Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

SBL > High Yield Information for Exam 1 > Flashcards

High Yield Information for Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Oral Iron Dosage

A

200-400mg ferrous iron/day in a single dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Treatment for iron poising

A

Deferoxamine (iron-chelating compound)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How is Deferoxamine given

A

Subcutaneous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Dose for Oral B12 with pernicious anemia

A

1-2mg/day for 2 weeks then 1mg daily (~500X daily needed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

If neurological symptoms are present in a pt that has megaloblastic anemia what is the dosage

A

1) 1000ug/day for 1 week
2) Weekly for 1 month
3) Monthly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Adverse events with B12

A

None

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Treatment for Folate Def.

A

Oral Folate: 1mg/day for 4 months

*** Malabsorption present, dose 1-5mg/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

High Doses of Folate can cause ___ and ___

A

Hypotension and Hypoglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What drug increases reticulocyte count <10 day

A

Epoetin Alfa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Adverse events for Epoetin Alfa

A

1) Death
2) MI
3) Stroke
4) Venous thromboembolism
5) Tumor Progression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How is Epoetin Alfa administrated

A

IV or Subcutaneously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Indications of Epoetin Alfa

A

1) Chronic Kidney Disease
2) Cancer Chemotherapy
3) HIV Treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is used for sickle cell anemia treatment

A

1) Hydroxyurea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

MOA of Hydroxyurea

A

Boosts Fetal Hemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the only disease modifying therapy approved for sickle cell disease

A

Hydroxyurea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How is Hydroxyurea delivered

A

Orally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What drug treats PNH

A

Eculizumab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

MOA of Eculizumab

A

Inhibits its cleavages to C5a and C5b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How would you treat atypical hemolytic uremic syndrome

A

Eculizumab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How does Eculizumab treat atypical hemolytic uremic syndrome

A

Inhibits complement mediated thrombotic microangiopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Eculizumab is only available under

A

REMs (Risk evaluation and mitigation strategy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Eculizumab is administered via ___. Why?

A

1) IV

2) Antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Dosage of Eculizumab

A

1) Once per week for 1st 4 wks

2) Maintenance dose given every two weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Toxicities of Eculizumab

A

1) Viral Infections
2) Life-Threatening Meningococcal Infections
3) Headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What vaccine must you give to a pt 2 weeks before starting Eculizumab

A

Meningococcal Vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the brand name for G-CSF

A

Filgrastim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Toxicities of Filgrastim

A

1) Allergic Rxn

2) Bone Pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How do you treat the bone pain associated with Filgrastim

A

NSAIDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How long do you have to wait after chemotherapy to admin filgrastim

A

24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How is Filgrastim administrated

A

1) IV

2) SC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Indications for Filgrastim

A

1) Nonmyeloid Malignancies recieving myelosuppressive anticancer drugs
2) Bone Marrow Transplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which drug that treats neutropenia can cause Edema

A

Sargramostim (GM-CSF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Sargramostim will increase the production of

A

Neutrophils, Eosinophils, and Monocytes/Macrophages

34
Q

How is Sargramostim delivered

35
Q

Toxicities of Sargramostim

A

1) Edema and Fluid Retention
2) Dyspnea
3) Renal and Hepatic Dysfunction in pts already w/ those problems
4) Gasping Syndrome in premature infants

36
Q

Why Sargramostim cause Gasping Baby Syndrome

A

Benzyl Alcohol

37
Q

MOA of Plerixafor

A

1) Partial agonist of CXCR4 receptor

38
Q

MOA of Oprelvekin (IL-11)

A

1) Unknown

39
Q

Effects of Oprelvekin

A

Formation and Maturation of Megakaryocytes

40
Q

Toxicities of Oprelvekin

A

1) Significant Edema
2) Cardiac Dysrhythmias
3) Blood Shot eyes
4) Severe Allergic Rxn

