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*Barash > Hemostasis And Transfusion Medicine > Flashcards

Hemostasis And Transfusion Medicine Flashcards

1
Q

First screening test for hemostatic problems should always be?

A

Patient’s medical history

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2
Q

Most detailed platelet function test

A

Platelet aggrgation

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3
Q

Laboratory for extrinsic pathway?

For intrinsic pathway?

A

Prothrombin time

Activated partial thromboplastin time

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4
Q

What are the routine RBC compatibility testing (3)

A
  1. ABO compatibility
  2. Antibody screen
  3. Crossmatching
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5
Q

Oxygen delivery to tissues (DO2) is dependent on 3 factors

A
  1. Cardiac output
  2. Regional blood flow
  3. O2 carrying capacity (o2 content of blood)
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6
Q

Cryoprecipitate is created by a controlled thaw of frozen plasma, which allows for precipitation of large molecules such as (2)

A
  1. Fibrinogen

2. vWf

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7
Q

Symptoms of disorders of primary hemostasis present with bleeding where (2)

A
  1. Skin

2. Mucosa

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8
Q

MC HEREDITARY bleeding disorder

A

vWf disease

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9
Q

Are now the drug of choice for emergent reversal of warfarin in place of FFP

A

Prothrombin complex

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10
Q

Steps of primary hemostasis (4)

A
  1. Adherence
  2. Activation
  3. Stabilization
  4. Inhibition
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11
Q

When the endothelial lining is disrupted to expose the underlying matrix, platelets adhere to ______ via surface integrin receptors ______ and _______.

A

Collagen

GP (Ia/IIa)
GP IV

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12
Q

In high shear arterial flow, _______ from endothelial cells from preexisting clots bind to ______.

A

vWf

Integrin Ib/IX

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13
Q

In activation, in “outside-in” signaling, a central target is the?

A

Phospholipase C

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14
Q

G protein coupled receptors are activated by an array of agonists (

A
  1. Thrombin
  2. ADP
  3. TXA2
  4. Serotonin
  5. Epi
  6. Vasopressin
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15
Q

Activated PLC leads to several structural changes in the platelets. Via IP3, ______ is released from storage tubules. It catalyzes release of dense granules & a granules.

A

Calcium

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16
Q

These granules contain (3)

A
  1. ADP
  2. Serotonin
  3. More calcium
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17
Q

The a granules contain (3)

A
  1. Factor V
  2. Fibrinogen
  3. Platelet factor
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18
Q

Is the target antigen for the antibodies causing heparin-induced thrombocytopenia

A

Heparin-PF4 complex

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19
Q

Also facilitates rearrangement of the platelet musculoskeleton from discoid to flat and spiky

A

Calcium

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20
Q

Furthermore, calcium helps activate ______, which release more arachidonic acid.

A

Phospholipase A2

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21
Q

Arachidonic acid, as catalyzed by cyclooxygenase is modified to?

A

Thromboxane A2

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22
Q

The activated PLC initiates “inside-out” signaling of GP IIb/IIIa via. This changes the shape of GP IIb/IIIa which permits it to better bind fibrin and vWf.

A

DAG

Protein kinase C

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23
Q

Inhibition
Endothelial cells secrete ______, which binds to a surface receptor to signal increased CAMP. Elevated CAMP activates _______, a multisite inhibitor of vWf adherence. Endothelial cells also secrete ______, which at high levels initiates a signaling pathway leading to inhibition of the TXA2 receptor.

A

PGI2
PKA
NO

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24
Q

Aspirin and trifusal inhibits

A

COX1 (converts AA to TXA2)

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25
Q

ADP, has its P2Y12 recetor blocked by?

A

Clopidogrel

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26
Q

The PAR-1 for thrombin activation is blocked by?

A

Vorapaxar

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27
Q

Formation and stabilization of the platelet plug is blocked by (3), which act at GPIIb/IIIa.

A
  1. Abciximab
  2. Eptifibatide
  3. Tirofiban
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28
Q

A major inhibitory pathway, PGI2, is upragulated by (2)

A

Dypiridamole

Cilostazol

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29
Q

Thrombin converts?

A

Fibrinogen to fibrin

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30
Q

The process begins when endothelial disruption exposes tissue factor (TF) on underlying cell membranes EXTRINSIC to the circulation.

A

Extrinsic pathway

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31
Q

TF binds both? And is a cofactor for the activation of VII.

A

VII

VIIa

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32
Q

This form the 1st complex in the extrinsic pathway (4)

A
  1. VIIa enzyme
  2. TF
  3. Phospholipid (cell membrane)
  4. Ca
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33
Q

Activates factor X and IX

A

Tenase

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34
Q

Assemble to form the second complex, the prothrombinase (4)

Which converts _____ to _____

A
  1. Xa
  2. Va
  3. Phospholipid
  4. Ca

Prothrombin (II) to thrombin (IIa)

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35
Q

Thrombin activates platelets via surface receptors (2), cleaves more ____ to _____ and initiates the intrinsic pathway by cleaving factor ____ to ____. Thrombin also activate _____ to _____. This is carried and stabilized in the plasma by vWf. So low vWf also has a deficiency in what factor?

A

PAR1
PAR4

V to Va
XI to XIa

VIII to VIIIa
VIII

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36
Q

Third complex (4)

A
  1. IXa enzyme
  2. VIIIa cofactor
  3. Phospholipid
  4. Ca
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37
Q

Fibrin polymers are cross-linked by what factor?

A

XIIIa

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38
Q

All clotting factors are produced in the liver except for what factor?

A

VIII (endothelial cells)

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39
Q

Plasma half life of most clotting factors?

Except for what clotting factors? (3)

A

1.5 to 3 days

VIII (6 hours)

V & VIII (8 to 12 hours)

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40
Q

Clotting factors have 3 inhibitors

A
  1. TF pathway inhibitor
  2. Antithrombin III
  3. Protein C-ase
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41
Q

Inhibits external tenase by binding to Xa. Produced in endothelial cells, released by heparin

A

TF pathway inhibitor

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42
Q

A serine protease inhibitor or serpin. Inhibits proteases in all clotting pathways.

A

AT III

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43
Q

In tissues, this is the main plasminogen activator

A

Urokinase

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44
Q

PAI 1 is secreted where?

PA 2?

A

a granules

Placenta

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45
Q

One of the first platelet function test.

A

Bleeding time

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46
Q

VWf is a factor deficiency with clinical features of what dysfunction, due tonthe central role of vWf in cross-linking them.

A

Platelet

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47
Q

This vWf deficiency is a quantitative deficiency

A

Type 1

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48
Q

This vWf deficiency has decreased activity from a defective protein.

A

Type 2

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49
Q

What the factor deficiency in hemophilia A?

In hemophilia B?

A

VIII

IX

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50
Q

Fibrin formation by fibrinolysis generates the fibrin fragments called?

A

D-dimers

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51
Q

This test is used for measuring the clinical effects of bivalirudin and dabigatran.

A

Ecarin clotting time (ECT)

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52
Q

This tests measure the rate, strength and lysis, if any, of clot formation.

A

TEG

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53
Q

The INR’s therapeutic range for warfarin anticoagulation is?

A

2 to 3

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54
Q

What is the clotting factor that declines the fastest when warfarin takes effect?

A

Protein C

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55
Q

What drugs directly inhibit factor Xa? (2)

A
  1. Rivaroxaban

2. Apixaban

56
Q

Is a monoclonal antibody that neutralizes dabigatran.

A

Idarucizumab

57
Q

The plasma must be frozen within how many hours to be labeled as FFP.

A

6 hours

58
Q

Cryoprecipitate is made from barely thawed FFP, which yields a precipitate rich in?

A

Fibrinogen

59
Q

How many bags of cryo is equivalent to and adult dose?

A

5

60
Q

Routine serology with NAT (nucleic acid tests) shortens the window period in a newly infected donor how long for

HIV and HCV?
HepB?

A

7 to 10 days

1 month

61
Q

This serology for this virus is only found in leukocytes.

A

CMV

62
Q

Autologous donations by the patient can be made in advance of scheduled surgery. Usual minimum hemoglobin or hematocrit level is?

Donation should be made within this time period to permit erythropoeisis before surgery.

A

11 g/dL
33%

6 weeks

63
Q

In leukoreduction, WBC content is typically removed from 10 to the 9th to less than?

A

10 to the 6th WBCs/unit

64
Q

Washing cellular components with saline is mostly done to remove what component in patients with allergic transfusion reactions such as those who are IgA deficient?

A

Plasma

65
Q

This is performed to prevent transfusion GVHD from directed-donor units from relaltives.

The units are exposed to gamma irraditation (2,500 cGy)

A

Irradiation

66
Q

Platelets are stored at what temperature but this increases the risk of bacterial growth.

A

Room temperature

67
Q

RBC uses this for preservation. (4)

A
  1. CPDA-citrate (anticoagulant)
  2. Phosphate (buffer)
  3. 1 to 2 grams D-glucose and adenine (to maintain ATP levels and RBC membrane integrity)
68
Q

What component is depleted in the first 2 weeks and shifts the oxygen hgb dissociation curve to the LEFT.

A

2,3 DPG

69
Q

By the end of the 42-shelf life,

  1. The pH is?
  2. Plasma K is due to RBC leakage and hemolysis
  3. % Range of RBCs that are nonviable
A

pH is 6.5
50 mmol/L
15 to 20%

70
Q

RBC testing takes how many minutes?

A

45 to 60 minutes

71
Q

In emergency cases what blood group can be given?

A

Uncrossmatched group O RBCs

72
Q

What is the universal donor PLASMA

A

AB

73
Q

Transfusion guidelines start with hgb level below?
And hct level below?

Hemoglobin goals at what level?

A

8 g/dL
0.25

7 to 10 g/dL

74
Q

For patients with hgb levels between 7 to 10 g/dL two societies recommend transfusion in these patients (3)

A
  1. Critical non-cardiac end-organ ischemia
  2. Active blood loss
  3. Clinical condition of tissue hypoxia
75
Q

Patients with neurologic injury showed poor outcome with hgb levels below?

A

9 g/dL

76
Q

Physiologic compensation for anemia

A
  1. Increased cardiac output
  2. Altered microcirculatory blood flow
  3. Increased tissue oxygen extraction
77
Q

Anemia causes a shift of the oxygen hemoglobin dissociation to the?
Due to increased levels of 2,3 DPG

A

Right

78
Q

Isovolumic hemodilution of hematocrit levels less than how much generates and increase in 2,3 DPG.

A

25%

79
Q

Factors that shift the oxygen hemoglobin dissociation curve to the right thereby decreasing AFFINITY of oxygen for hemoglobin and improving tissue oxygen extraction.

A

CABET

  1. Carboxyhemoglobin
  2. Acidosis
  3. Inc 2,3 DPG
  4. NEUROPHYSIOLOGY
  5. Hyperthermia
80
Q

In STABLE patients WITHOUT bleeding, the hemoglobin should rise 1g/dL approximately how much hematocrit for each unit of packed RBCs.

A

33%

81
Q

AABB Target goal of hemoglobin for patients with acute hemorrhage.

ESA recommends a target hemoglobin between?

A

8 g/dL

7 to 9 g/dL

82
Q

For stable patients with severe thrombocytopenia, transfusion can be held until counts fall below this level in the ABSENCE of bleeding.

A

10,000 uL

83
Q

Prophylactic platelet transfusion is necessary for patients with this level who will undergo MAJOR or INVASIVE surgery such as lumbar puncture, liver biopsy, NEURAXIAL ANESTHESIA, or endoscopy with biopsy.

A

Below 50,000/uL

84
Q

Platelet transfusion start at what level when CVP will be placed.

A

20,000/uL

85
Q

In preparation for surgery on the EYE or the CNS platelet count should be raised above this level.

A

100,000/uL

86
Q

Any patient with a critical blood loss or hemorrhagic shock should be transfused with a platelet with a target of?

A

75,000 to 100,000/uL

87
Q

How many platelet concentrates from whole blood

1 unit contains about how much platelets

A

Five to eight

3 x 10 to the 11th or 4 x 10 to the 11th

88
Q

Plasma preparation includes

Frozen plasma remains usable for how many days?

A
  1. Fresh frozen (within 8 hours from phlebotomy)
  2. Plasma frozen (within 24 hours of collection)

4 days

89
Q

Prior to use of plasma products, each unit must be thawed at what temperature?

It can be stored at what temperature for up to 24 hours as thawed FFP or 5 days as thawed plasma

A

30 to 37 degrees celsius

4 degree + - 2 degree celsius

90
Q

Does FFP need ABO compatibility testing?

A

Yes

91
Q

The initial therapeutic dose of plasma averages how much in an attempt to obtain at least 30% factor activity.

A

10 to 15 mL/kg

92
Q

Riskiest blood component currently in use due TRALI, allergic reactions, and circulatory overload.

A

Plasma

93
Q

Is created by a controlled thaw of FFP, which allows precipitation of large molecules. It is then centrifuged, the supernatant removed, and the final product resuspended in 10 to 15 mL of plasma.

A

Cryoprecipitate

94
Q

Cryoprecipitate contains what clotting factors (5)

They are stored at -18 degrees C for up to 12 months

A
  1. Fibrinogen (15 g/L)
  2. Fibronectin
  3. VWf
  4. FVIII
  5. FXIII
95
Q

1 dose of cryoprecipitate increases the fibrinogen levels to?

A

50 g/L

2.5 g/L in plasma

96
Q

Threshold for fibrinogen replacement

A

80 to 100 mg/dL

97
Q

Most common transfusion reaction

A

Mild fever

98
Q

Most common transfusion-transmitted infection

A

CMV

99
Q

Clasically present within 4 hours of transfusion with an increase in temperature 1 degree to 2 degrees and may be associated with chills, rigor, anxiety and headache.

A

Febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction

100
Q

Best treatment for allergic reactions from transfusion.

A

Reduce the rate

101
Q

Overall fatality rate from transfusion reaction is? But is significantly dependent on the VOLUME transfused with fatality risk more than 20% with the infusion of more than?

A

10%

50 mL

102
Q

Refers to the induction of an immune response to allogenic antigen exposure. Majority of alloimmunization results from transfusion of blood products containing immunogenic antigens on the surface of RBCs.

A

Alloimmunization

103
Q

Leading cause of transfusion-associated mortality,

A

TRALI

104
Q

Criteria for TRALI (2)

A
  1. Acute onset hypoxemia within 6 hours of transfusion (PaO2/FiO2 <300 mmHg or O2 sat < 90%
  2. No evidence of left atrial hypertension
105
Q

Highest risk associated with TRALI

A

Plasma donations from Multiparous women

106
Q

Lung volume Measures in treating TRALI (3)

A
  1. Maximize PEEP
  2. Avoid volume overload
  3. Low Vt
107
Q

Despite the supportive treatment of TRALI, what is the best treatment?

A

Prevention

108
Q

Hyperkalemia results from high volume transfusion when the rate is?

A

100 to 150 mL/hr

109
Q

Coagulation factor activity decreases by how much for every 1 degree decrease in core body temperature.

A

10%

110
Q

Is an autosomal recessive disorder that results from an abnormality of the GP 1b receptor.

A

Bernard-Soulier syndrome

111
Q

Is an autosomal recessive disorder that results from a defect in the platelet integrin aIIbB3 receptor which, under normal circumstances, allows fibrinogen and other ligands to bind and facilitate plateletlet aggregation.

A

Glanzmann thrombasthenia

112
Q

vWf us produced where?

What is its functions (2)?

A

Endothelial cells and megakaryocytes

Platelet adhesion and aggregation at the site of vascular injury through GP 1b receptor on the platelet surface.

113
Q

Most common and mildest type of vWD.

What is the most severe

A

Type 1

Type 3, this is the ONLY type likely to cause spontaneous hemorrhage in joints and soft tissues

114
Q

Treatment for vWD

A
  1. DDAVP (promotes cleavage of vWf from fVIII)

2. Factor concentrates

115
Q

Most common hemophilia

A deficiency of what clotting factor?

A

A

8

116
Q

Hemophilia B also called what disease?

Involves a deficiency in what clotting factor?

A

Christmas disease

IX

117
Q

Hemophilia C results from a deficiency of what clotting factor?

A

XI

The only autosomal recessive inheritance pattern

118
Q

Protein C inactivates what clotting factor? And depends on protein S as a cofactor

A

V

119
Q

There are 2 sources of vitamin K

The absorption of both types depends on?

A
  1. Phylloquinone (green leafy)
  2. Menaquinone (GI tract)

Bile salts

120
Q

For vitamin K deficiency, what is the best route for this replacement?

How fast can IV take effect and what dose?

A

Oral adminstration has the best bioavailability

But can take 24 hours to take effect

6 to 8 hours for IV especially in 5 to 10 mg doses

121
Q

What is the mainstay of replacement therapy for consumption of clotting factors in DIC?

A

Plasma (10 to 15 mL/kg)

Cryoprecipitate is the product of choice for treatment of overt DIC with consumptive coagulopathy and major bleeding, because it contains fVIII and fibrinogen.

122
Q

This is primarily used for stroke prophylaxis since they increase the production of cAMP, an active inhibitor of platelet aggregation.

A

Phosohodiesterase inhibitors

123
Q

Is a reversible ADP uptake inhibitor and prime therapeutic agent in this class.

A

Dypridamole

124
Q

The P2Y12 ADP receptor antagonist such as these 3 drugs, prevent the expression of GP2b/3a on the surface of activated platelets.

A

Clopidogrel
Prasugrel
Ticagrelor

125
Q

Examples of GP IIb/IIIa inhibitors (3)

A

Monoclonal antibody
1. Abciximab (longer context sensitive half time 24 to 48 hours)

  1. Tirofiban
  2. Epitifibatide
126
Q

Target INR for warfarin monitoring?

A

2 to 3

127
Q

Warfarin monitoring

For patients with INR higher than 5.0 what should be done?

If the INR is 8.0

A

Warfarin (held for one to two doses)

Administer vitamin k (1 to 3 mg vit k IV) (corrected in 6 to 8 hours)

128
Q

New oral anticoagulant should be discontinued before surgery?

A 
24 hrs (minor surgery)
48 hrs (major surgery)
129
Q

Two types of heparin

A
  1. UFH

2. LMWH

130
Q

This type of heparin indirectly inhibits thrombin and FXa by binding to AT III

A

UFH

131
Q

Reversal drug of UFH

A

Protamine

132
Q

Is a type of heparin but specifically inhibits Xa.

A

LMWH

133
Q

Indirect factor Xa antagonist example

A

Fondaparinux (no antidote)

134
Q

What heparin is more likely to cause HIT

A

UFH

135
Q

Adverse effect of warfarin

A

Gangrenous thrombosis of the limbs

136
Q

Synthetic agents that directly inhibit thrombin. No risk of HIT. (2)

A
  1. Agatroban

2. Bilavirudin (rapid onset) (DOC for renal and liver dysfunction)

137
Q

Originally introduced for treatment for diabetes insipidus, but it was also found to improve hemostasis

What is the common side effect?

A

Desmopressin

Hypotension

*Barash (16 decks)

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