Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Infectious Disease > Herpesvirus > Flashcards

Herpesvirus Flashcards

1
Q

herpesvirus is a (enveloped/nonenenveloped) virus with an icosahedral core, and its genome is _______

A

enveloped

dsDNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

herpes simplex 1, herpes simplex 2, and varicella zoster( HHV3) all belong to what subfamily?

A

alphaherpesviridae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

cytomegalovirus (HHV5) belongs to what subfamily?

A

betaherpesviridae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

EBV (HHV4) and Kaposi’s sarcoma associated herpes (HHV8) belong to what subfamily?

A

gammaherpesviridae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

a replication competent virus undergoes non-productive virus infection thus not killing the cell

A

latency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

during a latent infection, the herpesvirus synthesizes only a few viral transcripts, known as?

A

LATs: latency associated transcripts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

cell receptors for HHV-1,2,5 (CMV), 7, 8?

A

the proteoglycan heparin sulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

cell receptor for EBV?

A

complement receptor 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

cell receptor for HHV8?

A

integrins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

herpesvirus transcription occurs via host _________, and transcription is dependent on both cell and viral proteins

A

RNA polymerase II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

immediate early proteins involved in transcription regulation, controlled by VP16

A

alpha proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

early proteins involved in DNA replication including DNA polymerase, DNA binding proteins, thymidine kinase, ribonucleotide reductase

A

beta proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

late proteins, structural components of the virus

A

gamma proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

herpes virus uses a ________ process for maturation and release from infected cells

A

double envelope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

herpes viruses are capable of forming synctia composed of ________ cells and ______ of dying cells in monolayer

A

multinucleated giant cells, plaque

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

HSV1 spread by _______ contact, or autoinoculation by infection of fingers, body, or eye by mouth to skin contact

A

oral contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

HSV2 spread by _______ or autoinoculation

A

sexual contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

HSV-1 virus remains latent in ______ ganglion, and after ________ lesions generally occur in the same location, ______ frequently found as a genital lesion

A

trigeminal
reactivation
less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

site of latency for HSV-1?

A

neurons in trigeminal, superior cerical, vagal ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

site of latency for varicella zoster/HHV3?

A

neuronal sensory ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

site of latency for EBV?

A

B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

site of latency for CMV?

A

monocytes, lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

site of latency for HHV6/7?

A

T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

clinical manifestations of HSV1?

A

encephalitis, keratoconjunctivits, pharyngitis, genital herpes, herpes whitlow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

clinical manifestations of HSV2?

A

encephalitis, meningitis, pharyngitis, perianal herpes, genital, herpes whitlow, and neonatal herpes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

herpes labialis or cold sores are reactivations of HSV1 by situations that cause stress on the immune system such as?

A

stress, menstrual cycle, trauma, or exposure to UV light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

development pattern of a cold sore?

A

pain/tingling/itching before lesion, then ertythema and edema, progressing to papule and vesicle within 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

vesicle ulcerates and heals within??

A

7-10 days

29
Q

in genital herpes, lesions appear where on men and women?

A

men: shaft of glans of penis
women: vulva, vagina, cervix, perianal, inner thigh

30
Q

incubation period of herpes?

A

5 days

31
Q

found in children with pre-existing atopic dermatitis, also found within burn patients, can spread cutaneously, can spread to liver and adrenal glands

A

eczema herpeticum

32
Q

infections of hands and wrists by HHV1/2, spread to open wounds/sores by coming into contact with infected body fluids

A

herpes whitlow

33
Q

superficial lesions caused by HSV-1 that are most often seen in wrestlers, on the feet

A

herpes gladiatorum

34
Q

infection of the conjunctiva by HSV1, almost always in one eye, recurrent activation of the virus can lead to permanent damage of cornea and blindness

A

herpes keratoconjunctivitis

35
Q

herpes encephalitis is the most common form of _______ encephalitis, lesions generally confined to _______ lobe, get early influx of ________

A

sporadic
temporal
neutrophils then macrophages

36
Q

histo of herpesvirus encephalitis shows invasion of ________, and _______ nodules engulfing dead neurons, as well as ________ inclusions

A

lymphocytes, microglial, Cowdry A intranuclear

37
Q
  • almost always caused by HSV2
  • usually fatal, can be acquired in utero or by passage through birth canal
  • commonly when mother has a primary infection
  • virus spreads to liver, lungs, CNS
A

neonatal herpes

38
Q

neonatal herpes autopsy shows?

A

-extensive destruction of brain, disseminated yellowish necrotic liver lesions, cowdry A inclusions

39
Q

varicella zoster is causative agent of?

A

chickenpox and zoster (shingles)

40
Q

reactivation of varicella zoster due to?