41
Q

How is Romiplostim Administered

42
Q

Effect of Romiplostim

A

Increase Platelet Count in Pts with ITP

43
Q

MOA of Romiplostim

A

Bind TPO receptor

44
Q

Indications of Romiplostim

A

1) ITP

- Used after failure of glucocorticoids and immune globins

45
Q

Toxicity of Eltrombopag

A

Hepatotoxicity

46
Q

MOA of Eltrombopag

A

Non-peptide TPO receptor agonist

47
Q

How is Eltrombopag administered

48
Q

Dose of Eltrombopag

A

Once a day

49
Q

Indications of Eltrombopag

A

1) ITP

2) Cirrhosis due to Hep C

50
Q

Causes of Drug-induced thrombocytopenia

A

1) Myelosuppression

2) Quinidine, Vancomycin, Heprin

51
Q

How does Asprin decrease thromboxane A2

A

Cyclooxygenase-1

52
Q

In Chronic Immune Thrombocytopenia there will be an increase of what cell type in the bone marrow?

A

Megakaryocyte

53
Q

Antibodies are against what in Chronic Immune Thrombocytopenia

54
Q

What are the two acquired forms of decreased platelet function disorders

A

1) Asprin Use

2) Uremia

55
Q

Inheritance of Kostmann Syndrome

A

Autosomal Recessive

56
Q

Clinical Features of Kostmann Syndrome

A

Early Life Threatening Pyogenic Infection

57
Q

How is Kostmann Syndrome associated with cancer

58
Q

What is known as a severe congenital neutropenia

A

Kostmann Syndrome

59
Q

Cyclic Neutropenia has an ANC < ___ every __ - __ days

A

1) 200
2) 15
3) 35

60
Q

Clinical Presentation of Cyclin Neutropenia

A

Cyclic Fever with Oral Ulcers

61
Q

Inheritance of Cyclic Neutropenia

A

1) Autosomal Dominant or Sporadic

62
Q

Risk for malignancy in Cyclic Neutropenia

63
Q

Triad seen in schwann-diamond syndrome

A

1) Neutropenia
2) Exocrine pancreas insufficency
3) Skeletal abnormalities

64
Q

Inheritance of Schwann-Diamond Syndrome

A

Autosomal Recessive

65
Q

Risk for cancer in Schwann Diamond Syndrome

A

1) MDS or Leukemia

66
Q

Malignancy association with Fanconi Anemia

A

1) AML
2) Brain Tumor
3) Wilms Tumor

67
Q

When does Fanconi Anemia present

A

1) 1st 10 yrs of life

68
Q

Clinical presentation of Fanconi Anemia in children

A

1) GU and Skeletal Abnormalities

69
Q

Inheritance of Fanconi Anemia

A

Autosomal recessive

70
Q

Malignancy association with Leukocyte Adhesion Def.

71
Q

Clinical Presentation of Leukocyte Adhesion Def.

A

1) Delayed umbilical cord stump (>3wks)
2) Recurrent bacterial and fungal infections W/O PUS
3) Poor Wound Healing

72
Q

Child has recurrent bacterial infections w/o pus. you sus. that the disease he has is ___ inheritance pattern.

A

1) Leukocyte Adhesion def.

2) autosomal recessive

73
Q

Another name for Hyper IgE Syndrome is

A

Job Syndrome

74
Q

Triad of symptoms in Job syndrome

A

1) Severe Excezma
2) Recurrent Bacterial Infections (Staph) on skin
3) Pulmonary Infections

75
Q

Job Syndrome is what type of inheritance

A

Autosomal Dominant

76
Q

Malignancy association with Job Syndrome

A

Increaased Hodgkin Lymphoma

77
Q

Triad of symptoms in Wiscott-Aldrich Syndrome

A

1) Recurrent Sinopulmonary and Ear Infections
2) Severe Atopic Dermatitis
3) Bleeding

78
Q

Wiscott-Aldrich is associated with what type of cancer

A

Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma

-ESP. B Cell

79
Q

Vaccinations after Splenomegaly

A

1) Streptococcus Pneumoniae
2) Neisseria Meningitidis
3) Herophilus Influenzae B

80
Q

What is Kehr Sign. Describe position

A

1) LUQ pain due to phrenic nerve irritation
- Splenic rupture below diaphragm
2) Elicited in recombinant position (laying down) with legs raised

81
Q

Where is Castell’s Point

A

1) Inferior interspace along left anterior axially line

SBL (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions