Heme Flashcards

1
Q

Hemophilia

A

X-linked recessive inheritance clotting factor disorder

  • Hemophilia A: factor VIII decrease → “Aight”
  • Hemophilia B: decreased clotting factor IX
  • Normal Factor Activity: 50-150%
    • mild: 6-49% (Bleeding during surgery)
    • moderate: 1-5% (occasional bleeding)
    • Severe: <1% (spontaneous bleeding)
  • S/sxs:
    • hemarthrosis (bleeding in joint)
      • main sxs = excessive bleeding
  • Diagnosis: increased PTT, normal PT, normal platelets and function
    • → corrected with mixing study
      • if PTT is NOT corrected with mixing studies = indication of lupus anticoagulant or factor inhibitor
    • most specific test: functional assay for factor VIII or IX
  • Tx: replacement for depleted factors
    • avoid situations that cause bleeding
    • avoid certain drugs that interfere with platelet function (NSAIDs and aspirin)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Von Willebrand Disease

A

Autosomal Dominant → most common genetic bleeding disorder clotting factor disorder

  • missing protein for platelet function (usually hangs out in the endothelium of the blood vessels and is important for factor VIII transport → platelets cannot adhere to vessel at site of injury → bleeding doesn’t stop as quickly as it should
  • hormonal changes, stress, pregnancy, inflammation, and infection can stimulate vWF production
  • S/sxs: hx and family hx of bleeding, bruising easily, increased menstrual bleeding, no hemarthrosis, petechiae, bleeding with minor injury
  • Dx:
    • decreased vWF and decreased Factor VIII
    • normal CBC, normal platelet count, and increased bleeding time
      • normal or prolonged PTT with normal PT
  • Tx: DDVAP (desmopressin)
    • if excessive bleeding → transfusion of concentrated blood clotting factors containing vWF
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Vitamin K Deficiency

A

Clotting Factor Disorder

Vitamin K does not cross the placenta and it is a fat soluble vitamin for bone calcification and activation of coagulation factors

  • Vitamin K activates: factors II, VII (half-life = 4-6 hours), IX, X, Protein C and Protein S
  • prolonged PT
  • causes: malnutrition, abx, fat malabsorption, hemorrhagic disease of the newborn
  • S/sxs:
    • bleeding, mucosal bleeding, epistaxis, GI hemorrhage, menorrhagia, and hematuria
  • Dx:
    • prolonged PT or elevated INR that improves with phytonadione (generic name for vitamin K1)
  • Tx: Oral or SQ phytonadione
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What causes a high aPTT?

A

activated partial thromboplastin time

measures the intrinsic pathway (slower)

  • Intrinsic Pathway Factors: XII, XI, IX, VIII
  • aPTT is the time in seconds for a fibrin clot to form: measures the function of factors VIII, IX, and XI
  • Causes of a high aPTT:
    • heparin
    • decreased factor (VIII, IX, XI), vitamin K, liver disease
    • consumption: inhibitor, DIC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What causes a high PT?

A

Prothrombin Time: measured in INR

measures the extrinsic pathway (faster pathway)

  • PT is the time in seconds for the fibrin clot to form: measures the function of tissue factor and Factor VII
    • Warfarin
    • NOACS
    • decreased factors: VII, liver disease, Vitamin K
    • overconsumption: DIC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia

A

hypercoagulable state

  • ≥ 50% reduction in platelet count within 7-10 days of exposure to heparin; results in global thrombocytopenia and thromboembolism due to immune rxn with platelet factor
  • S/sxs: hx of multiple DVTs, CBC is normal, PT and PTT is normal
  • Dx: HIT assay
  • Tx:
    • to prevent thrombotic stroke or MI use antiplatelet therapy: aspirin, clopidogrel, prasugrel or dipyridamole/aspirin combo
    • stop the heparin but still need an anticoagulant → must use a direct thrombin inhibitor (dabigatran)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Antiphospholipid Syndrome

A

Hypercoagulable State

Dx & Tx trick: CardiB goes to War → Cardiolipin, anti-beta 2, tx with warfarin

certain membrane phospholipids are normally prevented from activating the coagulation cascade by binding to circulating phospholipid-binding proteins; antibodies to these binding proteins block this protective measure and predispose the pt to thrombosis → associated with lupus and PREVIOUS MISCARRIAGES

  • S/sxs:
    • hx of multiple DVTs
      • CBC is normal, PT and PTT are normal
  • Dx: ANA and CRP in SLE
    • Russell’s Viper Venom time is specific to detect lupus anticoagulant
    • (+) anticardiolipin antibody
    • (+) anti-beta 2 glycoprotein I ELISA
  • Tx:
    • Prednisone (for Lupus) and Warfarin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Factor V Leiden Mutation

A

Most common genetic hypercoagulable state

mutations in factor V (of the common pathway) make it resistant to normal inactivation by activated protein C and predispose the pt to venous thrombosis