A

immune suppression such as cancer therapy, transplantation, sunlight, stress

41
Q

peak incidence of VZV?

A

2-6 years of age

42
Q

occurs with primary maternal infection during first trimester, get scarring of skin/hypoplasia of limbs/CNS and eye defects, mortality up to 35%

A

congenital varicella

43
Q

scraping of base of lesion and examination of smear for typical herpesvirus cytopathology (intranuclear Cowdry A inclusions)

A

Tzanck smear

44
Q

vaccine for varicella zoster is _________, given at 12-15 months and 4-6 years

A

live attenuated

45
Q

given to people older than 60 to prevent shingles, same vaccine with more virus present

A

zostavax

46
Q
  • goes latent in B cells
  • diseases associated are mono, African Burkitt’s lymphoma, Hodgkin’s, nasopharyngeal carcinoma, hairy oral leukoplakia, post transplant lymphomas/AIDS associated
A

epstein barr virus

47
Q
  • spindle shaped cells with inflammatory infiltrates
  • infects and causes latent infection in B cells, can also infect endothelial cells and monocytes
  • homosexual the most susceptible group
A

Kaposi’s sarcoma

48
Q
  • most common malignancy in HIV-1/AIDS patients
  • one of first recognized signs of AIDS in gay men
  • can diminish or resolve with HAART
A

AIDS Kaposi’s sarcoma

49
Q

Kaposi’s sarcoma cycle:

  • initial infection of susceptible cells
  • establishment of _______
  • activation of viral lytic genes
  • infects ______ cell
  • Kaposi’s sarcoma
A

latency

endothelial

50
Q

EBV transmitted through?

what cells keep EBV in check?

A

saliva

CD8 T cells

51
Q

latency genes in EBV interfere with?

A

cell control and differentiation, underscores ability of EBV to cause transformation of B cells

52
Q

latency 0 in EBV?

A

non-dividing B cells, no disease

53
Q

latency 1 in EBV?

A

affects healthy memory B cells, assoc’d with Burkitt’s lymphoma, AIDS related DLBCL, primary effusion lymphoma

54
Q

latency 2 in EBV?

A

Hodgkin lymphoma, T/NK cell lymphoma

55
Q

latency 3 in EBV?

A

AIDS related DLBCL, infectious mononucleosis

56
Q
  • symptoms include cervical lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, exudative pharyngitis, hepatomegaly
  • rarely fatal
A

infectious mononucleosis

57
Q

as EBV infects and causes proliferation of B cells by a non-specific mitogen like activation of B cells leads to the production of antibodies to many different antigens. the antibodies are known as?

A

heterophile antibodies

58
Q

atypical lymphocytes seen in EBV are known as?

A

Downey cells

59
Q
  • endemic in Central Africa

- chromosomal translocation 8 to 14/22

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma

60
Q
  • less than 1% of all cancers in US
  • young adults and older adults
  • Reed Sternberg cells, of B cell origin
A

Hodgkin’s lymphoma

61
Q
  • derived from epithelial cells
  • adults
  • endemic in china, east africa, tunisia
  • p16 viral protein and upregulation of cyclin D1
A

nasopharyngeal carcinoma

62
Q
  • the most common virus transmitted to a pregnant woman’s unborn child
  • outcome depends on immune status of individual: from asymptomatic carrier, to mono, to inclusion disease, to multiple symptomatic disease
A

cytomegalovirus

63
Q
  • isolation of CMV from saliva or urine within 3 weeks of birth
  • 40% chance of transmission to fetus following primary infection
  • may be transmitted at all stages of pregnancy
  • damage results from destruction of target cells once they are formed, no teratogenicity
A

congenital CMV infection

64
Q
  • CNS: microcephaly, mental retardation
  • eye: choroidoretinitis, optic atrophy
  • ear: sensorineural deafness
  • liver: hepatosplenomegaly and jaundice
  • lung: pneumonitis
  • heart: myocarditis
  • thrombocytopenic purpura, hemolytic anemia
A

cytomegalic inclusion disease

65
Q
  • most common infection in solid organ transplant recipients
  • 1-3 months following transplant
  • primary infection more severe than recurrent
  • fever, pneumonitis, GI manifestations, hepatitis
  • not associated with organ rejection
A

CMV

66
Q

HHV-6 infection associated with?

  • replicates where?
  • incubation?
  • latent infection in what cells?
A

roseola infantum

  • salivary glands
  • 4 to 7 days
  • latent in T cells and monocytes, replication controlled by cell mediated processes
67
Q

HHV7 associated with?

A

no human disease

68
Q
  • 6month to 3 year olds
  • high fever for 3 days
  • febrile seizure in some patients
  • mild, pink, morbilliform exanthem
  • rash for 1-2 days then disappears
A

roseola infantum

Infectious Disease (22 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions