HESI Maternity Flashcards

1
Q

A couple must avoid unprotected intercourse for?

A

for several days before the anticipated ovulation and for 3 days after ovulation to prevent pregnancy.

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2
Q

Practice determining gravidity and parity. A woman who is 6 weeks pregnant has the following maternal history: • She has a healthy 2-year-old,vdaughter. • She had a miscarriage at 10 weeks. • She had an elective abortion at 6 weeks, 5 years earlier. • With this pregnancy, she is a gravida 4, para 1 (only 1 delivery after 20 weeks’ gestation).

A

GTPAL is 4-1-0-2-1

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3
Q

Practice calculating EDB. If the first day of a woman’s last normal menstrual period was October 17, what is her EDB, using the Nägele rule?

A

July 24. Count back 3 months and add 7 days (always give February 28 days).

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4
Q

As pregnancy advances, the uterus presses on abdominal vessels (vena cava and aorta). Teach the woman that?

A

a left side-lying position relieves supine hypotension and increases perfusion to uterus, placenta, and fetus.

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5
Q

Remember, the normal fetal heart rate is?

A

110 to 160 bpm.

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6
Q

Name the major discomforts of the first trimester and one suggestion for amelioration of each.

A
  • Nausea and vomiting: crackers before rising
  • fatigue: rest periods and naps and 7 to 8 hours of sleep at night.
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7
Q

The hemodilution of pregnancy peaks at _____ weeks and results in a/ an _____ in a woman’s Hct.

A

28 to 32 weeks; decrease

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8
Q

State three principles relative to the pattern of weight gain in pregnancy.

A

Total gain should average 25 to 35 lb. Gain should be consistent throughout pregnancy. An average of 1 lb/ week should be gained in the second and third trimesters.

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9
Q

During pregnancy a woman should add _____ calories to her diet and drink _____ of milk per day.

A

300; 3 cups

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10
Q

Fetal heart rate can be auscultated by Doppler at _____ weeks’ gestation.

A

10 to 12

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11
Q

Describe the schedule of prenatal visits for a low-risk pregnant woman

A

Once every 4 weeks until 28 weeks; every 2 weeks from 28 to 36 weeks; then once a week until delivery

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12
Q

When an amniocentesis is done in early pregnancy, the bladder must be?

A

full to help support the uterus and to help push the uterus up in the abdomen for easy access. When an amniocentesis is done in late pregnancy, the bladder must be empty so it will not be punctured.

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13
Q

______ caused by head compression and fetal descent, usually occur between 4 and 7 cm and in the second stage of labor. Check for labor progress if early decelerations are noted

A

early decellerations

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14
Q

If cord prolapse is detected, the examiner should?

A

position the mother to relieve pressure on the cord (i.e., knee-chest position) or push the presenting part off the cord until immediate cesarean delivery can be accomplished.

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15
Q

Late decelerations indicate?

A

uteroplacental insufficiency and are associated with conditions such as postmaturity, preeclampsia, diabetes mellitus, cardiac disease, and abruptio placentae

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16
Q

When deceleration patterns (late or variable) are associated with decreased or absent variability and tachycardia, the situation is?

A

ominous (potentially disastrous) and requires immediate intervention and fetal assessment.

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17
Q

a decrease in uteroplacental perfusion results in?

A

late decelerations; cord compression results in a pattern of variable decelerations (Fig. 6-10C). Nursing interventions should include changing maternal position, discontinuing Pitocin infusion, administering oxygen, and notifying the health care provider.

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18
Q

The most import determinant of fetal maturity for extrauterine survival is?

A

lung maturity:lung surfactant (L:S) ratio (2: 1 or higher).

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19
Q

What does the biophysical profile (BPP) determine?

A

Fetal well-being

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20
Q

List three necessary nursing actions prior to an ultrasound examination for a woman in the first trimester of pregnancy.

A

Have client fill bladder. Do not allow client to void. Position client supine and with uterine wedge.

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21
Q

Name the four periodic changes of the FHR, their causes, and one nursing treatment for each.

A
  • Accelerations are caused by a burst of sympathetic activity; they are reassuring and require no treatment.
  • Early decelerations are caused by head compression; they are benign and alert the nurse to monitor for labor progress and fetal descent.
  • Variable decelerations are caused by cord compression; change of position should be tried first.
  • Late decelerations are caused by UPI and should be treated by placing client on her side and administering oxygen.
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22
Q

Normal maternal temperature during labor

A

<100.4

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23
Q

__________ results in respiratory alkalosis that is caused by blowing off too much CO2. Symptoms include: • Dizziness • Tingling of fingers • Stiff mouth

Have a woman do?

A

Hyperventilation: Have woman breathe into her cupped hands or a paper bag in order to rebreathe CO2.

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24
Q

Give the ? after the placenta is delivered because the drug will cause the uterus to contract. If the drug is administered before the placenta is delivered, it may result in a retained placenta, which predisposes the client to hemorrhage and infection.

A

oxytocin

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25
Q

? is not given to clients with hypertension because of its vasoconstrictive action. Pitocin is given with caution to those with hypertension.

A

Methergine

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26
Q

Never give Methergine or Hemabate to a?

A

client while she is in labor or before delivery of the placenta.

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27
Q

? is one of the most common reasons for uterine atony or hemorrhage in the first 24 hours after delivery. If the nurse finds the fundus soft, boggy, and displaced above and to the right of the umbilicus, what action should be taken first?

A

Full bladder: First, perform fundal massage; then have the client empty her bladder. Recheck fundus every 15 minutes for 1 hour, then every 30 minutes for 2 hours.

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28
Q

If narcotic analgesics (codeine, meperidine) are given?

A

raise side rails and place call light within reach. Instruct client not to get out of bed or ambulate without assistance. Caution client about drowsiness as a side effect.

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29
Q

Identify two reasons to withhold anesthesia and analgesia until the midactive phase of stage I labor.

A

If analgesia and anesthesia are given too early, they can retard labor; if given too late, they can cause fetal distress.

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30
Q

List four nursing actions for the second stage of labor.

A

Make sure cervix is completely dilated before pushing is allowed. Assess FHR with each contraction. Teach woman to hold breath for no longer than 10 seconds. Teach pushing technique.

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31
Q

List three signs of placental separation.

A

Gush of blood, lengthening of cord, and globular shape of uterus

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32
Q

What is the purpose of eye prophylaxis in the newborn?

A

To prevent ophthalmia neonatorum, which results from exposure to gonorrhea in the vagina

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33
Q

What is the major cause of maternal death when general anesthesia is administered?

A

Aspiration of gastric contents

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34
Q

Hypotension commonly occurs after the laboring client receives a regional block. What is one of the first signs the nurse might observe?

A

Nausea

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35
Q

State three actions the nurse should take when hypotension occurs in a laboring client.

A

Turn client to left side. Administer O2 by mask at 10 L/ min Increase speed of intravenous infusion (if it does not contain medication).

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36
Q

What actions can the nurse take to assist in preventing postpartum hemorrhage?

A

Massage the fundus (gently) and keep the bladder emptied.

37
Q

What are the symptoms of hypovolemic shock?

A

Pallor, clammy skin, tachycardia, lightheadedness, and hypotension

38
Q

Client and family teaching is a common subject of NCLEX-RN ® questions. Remember that when teaching, the first step is to?

A

assess the client’s (parents’) level of knowledge and to identify their readiness to learn.

39
Q

Client should void within ? hours of delivery. Monitor client closely for urine retention. Suspect retention if voiding is frequent and < ? ml per voiding.

A

4 hours; <100

40
Q

Remember, RhoGAM is given to?

A

an Rh-negative mother who delivers an Rh-positive fetus and has a negative direct Coombs test. If the mother has a positive Coombs test, there is no need to give RhoGAM because the mother is already sensitized.

41
Q

“Postpartum blues” are usually normal, especially ? to ? days after delivery (unexplained tearfulness, feeling down, and having a decreased appetite). Encourage use of support persons to help with housework for first 2 postpartum weeks. Refer to community resources.

A

5-7 days

42
Q

A breastfeeding mother complains of very tender nipples. What nursing actions should be taken?

A

Have her demonstrate infant position on breast (incorrect positioning often causes tenderness). Leave bra open to air-dry nipples for 15 minutes three times daily. Express colostrum and rub on nipples.

43
Q

Three days postpartum, a lactating mother has full, warm, taut, tender breasts. What nursing actions should be taken?

A

She is engorged; have newborn suckle frequently; take measures to increase milk flow: warm water, breast massage, and supportive bra.

44
Q

A woman’s white blood count is 17,000; she is afebrile and has no symptoms of infection. What nursing action is indicated?

A

Continue routine assessments; normal leukocytosis occurs during postpartal period because of placental site healing.

45
Q

What should the fundal height be at 3 days postpartum for a woman who has had a vaginal delivery?

A

Three fingerbreadths/ cm below the umbilicus.

46
Q

• Suction the ? first and then the ?. Stimulating the ? can initiate inspiration, which could cause aspiration of mucus in oral pharynx.

A

Suction the mouth first, then the nose, stimulating the nares can initiate inspiration

47
Q

physiological jaundace

A

occurs at 2 to 3 days of life. If it occurs before 24 hours or persists beyond 7 days, it becomes pathologic. Typically, NCLEX-RN questions ask about the normal problem of physiologic jaundice, which occurs 2 to 3 days after birth due to the immature liver’s normal inability to keep up with RBC destruction and to bind bilirubin. Remember, unconjugated bilirubin is the culprit.

48
Q

how do you evaluate urine output from a newborn?

A

To evaluate exact urine output, weigh dry diaper before applying. Weigh the wet diaper after infant has voided. Calculate and record each gram of added weight as 1 ml urine.

49
Q

Do not feed a newborn when the respiratory rate is over ?. Inform the physician and anticipate gavage feedings in order to prevent further energy utilization and possible aspiration.

A

60

50
Q

Normal newborn temperature is _____. Normal newborn heart rate is _____. Normal newborn respiratory rate is ___. Normal newborn blood pressure is ____.

A

97.7 to 99.4 ° F; 110 to 160 bpm; 30 to 60; 80/ 50

51
Q

True or false, the newborns head is usually smaller than its chest

A

False: The head is usually 2 cm larger unless severe molding occurred.

52
Q

During the physical examination of the newborn, the nurse notes the cry is shrill, high-pitched, and weak. What are the possible causes?

A

During the physical examination of the newborn, the nurse notes the cry is shrill, high-pitched, and weak. What are the possible causes?

53
Q

A small-for-gestational-age newborn is identified as one who _____.

A

Has a weight below the tenth percentile for estimated weeks of gestation.

54
Q

Normal blood glucose in the term neonate is?

A

40 to 80 mg/ dl

55
Q

When is the screening test for phenylketonuria done?

A

At 2 to 3 days of life, or after enough breast milk or formula, usually after 24 hours, is ingested to allow for determination of body’s ability to metabolize amino acid phenylalanine.

56
Q

List five signs and symptoms new parents should be taught to report immediately to a doctor or clinic.

A

Lethargy, temperature > 100 ° F, vomiting, green stools, refusal of two feeds in a row

57
Q

Suspect ectopic pregnancy in any woman of childbearing age who presents at an emergency room, clinic, or office with?

A

unilateral or bilateral abdominal pain. Most are misdiagnosed as appendicitis.

58
Q

A client who is at 32 weeks’ gestation calls the health care provider because she is experiencing dark-red vaginal bleeding. She is admitted to the emergency department, where the nurse determines the FHR to be 100 bpm. The client’s abdomen is rigid and boardlike, and she is complaining of severe pain. What action should the nurse take first?

A

First, the nurse must use her or his knowledge base to differentiate between abruptio placentae (this client) and placenta previa (painless bright-red bleeding occurring in the third trimester). The nurse should immediately notify the health care provider, and no abdominal or vaginal manipulation or examinations should be done. Administer O2 by facemask. Monitor for bleeding at IV sites and gums because of the increased risk for DIC. Emergency cesarean section is required because uteroplacental perfusion to the fetus is being compromised by early separation of the placenta from the uterus.

59
Q

Clients with abruptio placentae or placenta previa (actual or suspected) should undergo no?

A

no abdominal or vaginal manipulation. • No Leopold maneuvers • No vaginal examination • No rectal examinations, enemas, or suppositories • No internal monitoring

60
Q

Although the toxic side effects of magnesium sulfate are well known and watched for, it is just as important to get serum blood levels of magnesium sulfate above ? mg/ dl in order to prevent convulsions and reach therapeutic range.

A

above 4mg/dl

61
Q

if any toxic symptoms occur (< 12 respirations/ min, urine output < 100 ml/ 4 hr, absent DTRs, magnesium sulfate serum levels > 8 mg/ dl)?

A

Hold next dose of magnesium sulfate and notify health care provider

62
Q

When administering magnesium sulfate, always have antidote available?

A

When administering magnesium sulfate, always have antidote available

63
Q

Women with previous uterine scars are prone to uterine rupture, especially if oxytocin or forceps is used. If a woman complains of a sharp pain accompanied by the abrupt cessation of contractions, suspect?

A

uterine rupture, a medical emergency. Immediate surgical delivery is indicated to save the fetus and mother.

64
Q

The major goal of nursing care for a client with preeclampsia is to?

A

maintain uteroplacental perfusion and prevent seizures. This requires the administration of magnesium sulfate. Withhold administration of magnesium sulfate if signs of toxicity exist: respirations < 12/ min, absence of DTRs, or urine output < 30 ml/ hr.

65
Q

Rarely are antihypertensive drugs used in the preeclamptic client. They are given only in the event of diastolic BP above?

A

above 110 mm Hg (danger of stroke). The drug of choice is hydralazine HCl (Apresoline).

66
Q

• Although delivery is often described as the “cure” for preeclampsia, the client can convulse up to?

A

48 hours after delivery.

67
Q

may not be taken during pregnancy due to its ability to cross the placenta and affect the fetus. Heparin is the drug of choice; it does not cross the placental membrane.