  • have high suspicion in pts with recurrent thromboembolic events, thromboembolism in young pts, or in pts with NO risk factors; previous miscarriages
  • S/sxs: hx of multiple DVTs, CBC is normal, PT and PTT are normal
  • Dx:
    • Factor V leiden Assay
    • Protein CC
  • Tx: anticoagulation
    • antiplatelet therapy: aspirin, clopidogrel, prasugrel or dipyridamole/aspirin
    • oral anticoagulant: Vitamin K antagonist, warfarin, direct thrombin inhibitor (dabigatran) or factor Xa blocker (rivaroxaban)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Normal Platelet Range

A

130-400K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura

A

aka immune thrombocytic purpura

  • Epidemiology: autoimmune rxn to platelets usually after a viral illnesssplenic platelet destruction often after an acute infx
  • Caused by: viral infx, SLE, lymphoma, medications
  • s/sxs:
    • mucosal bleeding, purpura, rashes, easy ecchymosis, petechial rashes
    • chronic in adults, self-limiting in children (usually)
  • dx:
    • diagnosis of exclusion (clinical diagnosis)
    • isolated thrombocytopenia (very low) with a normal CBC and normal peripheral blood smear
    • (+) Direct Coombs Test
    • Normal PT and aPTT
    • Primary ITP: isolated thrombocytopenia (<100K) without a known cause
    • Secondary ITP: isolated thrombocytopenia (<100K) with an underlying condition (e.g. HIV)
  • Tx:
    • steroids (prednisone) → blocks production of antibody
    • IVIG (IV Immune globulin)
    • Rituxan (Rituximab) → thrombopoietin receptor agonist
    • Splenectomy → reserved for pts with severe thrombocytopenia (<15K)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura

A

acute febrile disease with multi-organ thrombosis

  • caused by: deficiency or inhibition of metalloproteinase ADAMTS13 → most commonly disabled by autoantibody
    • ADAMTS13 normally degrades (cuts up) vWF multimers; so with deficiency have increased platelet adhesion → platelet thrombosis = damages brain and kidneys
  • Triggers: after drugs: quinidine, cyclosporine, clopidogrel, ticlopidine
  • Risk Factors: female, AA, use of desmopressin (DDVAP), pregnancy
  • Hemolytic uremic syndrome
  • S/sxs:
    • adults = purpura and FAT RN → Fever, anemia, thrombocytopenia, renal failure, neurological symptoms
  • Dx: CBC = normal, except LOW platelets
    • schistocytes (RBC fragments on the smear)
    • (-) Direct Coombs Test
  • Tx:
    • plasmapheresis (plasma exchange) = tx of choice → done daily until evidence of subsiding disease and is indicated by a normal platelet count
    • corticosteroids + Rituximab (thrombopoietin receptor agonist)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation

A

abnormal activation of the coagulation sequence lead to the formation of microthrombi through the microcirculation → causes increased consumption of platelets, fibrin, and coagulation factor

  • S/sxs: bleeding and thrombosis occur simultaneously
    • bleeding and oozing at catheter sites, mucosal surfaces, petechiae, and ecchymosis, hypotension, and tachycardia
  • Dx:
    • decreased platelets (slightly), increased bleeding time, increased PT and aPTT, (+) D-Dimer
      • SCHISTOCYTES
      • Fibrinogen = decreased
  • Tx:
    • supportive care: cryoprecipitate, FFP, platelet transfusions if <10K, heparin for thrombosis, tx the cause
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
A

Schistocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Microcytic Anemia

A

Low MCV (<80): a Tic is small (microcytic)

  • Thalassemia
  • Iron Deficiency
  • Chronic Disease
  • Lead poisoning
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Iron Deficiency Anemia Pathophys, Etiology, & Risk Factors

A

Microcytic Anemia: most common cause of anemia worldwide

  • Pathophys: decreased RBC production due of lack of iron and decreased iron stores (ferritin) normally stored in the bone marrow, liver and spleen
  • Etiology:
    • chronic blood loss = most common cause in the US, excessive menstruation, occult GI blood loss, decreased absorption: diet, celiac, bariatric surgery, H.pylori
  • Risk Factors:
    • increased metabolic requirements → children, pregnant and lactating women
    • cow milk ingestion in young children: infants fed cow’s milk <1 yr of age, toddlers fed large quantities of cow’s milk
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Iron Deficiency Anemia S/sxs, PE, Dx, & Tx

A

Microcytic (<80) anemia

  • S/sxs: weakness, fatigue, exercise intolerance, dyspnea
    • pagophagia→ craving for ice
    • Pica: appetite for non-foods (clay, starch)
  • PE: koilonychia: spooning of the nails
    • angular cheilitis : inflammation of the corner of the mouth
    • tachycardia, glossitis (smooth tongue), signs of anemia (pallor)
  • Dx:
    • CBC: microcytic hypochromic anemia = CLASSIC
      • Increased RDW, decreased reticulocytes
    • Iron Studies: decreased ferritin (pathognomonic), increased TIBC (transferrin), decreased transferrin saturation
  • Tx: iron replacement: results in increased reticulocytes (within 5-10days), correction of anemia (6-8weeks), repletion of iron stores (1-3 months)
    • increased absorption: take iron replacement with vitamin C (ascorbic acid) with water or orange juice on an empty stomach
    • severe life threatening anemia tx: rbc transfusion (e.g.myocardial ischemia)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Intrinsic vs Extrinsic Hemolytic Anemia

A
  • Intrinsic: (inherited Disorders)
    • sickle cell anemia, thalassemia (microcytic), G6PD deficiency, hereditary spherocytosis
  • Extrinsic: (Acquired Disorders)
    • autoimmune hemolytic anemia, DIC, TTP, HUS, paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria, hypersplenism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Hemolytic Anemia S/sxs & Dx

A
  • acute onset of pallor from anemia
    • splenomegaly
      • jaundice with high indirect bilirubin → too much RBC breakdown for the liver to keep up with
  • increased LDH: hemolytic anemias will have increased LDH b/c it is part of the RBC membrane
  • increased reticulocytes
  • Dx:
    • positive Coombs test if autoimmune etiology
    • G6PD deficiency:
      • episodic hemolytic anemia associated with sulfa drugs, fava beans, infx
      • HEINZ BODIES
    • Hereditary Spherocytosis:
      • (+) osmotic fragility test: mixes RBCs with varying saline, abnormally shaped RBCs will be fragile and fall apart
    • Thalassemia: very low MCV + normal TIBC and ferritin
    • Sickle Cell Anemia: very high reticulocyte count + pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia Tx

A

1st line = steroids; more severe and persistent may need a splenectomy and/or blood transfusions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Hereditary Spherocytosis Tx

A

Hemolytic anemia

splenectomy after appropriate IZs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Two types of Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia

A
  • warm antibody type: autoantibodies attach to and destroy RBCs at temperatures equal to or in excess of normal body temp
    • medications: penicillins, cephalosporins, rifampin
  • Cold antibody Type: autoantibodies become most active and attack RBCs only at temperatures below normal body temp
    • IgM antibodies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Anemia of Chronic Disease Etiology &

Pathophys

A

Microcytic or Normocytic Anemia

due to decreased RBC production in setting of chronic disease

  • Etiology: chronic infection, inflammation, autoimmune disorders, malignancy
  • Pathophys: 3 main factors that decrease serum iron:
    1. increased hepcidin: acute phase reactant that blocks the release of iron from macrophages, blunts EPO, and reduces GI absorption
    2. increased ferritin: acute phase reactant that sequesters iron into storage
    3. erythropoietin inhibition via cytokines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Anemia of Chronic Disease common causes, Dx, & Tx

A

Microcytic or Normocytic Anemia

  • Most common causes:
    • CKD (stage 4 and 5), anemia from connective tissue disorders, other diseases → RA, SLE, HIV, CA, cirrhosis, chronic infx
  • Dx: normocytic or decreased MCV
    • decreased TIBC, and normal or increased ferritin
    • CBC, serum iron, ferritin, transferrin
  • Tx:
    • tx the underlying disorder
    • recombinant EPO and iron supplements if HGB <10gm/dl → need to stop once hgb >11 gm/dl due to increased risk of MI and stroke
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Aplastic Anemia

A

Normocytic, normochromic anemia

  • only anemia where all 3 cell lines are decreased: decreased WBCs, decreased RBCs, decreased platelets
  • ***will have normal MCV, decreased reticulocytes***
  • Etiology:
    • often idiopathic but can be caused by chemicals, drugs, or radiation → ACE inhibitors, sulfonamides, phenytoin, chloramphenicol, chemo, methimazole, and radiation
  • PE: severe pallor, petechiae, ecchymosis, mucosal bleeding
    • → severe infx with decreased RBCs, WBCs, and platelets but no reticulocytosis
  • Dx: suspect in pts with pancytopenia (WBC < 1500, ****platelets <50K****)
    • decreased reticulocytes (helps to differentiate aplastic anemia in sickle cell patients who usually have a high baseline reticulocyte count)
    • serum iron = elevated
    • Most accurate test = bone marrow biopsy → normal cell morphology, hypocellular bone marrow with fatty infiltrate
  • Tx:
    • d/c offending drug, RBC transfusion
    • curative = bone marrow transplant (for pts <50 yo)
    • immunosuppression agents for pts >50 yo or with comorbidities
    • Filgrastim (hematopoietic growth factor: G-CSF)
      • reduces infx but does not change the course of the disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Folate Deficiency Anemia Etiology

A

Megaloblastic Macrocytic Anemia

Folate needed for DNA synthesis: decreased folate → abnormal synthesis of DNA, folate stores last 2-4 months

  • Etiology: most common: inadequate intake (alcohols, unbalanced diet)
    • → increased requirements: pregnancy, infancy, hemolytic anemias, psoriasis (increased skin turnover)
    • → impaired absorption: celiac disease, inflammatory bowel disease, chronic diarrhea, anticonvulsants (phenytoin, phenobarbital, carbamazepine)
    • → impaired metabolism: methotrexate, trimethoprim
    • → Loss: dialysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Folate Deficiency Anemia S/sxs, Dx, & Tx

A

Megaloblastic Macrocytic (>100) Anemia

  • S/sxs: anemia sxs similar to B12 deficiency but without neurologic abnormalities
    • fatigue, exercise intolerance, pallor, chlorosis (pale, faintly green complexion)
    • Glossitis, aphthous ulcers, diarrhea
    • Maternal Deficiency = risk of neural tube birth defects
  • Dx: decreased Folate, increased MCV
    • what to order: CBC, serum vitamin B12, and folate
    • CBC with peripheral smear:
      • increased MCV + megaloblastic anemia (hypersegmented neutrophils, macroovalocytes), low reticulocytes
    • decreased serum folate (<3), increased LDH, increased homocysteine, normal methylmalonic acid (distinguishes from B12 deficiency)
  • Tx:
    • folate supplements (oral folic acid): 400-1000 micrograms PO daily
      • d/c offending med and limit alcohol consumption
    • CDC recommendation and pregnancy: 4000 mcg each day 1 month before becoming pregnant, and during 1st 3 months of pregnancy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Vitamin B12 Deficiency Anemia Pathophys and Etiology

A

Sources of B12: mainly animal products (meats, eggs, dairy)

  • Absorption: B12 is released by the acidity of the stomach & combines with intrinsic factor where it is mainly absorbed in the distal ileum
  • Pathophys: B12 deficiency → abnormal synthesis of DNA ; B12 normally needed to convert homocysteine to methionine for DNA synthesis.
  • Etiology:
    • Pernicious Anemia = most common cause → lack of intrinsic factor due to parietal cell antibodies leading to gastric atrophy (parietal cells secrete acid and intrinsic factor)
    • Crohn’s Disease, gastric bypass, chronic alcohol use, celiac disease, pancreatic insufficiency
    • Meds: H2 blockers, PPIs (decreased acidity of stomach = less absorption); metformin (decreased nucleic acid synthesis)
    • Vegans → decreased intake
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Vitamin B12 Deficiency Anemia S/sxs, Dx, & Tx

A

Megaloblastic macrocytic (>100) anemia

  • S/sxs: anemia sxs similar to folate deficiency → fatigue, exercise intolerance, pallor, weight loss, glossitis, diarrhea
    • neurologic sxs: symmetric paresthesias = most common initial sxs (especially the legs)
    • lateral and posterior spinal cord demyelination and degeneration: ataxia, weakness, vibratory, sensory and proprioception deficits, decreased deep tendon reflexes, + babinski
  • Dx:
    • CBC with peripheral smear:
      • increased MCV + megaloblastic anemia (hyper segmented neutrophils), low reticulocytes
      • increased homocysteine levels and methylmalonic acid → distinguishes B12 from folate deficiency
  • Tx:
    • B12 replacement
      • for symptomatic anemia or neuro findings: start with IM B12, if adult IM = cyanocobalamin injection weekly until deficiency is corrected then once monthly)
    • pts with pernicious anemia require lifelong monthly IM therapy (or high dose oral therapy)
    • dietary deficiency = oral B12 replacement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

G6PD Deficiency Anemia Risk Factors, Pathophys, & Exacerbating Factors

A

Hemolytic Anemia

  • X-linked recessive that can cause episodic hemolytic anemia
  • Risk Factors: primarily males (x-linked), 10-15% of African-American males
  • Pathophys:
    • G6PD catalyzes NADP to NADPH, which protects RBCs from oxidative injury
      • → loss of the NADPH causes the oxidative injury to the RBCs which leads to denatured HGB that will then precipitate as a Heinz Body
    • Exacerbating Factors:
      • infection = most common cause
      • fava beans
      • Medications: dapsone, primaquine, methylene blue, nitrofurantoin, phenazopyridine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

G6PD Deficiency Anemia S/sxs, Dx, & Tx

A

X-linked recessive episodic Hemolytic Anemia

  • S/sxs: most pts are asymptomatic until times of oxidative stress
    • sxs begin 2-4 days after exposure → back or abd -pain, sxs of anemia, jaundice, transient splenomegaly
    • neonatal jaundice
  • Dx: G6PD assay
    • Heinze bodies + bite cells
    • increased LDH, increased indirect bilirubin, decreased haptoglobin
  • Tx:
    • avoidance of trigger and supportive care
    • during acute hemolysis, tx is supportive; transfusion is rarely needed
    • neonatal jaundice: phototherapy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Hemochromatosis

A

Autosomal recessive hemoglobinopathy caused by excess iron absorption

  • excessive iron absorption in the intestine leads to increased accumulation of iron (as ferritin and hemosiderin) in various organs → leads to organ fibrosis
  • S/sxs:
    • Classic Triad: cirrhosis, DM, & Skin Pigmentation
    • affected organs:
      • Liver (primary organ): cirrhosis → increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma
      • pancreas → diabetes due to iron deposition
      • heart → cardiomyopathy, CHF, arrhythmias
      • Joints: arthritis of the phalangeal joints, hips and knees
      • skin: hyperpigmentation → “Bronze-like”
  • Dx: screen patient’s siblings
    • high levels of serum iron, increased elevated fasting serum transferrin saturation and ferritin
    • decreased total iron binding capacity (TIBC)
    • Liver biopsy to determine degree of fibrosis
    • HFE gene testing
  • Tx:
    • phlebotomy → usually weekly at first then lifelong maintenance phlebotomy Q2-4 months
      • avoid iron supplements, vitamin C or excessive alcohol consumption
    • Deferoxamine (medication): chelation of iron → used if the patient is unable to undergo phlebotomy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Sickle Cell Trait

