tuberosity?

A

the accessory sacro-iliac joint

541
Q

What feature is associated with the transverse tubercle of S5?

A

the inferior and lateral (inferolateral) sacral angle

542
Q

What feature is identified on the lateral surface of S1-S3?

A

auricular surface

543
Q

What is the sacral promontory?

A

the buldging anterior surface of the superior epiphyseal rim of SI

544
Q

how many synovial joints are typically present at sacrum?

A

four

545
Q

what joint classifications are typically present at sacrum?

A

fibrous (amphiarthrosis) syndesmosis, cartilaginous (amphiarthrosis) symphysis and synovial plane (diarthrosis arthrodia)

546
Q

What forms the posterior boundary for the fifth sacral spinal nerve intervertebral foramen?

A

sacral cornu, coccygeal cornu, superficial posterior sacrococcygeal ligament and intercornual ligament

547
Q

w /hat forms the anterior boundary for the fifth sacral spinal nerve intervertebral foramen?

A

vertebral body S5, vertebral body Col, deep posterior sacrococcygeal ligament and intervertebral disc

548
Q

/What is the homolog for the posterior longitudinal ligament at S5?

A

deep posterior sacrococcygeal ligament

549
Q

What is the homolog for the anterior longitudinal ligament at S5?

A

anterior sacrococcygeal ligament

550
Q

What is the homolog for the ligamentum flavum at S5?

A

superficial posterior sacrococcygeal ligament

551
Q

What forms the inferior boundary for the spinal canal?

A

the union of the superficial posterior and deep posterior sacrococcygeal ligaments

552
Q

what ligament is formed by the union of the superficial posterior sacrococcygeal and the deep posterior sacrococcygeal ligaments at Co1?

A

the posterior sacrococcygeal ligament

553
Q

what ligament divides the sciatic foramen ino the intertransverse ligament at s5?

A

sacrospinous ligament

554
Q

Which ligament represents a thickening of the fibrous capsule of the sacro-iliac joint?

A

anterior sacro-iliac ligament

555
Q

Which ligament is the strongest of the sacro-iliac ligaments and is penetrated by dorsal rami / of the sacral spinal nerves?

A

interosseous sacro-iliac ligament

556
Q

Which ligament will attach the intermediate sacral crest of S1, lateral sacral crest of S2 to the ^_x posterior superior iliac spine?

A

short posterior sacro-iliac ligament

557
Q

Which ligament attaches the lateral sacral crest of S3 and S4 to the posterior superior iliac spine?

A

long posterior sacro-iliac ligament

558
Q

What is the homolog for the inferior articular process and facet at S5?

A

sacral cornu

559
Q

What is the homolog for the superior articular process and facet at Co1?

A

coccygeal cornu

560
Q

What is the homolog for the capsular ligament at S5?

A

intercornual ligament

561
Q

What is the number of coccygeal somites?

A

ten

562
Q

what is the typical number of segments which unite to form the adult coccyx?

A

4 segments

563
Q

when is ossification of coccyx completed?

A

about age 30

564
Q

what is the direction of fusion of coccygeal segments?

A

from caudal to cranial, the last segments to fuse together are Col and Co2

565
Q

what is the direction of the coccygeal curve?

A

posterior (kyphotic)

566
Q

What is the major motion and range of motion for coccyx?

A

flexion - extension, 5-20 degrees

567
Q

How many coccygeal nerves are present in the fetus?

A

typically 5 pairs of coccygeal nerves are present

568
Q

How many coccygeal nerves are present in the adult?

A

typically only one pair of coccygeal nerves remain in the adult

569
Q

What forms the coccygeal nerve plexus?

A

S4, S5 and Col nerves

570
Q

what is the ganglion impar?

A

a midline sympathetic ganglion

571
Q

b.J What is the coccygeal glomus or coccygeal body?

A

an enlarged encapsulated arteriovenous anastomosis located near the last segment of coccyx

572
Q

SJuperior articular facets of which vertebrae will be oriented backward, upward, and medial?

A

C1,C3-C7, L1-L5, S1

573
Q

Superior articular facets of which vertebrae are oriented back, up, medial, and concave?

A

C1, L1-L5, S1

574
Q

Superior articular facets of which segments will be oriented backward, upward, and lateral?

A

C2, T1-T12

575
Q

nferior articular facets of which segments will be oriented backward, medial, and downward?

A

C1

576
Q

Inferior articular facets of which segments will be oriented forward, lateral, and downward?

A

C2-C6, T12, L1-L5

577
Q

Inferior articular facets of which segments are oriented forward, lateral, downward and convex?

A

T12, L1-L5

578
Q

Inferior articular facets of which segments will be oriented forward, medial, and downward?

A

C7, T1-T11

579
Q

Which segment has the only inferior articular facet to face backward?

A

C1

580
Q

What directions will all superior articular facets face?

A

backward and upward

581
Q

Which segments will have facets that are specifically shaped as “concave”?

A

C1, LI-L5, S1 superior articular facets

582
Q

Which segments will have facets that are specifically shaped as “convex”?

A

T12, L1-L5 inferior articular facets

583
Q

Which segments will have superior articular facets that are oriented medial or inward?

A

C1,C3-C7, L1-L5, SI

584
Q

Which segments will have superior articular facets that are oriented lateral or outward?

A

C2, T1-T12

585
Q

WhicCh segments will have inferior articular facets that are oriented medial or inward?

A

C1,C7, T1-T11

586
Q

What is the definition of spondylosis?

A

a vertebral condition

587
Q

What is the definition of spondylolysis?

A

a vertebral separation or vertebral cleavage

588
Q

What is the definition of spondylolisthesis?

A

a vertebral slippage

589
Q

What is the current limited definition of spondylosis?

A

a vertebral condition that is acquired or age-related

590
Q

Lumbar spondylolysis has not been reported in what groups of individuals?

A

fetuses, newborns, rarely in children under five years old, patients who have never walked and in non-erect species

591
Q

What is the gender bias and locational bias associated with lumbar spondylolysis?

A

men at L5/S1; women at L4/L5

592
Q

M/hat is the age range typically associated with lumbar spondylolysis?

A

10-20 year olds

593
Q

What motion(s) is particularly associated with lumbar spondylolysis?

A

hyperextension coupled with rotation

594
Q

What fills the space in a lumbar spondylolysis?

A

fibrocartilagenous material

595
Q

What name has been given to the material filling the space in a lumbar spondylolysis?

A

spondylolysis ligament

596
Q

What types of neural function(s) have been associated with the spondylolysis ligament?

A

nociception, neuromodulation and autonomic function

597
Q

What .s the appearance of the lumbar vertebra upon oblique x-ray view?

A

a scotty dog

598
Q

what is the appearance of a pars defect in a lumbar vertebra upon oblique x-ray view?

A

a collared Scotty dog

599
Q

what part of a lumbar vertebra forms the neck of a scotty dog?

A

the pars interarticularis below the superior articular process

600
Q

What part of a lumbar vertebra forms the eye of a Scotty dog?

A

the pedicle

601
Q

What part of a lumbar vertebra forms the ear of a Scotty dog?

A

the superior articular process

602
Q

What part of a lumbar vertebra forms the nose of a Scotty dog?

A

the transverse process

603
Q

W )What characteristics are associated with cervical spondylolysis?

A

rare, congenital, gender biased toward men, most common at C6 and linked to spondylolisthesis and spina bifida

604
Q

What characteristics are associated with sacral spondylolysis?

A

rare in the general population, within typical percents in the native Alaskan (Inuit) population, seems to be acquired, gender biased toward men, most common at S1 and linked to activities such as kayaking and harpooning

605
Q

What vertebral condition results in spondylolisthesis?

A

bilateral spondylolysis

606
Q

What is the direction of spondylolisthesis?

A

anterior or forward displacement

607
Q

What is the posterior direction of vertebral slippage called?

A

retrospondylolisthesis or retrolisthesis

608
Q

Identify all names given to type I spondylolisthesis?

A

dysplastic spondylolisthesis, congenital spondylolisthesis

609
Q

what is the locational bias of Type 1 spondylolisthesis?

A

L5 or upper sacral segments

610
Q

What is the cause most frequently given for type II spondylolisthesis?

A

microfractures as the result of repetitive stress during hyperflexion and rotation

611
Q

What gender bias, locational bias, and spinal canal dimensions are associated with type 2 spondylolisthesis?

A

isthmic spondylolisthesis is common in men, located at the L5/S1 level and demonstrates an increase in sagittal diameter of the spinal canal

612
Q

What is the gender bias, locational bias, and spinal canal dimension changes often associated I with type III spondylolisthesis?

A

degenerative spondylolisthesis is more common in women, particularly at L4/L5, and demonstrates no change in sagittal diameter of the spinal canal

613
Q

What causes type IV spondylolisthesis?

A

fracture of the neural arch components

614
Q

What are the cause(s) associated with type V spondylolisthesis?

A

bone diseases such as Paget disease or osteogenesis imperfecta

615
Q

what percent of total vertebral column length does “true” intervertebral foramina height from C2 - S1 equal?

A

40%

616
Q

What percent of total vertebral column length does all intervertebral foramina height from occiput - Co1 equal?

A

53%

617
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the cervical spine?

A

the vertebral artery ascending cervical artery and deep cervical artery

618
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the thoracic spine?

A

the deep cervical artery, highest (superior) intercostal artery, posterior intercostal artery and subcostal artery

619
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the lumbar spine?

A

the lumbar arteries, iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median sacral artery

620
Q

What are the characteristics of the Artery of Adamkiewicz?

A

it is a left side, anterior medullary feeder artery, located in the T9/T10 intervertebral foramen, and the primary vascular supply to the lumbar enlargement

621
Q

What will the intervertebral veins drain into?

A

The external vertebral venous plexus or kelsons plexus

622
Q

What is a unique histological feature of the veins of the vertebral column?

A

they appear to lack valves

623
Q

What increases the depth or lenght of the IVF in the cervical spine?

A

the transverse process

624
Q

What is the location of the spinal nerve within the cervical IVF?

A

toward the front and middle of th« height of the cervical intervertebral foramen

625
Q

What is the relationship between aging and cervical nerve root characteristics?

A

lenght of the nerve root increases as it descends from the apparent origin on the spinal cord but the cross sectional area of the nerve root decreases

626
Q

whats is the relationship between again and cervical spine and IVF size?

A

the cross sectional area diminishes after age 50

627
Q

What are the specific attachment sites for a cervical spinal nerve?

A

the sulcus for the ventral primary ramus on the costotransverse bar and the vertebral artery

Spinal Anatomy (19 decks)

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