A

Coumadin

68
Q

When a pregnant woman is admitted with a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus: • She is more prone to?

A

preeclampsia, hemorrhage, and infection. • Most diabetic pregnancies are allowed to progress to term (38 to 40 weeks’ gestation) as long as metabolic control is maintained and fetal growth is within standards.

69
Q

Estrogen-containing birth control pills affect?

A

affect glucose metabolism by increasing resistance to insulin. The intrauterine device may be associated with an increased risk for infection in these already vulnerable women.

70
Q

What instructions should the nurse give the woman with a threatened abortion?

A

Maintain strict bed rest for 24 to 48 hours. Avoid sexual intercourse for 2 weeks.

71
Q

Describe discharge counseling for a woman after hydatidiform mole evacuation by D& C.

A

Prevent pregnancy for 1 year. Return to clinic or MD for monthly hCG levels for 1 year. Postoperative D& C instructions: call if bright-red vaginal bleeding or foul-smelling vaginal discharge occurs, or temperature spikes over 100.4 ° F.

72
Q

What is the major side effect of beta-adrenergic tocolytic drugs (Terbutaline, Ritodrine)?

A

Tachycardia

73
Q

A prolonged latent phase for a multipara is _____ and for a nullipara is _____. Multiparas’ average cervical dilatation is _____ cm/ hr in the active phase, and nulliparas’ average cervical dilatation is _____ cm/ hr in the active phase.

A

> 14 hours, > 20 hours, 1.5, 1.2

74
Q

List the symptoms of water intoxication resulting from the effect of Pitocin (oxytocin) on the antidiuretic hormone (ADH).

A

Nausea and vomiting, headache, and hypotension

75
Q

What interventions should the nurse implement to prevent further CNS irritability in the preeclampsia client?

A

Darken room, limit visitors, maintain close 1: 1 nurse:client ratio, place in private room, plan nursing interventions all at the same time so client is disturbed as little as possible.

76
Q

Does insulin cross the placenta-breast barrier?

A

No. Therefore, insulin-dependent women may breastfeed.

77
Q

Risk factors for hemorrhage include?

A

dystocia, prolonged labor, overdistended uterus, abruptio placentae, and infection.

78
Q

What immediate nursing actions should be taken when a postpartum hemorrhage is detected?

A

Perform fundal massage. • Notify the health care provider if the fundus does not become firm with massage. • Count pads to estimate blood loss. • Assess and record vital signs. • Increase IV fluids (additional IV line may be indicated). • Administer oxytocin infusion as prescribed.

79
Q

May women with a positive HIV antibody test breastfeed?

A

No. HIV has been found in breast milk.

80
Q

What are the nursing actions for endometritis and parametritis?

A

Measures to promote lochial drainage; antipyretic measures (acetaminophen, cool cloths); administration of analgesics and antibiotics as prescribed; increase of fluids, with attention to high-protein and high-vitamin C diet.

81
Q

Must women diagnosed with mastitis stop breastfeeding?

A

No. Women who stop breastfeeding abruptly may make the situation worse by increasing congestion and engorgement and providing further media for bacterial growth. Client may have to discontinue breastfeeding if pus is present or if antibiotics are contraindicated for neonate.

82
Q

The lower the score on the Silverman-Anderson Index of Respiratory Distress, the?

A

better the respiratory status of the neonate. A score of 10 indicates that a newborn is in severe respiratory distress. This is the exact opposite of the method used for Apgar scoring.

83
Q

Drugs used to treat neonatal infections can be?

A

ototoxic and nephrotoxic. Close monitoring of therapeutic levels and observation for side effects are required.

.

84
Q

A baby is delivered blue, limp, and with a heart rate < 100. The nurse dries the infant, suctions the oropharynx and gently stimulates the infant while blowing O2 over the face. The infant still does not respond. What is the next nursing action?

.

A

Begin oxygenation by bag and mask at 30 to 50 breaths per minute. If heart rate is < 60, start cardiac massage at 120 events per minute (30 breaths and 90 compressions). Assist health care provider in setting up for intubation procedure.

85
Q

What are the cardinal symptoms of sepsis in a newborn?

A

Lethargy, temperature instability, difficulty feeding, subtle color changes, subtle behavioral changes, and hyperbilirubinemia

86
Q

In order to prevent rickets in the preterm newborn, what supplements are given?

A

Calcium and vitamin D

87
Q

What characteristics would the nurse expect to see in a neonate with fetal alcohol syndrome?

A

Microcephaly, strabismus, growth retardation, short palpebral fissures, maxillary hypoplasia, abnormal palmar creases, irregular hair, whorls, poor suck, cleft lip, cleft palate, small teeth

88
Q
A