A

Autosomal Recessive → causes defective beta chain that leads to RBCS to sickle under conditions of low oxygen

  • HbA + HbS; HbSA = trait
  • avoid hypoxia and dehydration
  • no anemia, resistance to malaria
  • Hematuria
  • Dx: sickled cells on peripheral smear + HbS + HbA on hgb electrophoresis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Sickle Cell Disease

A

Autosomal Recessive Normocytic Anemia

HbSS = disease, causes a defective beta chain

  • almost exclusively in AAs, caused by homozygous inheritance of HbS → sickle-shaped RBCs clog capillaries, causing organ ischemia and infarcts
  • S/sxs: anemia, jaundice, arthralgias, fever, painful (severe abd and joint pain)
    • slow healing ulcers, N/V, cranial nerve palsies, hepatosplenomegaly, cholelithiasis
  • Dx:
    • (+) HgbS on hemoglobin electrophoresis = Definitive (no Hgb A)
    • normochromic, normocytic cells, increased bili, and LDH
      • hgb: approx 8-10, HCT 20-30%
      • reticulocytosis (increased reticulocytes)
    • sickle cells
    • Howell Jolly Bodies (nuclear remnants that have not been phagocytosed due to reduced splenic function)
  • Tx:
    • crises are tx with analgesics and other supportive measures (oxygen, hydration)
      • folic acid (penicillin prophylaxis in children)
      • vaccines prolong survival
      • antisickling agents:
        • Hydroxyurea may decrease the frequency of crises
        • voxeolotor: increased oxygen affinity of HbS
        • Crizanlizumab: prevents cell adhesion
        • RBC transfusion to minimize hypoxia → Hgb >10
        • Stem cell transplant and gene therapy = curative
    • Median survival 60yo: infx, CVA, renal failure, pulm HTN
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Alpha-Thalassemia

A

Autosomal Recessive hemoglobinopathy

Hypochromic microcytic anemia

  • S/sxs:
    • carrier: 1 deletion = asymptomatic
    • alpha thalassemia minor: 2 deletions = mild anemia, microcytic hypochromic
      • cis deletion for asians
      • trans deletions for AAs
    • alpha thalassemia major: 3 deletions: symptomatic → SPLENOMEGALY, MCHC, anemia, some need transfusion periodically
    • Hemoglobin Bart’s Hydrops Fetalis: 4 deletions = incompatible with life
  • Dx: decreased MCV, low hgb, HIGH RBC, normal ferritin, normal TIBC and a (+) HgB electrophoresis
    • peripheral smear: target, heinz bodies “Golf ball” looking cells and teardrop cells, microcytic
    • hgb electrophoresis: normal hgb rations in adults with 1-2 gene deletions, detects hgbH with 3 gene deletion
  • Tx: for alpha thal minor → no tx
    • for alpha thal major → can do splenectomy if severe anemia or splenomegaly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Beta-Thalassemia

A

Autosomal recessive hemoglobinopathy

hypochromic microcytic anemia

  • Beta Thal major: 2 of 2 beta genes damaged = significant organ damage, transfusion dependent anemia, excess alpha chains, stable as monomers, no precipitation in RBC
  • Beta Thal Minor: 1 of 2 beta genes are damaged = mild-mod anemia
  • S/sxs:
    • thrombosis = vascular disease
    • ineffective erythropoiesis → splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, bone pain
    • hemolysis = iron deposition and gallstones → endocrine dysfunction, cirrhosis, heart failure
  • Dx:
    • very high RBC, low MCV, very hypochromic, normal ferritin, normal to low reticulocyte count, normal RDW
    • peripheral smear: target and teardrop cells, basophilic stippling; nucleated RBCs → suspect thalassemia in pts with microcytosis and normal iron with increased RBC count
    • hgb electrophoresis:
      • trait (minor): increased HgA2 or increased HgbF and decreased HgbA
      • Major (Cooley’s): increased HgA2 or increased HgbF (up to 90%) and little to no HgbA
  • Tx:
    • beta thal major: transfusion hgb 11-12
      • folic acid daily
      • luspatercept: RBC maturation agent
      • splenectomy
      • bone marrow transplant (for severe cases)
      • iron chelation daily (need to prevent iron overload)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Neonatal Switch to Adult HbAA

A

alpha and gamma hemoglobin most prevalent just before birth, beta hgb rises just before birth

4 alpha, 2 beta in normal HgbA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

HgbA

A

2alpha and 2 beta chains

normal adult Hgb

38
Q

HgbF

A

2 alpha and 2 gamma chains

seen in beta thal

39
Q

HgbA2

A

2 alpha and 2 delta chains

beta thal

40
Q

HgbH

A

4 beta chains

alpha thal

41
Q

Beta Chains

A

precipitate of just beta chains

alpha thal

42
Q

alpha chains

A

precipitate of just alpha chains

beta thal

43
Q

Acute Leukemias Overview

A
  • onset over few weeks
  • symptomatic
  • immature WBCs
  • decreased hgb and platelets
  • need tx
  • risk of death
44
Q

Chronic Leukemias Overview

A
  • onset over months -years
  • minor sxs
  • excess mature WBCs
  • normal hgb and platelets
  • may need tx
  • chronic disease
45
Q

Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia

A
  • Population: children, boys>girls, hispanics, 2-5yo
  • Pathophys: overpopulation of immature WBCs (lymphoblasts) overtake normal hematopoiesis
  • Pearl: CHILD+Lymphadenopathy + bleeding + fever + bone marrow > 20% blasts
  • S/sxs: Pancytopenia → fever & infx (leukopenia); bleeding, petechiae, purpura (thrombocytopenia); Pallor & fatigue (Anemia)
  • Dx: bone marrow aspiration >20% blasts
    • flow cytometry test: tells you subtype of leukemia
    • WBCs 5-100K, decreased hgb and platelet
  • Tx: combination chemo → highly responsive with a remission >90%
    • can do stem cell transplant if relapse
46
Q

Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia

A
  • Population: adults: most common form of leukemia in adults (~50yo; men > women) Mature B cell clonal malignancy → lymphocyte normal range 20-40%
  • S/sxs: often asymptomatic, fatigue, weight loss, sxs related to pancytopenia
    • → lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly
  • Dx: peripheral blood smear: Lots of B-cells, limited other leukocytes. “smudge cells
    • WBC > 20K
    • Absolute lymphocyte count > 5000 (5K)
  • Tx: chemo, observation if indolent
47
Q

Myelodysplasia

A
  • Pre-malignant, leukemic disorder
  • Risk factors: age >65, radiation therapy, chemo, tobacco, mercury/lead exposure
  • S/sxs: often asymptomatic: pancytopenia → easy bruising, bleeding, frequent infx & fatigue
  • Dx: bones marrow biopsy → dysplastic bone marrow = hallmark → increased myeloblasts <20%
  • Tx: goals are sx improvement and prevention of progression to AML (blasts >20% in bone marrow)
    • some may need intermittent blood or platelet transfusions and EPO
48
Q

Acute Myelogenous Leukemia

A
  • Pearls: most common presentation → blasts + Auer rods in adult pts t(15:17)**
    • major of pts > 50yo
    • Auer rods associated with DIC
  • S/sxs: anemia, bleeding, bruising, bone pain, thrombocytopenia, neutropenia
    • TUMOR LYSIS SYNDROME
  • PE: splenomegaly, gingival hyperplasia
  • Dx: >20% of myeloblasts in bone marrow = GOLD STANDARD, + myeloblasts with auer rods
    • CBC: normocytic, normochromic anemia with normal or decreased reticulocyte count
  • Tx: combo of chemo + bone marrow transplant
    • tumor lysis syndrome → allopurinol or rasburicase
49
Q

Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia

A

BCR-ABL translocation t(9:22)(Philadelphia gene)

  • S/sxs: fatigue, abdominal pain, night sweats, weight loss
    • → splenomegaly
  • Dx: CBC full spectrum of WBCs, hgb and MCV = normal, platelets = slightly elevated
    • BCr-abl fusion
  • Tx:
    • imatinib = tyrosine kinase inhibitor for philadelphia + → they inhibit philadelphia chromosome tyrosine kinase activity and myeloid leukemic cell proliferation
    • hematopoietic stem cell transplant = most effective cure
50
Q

Hodgkin’s Disease

A
  • general: most common type of lymphoma, age: bimodal 20s & 50s, associated with EBV infx
  • S/sxs: B-cell sxs are NOT common→ fever, night sweats, weight loss, fatigue (sxs due to cytokine release from B-cells)
    • Pel-Ebstein Fever: cyclical high fever q 1-2 weeks
  • PE: painless lympha, especially of upper body lymph nodes (but may worsen with EtOH ingestion)
    • if solitary lymph node present > 30 days with no pain and no change → needs to be biopsied
    • contiguous spread (owls fly to the next tree)
  • Dx: Reed-Sternberg cells = Pathognomonic → B-cell proliferation with bilobed or multilobed nucleus “Owl Eyes” -→ OWL’s HOOT
    • Excisional biopsy of lymph node, may need bone marrow
  • Tx: excellent 5 year cure rate (60%)
    • chemo + radiation
      • ***stage predicts outcome***: Ann Arbor Staging: stage I-II single side of diaphragm; stage III-IV both sides of diaphragm
    • SEs of tx: cardiac disease if mediastinal radiation
51
Q

Burkitt Lymphoma

A

high grade non-hodgkin lymphoma

  • Pearls: CD20+, t(8:14), very aggressive, associated with EBV, HIV
    • pediatric/adolescents.
    • endemic to Africa
  • S/sxs:
    • B-cell sxs common,
      • usually involves the jaw and facial bones
    • “starry sky” appearance of bone marrow biopsy
  • Tx: African type Burkitt lymphoma = easily curable with chemo
    • Sporadic & HIV associated Burkitt Lymphoma = curable with multiagent chemo
    • Rituximab = anti-CD20 antibody
52
Q

Follicular Lymphoma

A

low grade non-hodgkin lymphoma

  • Pearls: small cell proliferation in follicles, CD20+, t(14:18), usually indolent but hard to cure; can progress to diffuse large cell
  • S/sxs: B-sxs common, rapid onset, SOB, intussusception, bowel obstruction and abdominal mass = more common
    • non-contiguous, extranodal spreadGI & Skin = most common
  • Dx: r/o other causes of lymphadenopathy
    • persistent, unexplained, enlarged lymph nodes should be biopsied
    • staging: should be done with CT of abdomen and pelvis
  • Tx: pts with indolent lymphoma with one or two nodes can be treated with radiation alone, incurable***
53
Q

Diffuse Large B Cell Lymphoma

A

intermediate grade non-hodgkin lymphoma

  • Pearls: CD20+, rapidly enlarging nodes, most common type of NHL, ave age - 70yo
  • S/sxs: B-sxs common
    • SOB, intussusception, bowel obstruction, and abdominal mass = more common → non-contiguous, extranodal spread → GI & skin = most common
    • Painless lympha, of multiple peripheral lymph nodes
  • Dx: r/o other causes of lymphadenopathy
    • persistent, unexplained, enlarged lymph nodes should be biopsied
    • staging: should be done with CT of abdomen and pelvis
  • Tx: chemo + immunotherapy (rituxan : anti-CD20 antibody), and stem cell transplant
54
Q

Multiple Myeloma

A
  • most common primary tumor of the bone/bone marrow in pts >50
    • all myeloma has prior MGUS stage, but only 1%/yr of MGUS pts develop myeloma
  • Malignant clonal disorder of ***plasma cells*** → overproduction of IgG or IgA
  • S/sxs: CRAB:
    • hypercalcemia
    • Renal failure
    • Anemia
    • Bone pain (atraumatic fractures
  • Pe: punched-out lytic bone lesions
  • Dx: serum protein electrophoresis → to determine clonality: monoclonal immunoglobulin
    • urine protein electrophoresis → Ig light chains (Bence Jones Protein)
    • RBC rouleaux formation
  • Tx: median survival = 10 years
    • complications of infx, renal failure, spinal cord compressionb
      • chemo +/- stem cell transplant
      • 3 med combo: revlimid (oral) + decadron (oral) + bortezomib (SQ) → disrupts protein production
55
Q

Monoclonal Gammopathy of Undetermined Significance (MGUS)

A
  • pre-multiple myeloma but NO CRAB → still has plasma cells and rouleaux formation
  • increased immunoglobulins (usually IgG)
  • S/sxs: asymptomatic by definition → no organ involvement
  • Dx: Serum protein electrophoresis → IgG monoclonal spike (elevated but usually <3g/dL) → usually stable over time)
    • bone marrow: <10% plasmacytoid or plasma cells
  • Tx: close observation → no benefit to early tx
56
Q

Waldenstrom Macroglobulinemia

A

Lymphoplasmacytic B-cell lymphoma that produces excess IgM

  • S/sxs: NOT myeloma → no renal, bone disease nor hypercalcemia
    • hyperviscosity (caused by large protein: IgM) → bleeding, vision changes, and headache
    • nephropathy: IgM protein acts as auto-antibody and causes immune disorder of the nerves
    • “OVA”: organomegaly, viscosity, anemia
      • anemia due to bone marrow failure
  • Dx: IgM on serum protein electrophoresis
    • bone marrow: shows plasmacytoid lymphocytes → look luke plasma cells and lymphocytes >10% lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate
  • Tx: plasmapheresis → to eliminate IgM and to tx the severe hyperviscosity
  • immunochemotherapy → rituximab (Rituxan)
  • Outcome: ****INCURABLE*** but course is indolent
57
Q

Virchow’s Triad

A
  1. endothelial injury (surgery, inflammation, chemo, cancer)
  2. abnormal blood flow (injured limb, sedentary, travel)
  3. hypercoagulability (estrogen, cancer, hereditary)
58
Q

Thrombocytosis

A
  • Primary Essential thrombocythemia: platelet count >600,000 and is dx of exclusion
  • Secondary (reactive) thrombocytosis: due to infx, inflammation, bleeding, and so on
  • S/sxs: splenomegaly, pseydohyperkalemia, elevated bleeding time, erythromelalgiaburning pain & erythema of the extremities due to microvascular occlusions
  • Dx: increased platelet count
    • peripheral smear show hypogranular, abnormally shaped platelets
    • one marrow biopsy → differentiate if high platelet is reactive or essential → shows an increased number of megakaryocytes, hyperplasia, clustering
    • JAK2 tyrosine kinase mutation
  • Tx: antiplatelet agents such as anagrelide and low dose aspirin
  • hydroxyurea
59
Q

Factors associated with Vitamin K activation

A

Factor 2, 7, 9, 10 (II, VII, IX, X)

inhibited by warfarin

VII has the shortest half life→ so it is affected first

60
Q

unprovoked vs provoked DVT tx

A

unprovoked: anticoagulation with heparin or coumadin for 3 months

Provoked: should be treated indefinitely

61
Q

Hemolytic Anemia Pearls

A
  • Autoimmune hemolytic anemia: (+Direct Coombs test), ⇡ retic, ⇡ LDH, decreased haptoglobin, and ⇡ bilirubin (indirect)
    • Hereditary spherocytosis: (+) osmotic fragility test, ⇡retic, ⇡LDH, ⇣ haptoglobin, and ⇡ bilirubin (indirect) and presence of spherocytes
    • G6PD Deficiency: after infx or medication (oxidative stress) in an african american male (X-linked) + Heinze bodies and bite cells on smear (damaged hgb -G6PD protects RBC membrane from oxidative damage)
62
Q

Coarse basophilic stippling

A

associated with lead poisoning → microcytic anemia

63
Q

Warfarin Skin Necrosis

A

associated with Protein C deficiency

64
Q

Hepcidin

A

inflammatory cytokine released by the liver in pts with chronic disease

  • restricts access to iron
  • stops absorption of iron from the GI tract and blunts the response to EPO
65
Q

indications for packed RBCs

A
  • hgb <7-8 stable patients
  • hgb <8 cardiac disease
  • symptomatic anemia → dyspnea, dizziness
66
Q

Most common transfusion rxn

A

fever/allergic rxn

67
Q

Allergic Transfusion Rxn

A

recipient antibody (allergy) rxn to plasma proteins in transfused product

  • s/sxs:
    • urticaria, pruritus, and anaphylaxis
  • stop transfusion temporarily
  • Tx: antihistamines, steroids
  • used washed blood products
68
Q

Febrile Non-hemolytic Rxn

A

***Most common transfusion rxn***

platelets > RBC

  • recipient antibodies against donor WBCs release cytokines from donor white clles in stored blood product
  • S/sxs: fever, chills, rigors
  • consider leukocyte depleted blood products
69
Q

Transfusion Associated Circulatory Overload (TACO)

A

volume overload associated with volume or speed of transfusion

  • S/sxs: dyspnea, tachypnea, hypoxia, HTN
  • Management: oxygen, diuresis
  • cause of transfusion related deaths
  • premedicate with diuretic, transfuse slowly
70
Q

Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury (TRALI)

A

most common transfusion related death

  • donor anti-HLA antibodies bind recipient neutrophils that aggregate in the lung and release inflammatory cytokines
  • S/sxs:
    • hypoxia < 6 hours after a plasma transfusion
  • tx: supportive care
71
Q

Delayed Hemolytic Transfusion Rxn

A

Pts are prior sensitized to RBC antigens with low antibody levels

  • → when re-transfused with same antigen, memory antibody response results in hemolysis of transfused blood 7-14 days later
  • S/sxs: low back pain, fever, weakness
  • Self-resolves
72
Q

Beta-Thalassemia associated with which chromosome

A

chromosome 11

73
Q

Alpha-thalassemia associated with which chromosome:

A

chromosome 16

A-thalassemia

ss= super sweet 16 → youre in high school so you want to get As to get into college

74
Q

Sickle Cell Anemia associated with which chromosome:

A

chromosome 11

75
Q

Which main clotting factor is not made by the liver?

A

Factor VIII → intrinsic

76
Q

Wells score ≤ 2?

A

unlikely for a DVT → D-dimer

77
Q

Wells score > 2?

A

high risk for DVT → u/s

78
Q

Wells Score > 4?

A

Likely Pulmonary embolism

79
Q

What do protein C and protein S do?

A

they inhibit clotting factors V and VIII

80
Q

codocytes

A

target cells

when you go to target you need to scan the codes on your items to check out

81
Q

echinocytes

A

burr cells

82
Q

dacrocytes

A

teardrop cells; associated with thalassemias

83
Q

Protein C and S provide negative feedback to which clotting factors?

A

V and VIII

Protein S and C: sacramento california, 95818

84
Q

Antithrombin affects which clotting factors

A

Anti -ThrombiN: Ten, Nine, and thrombin

85
Q

Phytonadione

A

generic name for vitamin K1

86
Q

Acute Chest Syndrome

A
  • pulmonary complication of sickle cell anemia :
    • syndrome of fever, respiratory distress
    • and the presence of a new pulmonary radiodensity on CXR
87
Q

Luspatercept

A

RBC maturation agent used to treat beta-thal

88
Q

Where are folate and B12 absorbed in the body?

A
  • Folate: jejunum
  • B12: ileum
89
Q

if a patient receives >10 units of packed RBCs what may happen?

A

the patient will continue to bleed without administration of fresh frozen plasma

  • (b/c packed RBCs does not have clotting factors)
90
Q

What Rh genotypes in a mother and father would represent a risk for hemolytic disease of the newborn?

A

Mother: Rh negative

Father: Rh positive

91
Q

An African American male is placed on hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil) for travel to Africa. Within six weeks he presents complaining of fatigue. CBC shows anemia. What is the diagnostic study of choice in this patient?

A

G6PD assay

hydroxychloroquine can cause oxidative stress